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Quizathon 2.0 - Level 1

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the RBI reduces the repo rate, what happens to bond prices?

a)

Rise

b)

Fall

c)

No change

d)

Depends on fiscal deficit

2.

Which accounting concept ensures expenses are matched with revenues?

a)

Prudence

b)

Matching Principle

c)

Going Concern

d)

Materiality

3.

Which valuation method is most commonly used in IPO pricing?

a)

DCF

b)

Relative Valuation (P/E multiples)

c)

Residual Income

d)

LBO

4.

An investor earns 5% nominal return when inflation is 7%. Real return = ?

a)

-1.87%

b)

2%

c)

-2%

d)

-5%

5.

The yield curve typically slopes upward because:

a)

Investors demand liquidity premium

b)

Short-term risk > Long-term risk

c)

Central bank controls it directly

d)

Bonds are mispriced

6.

In financial statements, goodwill is classified as:

a)

Tangible Asset

b)

Intangible Asset

c)

Current Asset

d)

Liability

7.

Which of these is a hedging instrument?

a)

Forward contract

b)

Equity share

c)

Debenture

d)

Mutual Fund

8.

Which of the following is a contra-asset account?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Trade Payables

c)

Equity Capital

d)

Cash

9.

The Put-Call Parity relationship links:

a)

Put & Call prices with spot and forward

b)

Dividend yield & coupon

c)

Equity & debt valuation

d)

Futures & options premium

10.

A company has P/E = 20, EPS = ₹15. Market price per share = ?

a)

₹300

b)

₹200

c)

₹225

d)

₹250

11.

Which of the following is an off-balance-sheet item?

a)

Operating Lease

b)

Plant & Machinery

c)

Retained Earnings

d)

Cash Reserve

12.

In India, which index represents government bond yields?

a)

SENSEX

b)

NIFTY

c)

NIFTY G-Sec

d)

INDIA VIX

13.

A stock has beta = 0.5. It is expected to be:

a)

More volatile than market

b)

Less volatile than market

c)

Same as market

d)

Uncorrelated with market

14.

Which organization regulates commodity derivatives in India?

a)

RBI

b)

SEBI

c)

FMC

d)

NABARD

15.

The DuPont analysis decomposes ROE into:

a)

Profitability, Leverage, Efficiency

b)

Profitability, Liquidity, Solvency

c)

Earnings, Dividends, Growth

d)

Assets, Liabilities, Equity

16.

A company's interest coverage ratio = 1.2. This indicates:

a)

Strong solvency

b)

Near default risk

c)

No debt

d)

High profitability

17.

WACC is minimized at:

a)

0% Debt

b)

Optimal Debt-Equity mix

c)

100% Debt

d)

100% Equity

18.

If exchange rate goes from ₹80/USD → ₹82/USD, then:

a)

Rupee appreciated

b)

Rupee depreciated

c)

Dollar depreciated

d)

No change

19.

In Altman Z-score, a value below 1.8 means:

a)

Safe zone

b)

Grey zone

c)

Distress zone

d)

Cannot say

20.

The Fisher Effect links:

a)

Nominal rates, real rates, inflation

b)

GDP, inflation, money supply

c)

Risk, return, volatility

d)

Taxes, equity, debt

21.

Which instrument is most exposed to reinvestment risk?

a)

Zero-Coupon Bond

b)

Coupon-Bearing Bond

c)

Futures

d)

Equity

22.

Which Indian company was first listed on NASDAQ?

a)

Infosys

b)

TCS

c)

Wipro

d)

HCL

23.

The Sharpe ratio uses:

a)

Excess return over risk-free / Std. Dev

b)

Excess return / Beta

c)

Return on Assets

d)

Market return / Alpha

24.

If dividend payout ratio increases (other things constant), effect on sustainable growth?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

No impact

d)

Depends on leverage

25.

Which type of risk is measured by Value-at-Risk (VaR)?

a)

Credit Risk

b)

Market Risk

c)

Operational Risk

d)

Liquidity Risk

26.

Which yield curve pattern often signals recession?

a)

Upward sloping

b)

Flat

c)

Inverted

d)

Humped

27.

A perpetual bond with coupon ₹100, required return 10%. Price = ?

a)

₹1000

b)

₹1100

c)

₹900

d)

₹1200

28.

The convexity of a bond helps explain:

a)

Duration underestimates price change

b)

Coupon effects

c)

Liquidity premiums

d)

Yield spreads

29.

Which of the following is not a component of CAMELS rating (banks)?

a)

Capital Adequacy

b)

Asset Quality

c)

Management

d)

Marketing Strategy

30.

Which of the following is not diversifiable through portfolio construction?

a)

Industry risk

b)

Market risk

c)

Firm-specific risk

d)

Business risk

31.

In the CAPM equation, the beta (β) measures:

a)

Asset's sensitivity to unsystematic risk

b)

Asset's systematic risk relative to market

c)

Firm's idiosyncratic volatility

d)

Expected excess return

32.

Which of the following is an assumption of the Black-Scholes option pricing model?

a)

Stock returns are normally distributed

b)

Volatility changes with time

c)

Markets are illiquid

d)

Arbitrage is common

33.

The Macaulay Duration of a zero-coupon bond equals:

a)

Half of maturity

b)

Time to maturity

c)

Yield to maturity

d)

Weighted average of coupons

34.

According to APT (Arbitrage Pricing Theory), returns are affected by:

a)

Only market beta

b)

Multiple risk factors like inflation, GDP growth, interest rates

c)

Investor psychology only

d)

Company EPS

35.

A market is in backwardation when:

a)

Futures price < Spot price

b)

Futures price = Spot price

c)

Futures price > Spot price

d)

Spot price = 0

36.

Creating a new company from an existing subsidiary?

a)

Spin-off.

b)

Split-off.

c)

Carve-out.

d)

Joint Venture.

37.

Purchase/sale for short-term price gain?

a)

Speculation

b)

Arbitrage

c)

Hedging

d)

Investing

38.

Gamma in options trading measures?

a)

Sensitivity of delta to price changes.

b)

Time decay.

c)

Interest rate sensitivity.

d)

Volatility sensitivity.

39.

Market depth best explained as?

a)

Ability to sustain large orders.

b)

Total stocks listed.

c)

Trade frequency.

d)

Market capitalization.

40.

What is Equity Financing?

a)

Allows firms to borrow funds without dilution of ownership and control.

b)

Allows firms to borrow funds with high interest rates.

c)

Allows firms to borrow funds in exchange for some ownership and control.

d)

Allows firms to borrow funds without any repayment obligations.