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Worksheets

BV Pre op

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Describe the best technique for obtaining the towel from the top of the sterile gown as you transition from the non-sterile to sterile role after performing the surgical scrub.

a)

Taking great care not to drip water on the opened sterile wrapper or its contents, grasp the towel with your fingers from the top of the sterile gown without touching the gown, your sterile gloves, or the gown wrapper with your fingers or hand.

b)

Grasp the towel with your fingers from the top of the sterile gown without touching the gown, your sterile gloves, or the gown wrapper with your fingers or hand.

c)

Grasp the towel with your fingers from the top of the sterile gown without touching the gown, your sterile gloves, or the gown wrapper with your fingers or hand. If you touch the gown, it's okay, because you will be grabbing it after toweling off.

d)

You don't need the towel over the surgical scrub, so only grasp the gown with the towel on top. Discard the towel after stepping away from the wrapper.

2.

What is the primary responsibility of the CST (certified surgical technologist) after medications are accepted on the sterile field provided by the circulator?

a)

Pass to the surgeon

b)

Label

c)

Confirm medication name and expiration with the circulator

d)

Be sure all hypos are capped

3.

The most commonly used absorbable sutures are made of?

a)

Silk

b)

Mersilene

c)

Synthetics

d)

Catgut

4.

When draping the mayo stand or draping the patient, it is important to maintain your hand position where?

a)

At least twelve inches from the non-sterile drape edge

b)

Beyond the one-inch margin edge of the cuff or drape

c)

Within the existing or created cuff of the drape(s)

d)

You need not concern yourself with protecting your hand; just pay attention to your hand placement and that it is at least twelve inches from any non-sterile area

5.

Following donning a sterile gown, the surgical technologist should

a)

Have a coworker tie the gown using clean gloves

b)

Tie the gown before donning sterile gloves

c)

Don sterile gloves

d)

Tie the gown with sterile gloves after assisting other OR staff to gown.

6.

While draping a patient who is in the lithotomy position, which of the following drapes is placed first?

a)

Fenestrated sheet

b)

Leg covers

c)

Under buttocks sheet

d)

Drape across the upper abdomen

7.

When flipping items onto the sterile field, the CST should keep the item:

a)

12 – 18 inches above the field

b)

Six inches above the sterile field

c)

11 inches away from the sterile field

d)

Directly over the sterile field

8.

Which area of the surgical gown is considered nonsterile?

a)

Back of the gown

b)

The front of the gown

c)

The gown sleeves

d)

The entire gown is sterile

9.

When is terminal cleaning in the operating room (OR) performed?

a)

Beginning of the day

b)

Middle of the day

c)

End of day

d)

Overnight

10.

Which organization(s) set the standards for operating room attire, both sterile and non-sterile?

a)

The World Health Organization (WHO)

b)

The Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

c)

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

d)

Both the CDC and OSHA

11.

Which of the following is an indication for urinary catheterization?

a)

Bladder decompression

b)

Patient comfort

c)

Facilitation of incontinence

d)

Control of urinary output

12.

Which of the following is the most common neonatal injury during dystocia?

a)

Adrenal glands

b)

Clavicle

c)

Liver

d)

Spleen

13.

What is the CST's primary responsibility when assembling equipment, such as drills and saws, for the surgeon?

a)

Verify the instrument is functioning

b)

Pass the instrument

c)

Let the surgeon assemble the equipment

d)

Do nothing

14.

Patients with ovarian torsion will require which procedure?

a)

Upper endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy

c)

Salpingo-oophorectomy

d)

Video-assist thoracotomy

15.

Septoplasty is a procedure done to repair a deviated septum. Immediately prior to the repair what instruments should the surgical technologist have ready?

a)

Kerrison rongeur

b)

#15 blade on a #7 knife handle

c)

Hurd retractor

d)

#11 blade

16.

Proper procedure when performing a catheterization of the bladder includes

a)

When catheterizing a male patient, the penis is cleansed beginning just distal to the scrotum and working to the meatus.

b)

A typical Foley catheter for an adult is a 10 French.

c)

Adult females should be in the frog leg position.

d)

The adult female perineum is prepped by moving posterior to anterior.

17.

Which of the following team members performs closed glove technique while preparing for a surgical procedure?

a)

Surgeon

b)

Anesthesiologist

c)

Circulating nurse

d)

CST (certified surgical technologist)

18.

Nosocomial infections typically begin in the operating room due to the incorrect insertion of the Foley catheter. The most common reason is?

a)

Procedure was not accomplished properly.

b)

Prep parameters were not accomplished.

c)

Lack of sterile technique.

d)

The balloon was filled with air instead of sterile water.

19.

Setting up for an emergency case, the surgical technologist should set up the following first?

a)

Retractor

b)

Scalpel

c)

Suction

d)

Suture

20.

Immediately prior to the first incision, verification of the patient, procedure, and side is performed with the entire team. This is referred to as?

a)

Sentinel event

b)

Iatrogenic incident

c)

Time out

d)

Incident

21.

What is the primary purpose behind the surgical skin prep?

a)

Removal of transient organisms and reduction of resident organisms

b)

Sterilization of skin

c)

Protection against surgical site infection (SSI)

d)

Highlighting the surgical site

22.

What is the key factor a CST (certified surgical technologist) must remember when dealing with an immunocompromised patient?

a)

Perform proper counts

b)

Use strict sterile technique

c)

Remove all contaminated items from the sterile field

d)

Have lap sponges on hand

23.

As the team prepares to drape an extremity, which would be the drape of choice?

a)

U-Drape

b)

Thyroid Drape

c)

Aperture Drape

d)

Laparotomy Drape

24.

What is the guiding principle of the CST (certified surgical technologist)?

a)

A. Aeger Primo

b)

B. Surgical conscience

c)

C. Aseptic technique

d)

D. Vigilance

25.

A surgical patient brought to the operating room is immobilized. How many individuals will it necessitate to move this patient?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

3

d)

6

26.

What should the CST (certified surgical technologist) do with instrumentation that has come into contact with the epidermis?

a)

Instruments can be reused

b)

Place the used instrument or sharp within a designated area on the back table

c)

Remove all bioburden

d)

Leave them on the surgical field to avoid cross-contamination

27.

Which are some important characteristics of surgical drapes?

a)

Be flame-resistant, lint free and impervious

b)

Reusable drapes should have a thread count of at least 300.

c)

Reusable drapes should be scanned by a machine to detect tears and punctures prior to sterilization.

d)

The best drapes are not 100% resistant to laser beam force.

28.

An AV fistula procedure creates which of the following?

a)

A. A connection between a vein and artery

b)

B. A removal of a vein and replacement with an artery

c)

C. Removal of atherosclerotic plaque from a vein and artery

d)

D. Closing a connection between a vein and artery

29.

Which of the following is an endogenous source of surgical site infection (SSI)?

a)

Operating room personnel

b)

The patient

c)

The environment

d)

Contaminated equipment

30.

Aseptic principles adhered to in consideration of a Mayo stand are inclusive of the following accurate statement.

a)

It is unnecessary to place the Mayo stand over the patient because most certified surgical technologists work from a back table.

b)

The Mayo stand cannot be placed over the patient as the underside is not sterile.

c)

The Mayo stand can be placed over the patient as long as there is a sterile drape. The patient does not need a sterile drape.

d)

The Mayo stand can be placed over the patient as long as it has a sterile drape and the patient has a sterile drape.

31.

Describe how to handle a bullet removed from your trauma patient.

a)

Receive it with a pair of forceps and pass both to the circulator

b)

Receive it with a gauze sponge and pass it to the circulator

c)

Receive it with a pair of hemostats and pass both to the circulator

d)

Receive it in a sterile container pre-filled with formaldehyde

32.

Which team member is responsible for patient transfer from stretcher to the operating room table?

a)

Surgeon

b)

CST (certified surgical technologist)

c)

Circulator

d)

Anesthesiologist

33.

Which of the following are used to insulate the conductive material holding electricity to prevent injury and ensure the consistent flow of electric current within its circuit?

a)

Sterile material

b)

Nonsterile material

c)

Nonconductive

d)

Conductive

34.

When squaring off the surgical site for adequate surgical exposure, the surgical technologist placing the four towels should always?

a)

Place the first towel closest to themselves.

b)

Place the first towel across from themselves.

c)

Place the first towel superior to the operative site.

d)

Place the first towel inferior to the operative site.

35.

What is the name given to remotely controlled robots?

a)

Telechir

b)

Telepresence

c)

Expert systems

d)

Resolution

36.

What is the ideal patient positioning for a diagnostic colonoscopy?

a)

Supine

b)

Left lateral

c)

Kraske

d)

Prone

37.

Which of the following positions involves lying the patient face up with the head tilted below the feet?

a)

Supine surgical position

b)

Trendelenburg surgical position

c)

Jack knife surgical position

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg surgical position

38.

Which of the following surgeries is indicated in patients with severe pancreatitis as a result of cancer?

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Whipple Procedure

39.

The surgical table best for exposing the affected area and also allowing for optional traction in an orthopedic case would be?

a)

Cysto table

b)

General surgical table

c)

Neuro table

d)

Fracture table

40.

What is the purpose of the surgeon's preference card?

a)

To list all information concerning the patient

b)

To have all equipment and supplies ready before the case

c)

To list the surgeon's gown and glove preference

d)

To list the surgeon's day – to – day schedule

41.

While transporting a patient from the holding area into the operating room, a means of maintaining body temperature is what?

a)

Pressure on the arms from touching the side rails is most likely to injure the median nerve at the distal humerus.

b)

If the patient complains of low back pain, you should provide reassurance.

c)

All patients should be covered for prevention of heat loss.

d)

It is helpful to place cables under the patient to prevent tangling.

42.

Bleeding uterine fibroids is an indication to have what following procedure?

a)

Esophagectomy

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Craniectomy

d)

Hysterectomy

43.

Which of the following positioning aides will immobilize the head and prevent damage to facial structures during cranial procedures?

a)

Donut

b)

Mayfield

c)

Pillow

d)

Wilson

44.

The following is a non-absorbable monofilament suture?

a)

Vicryl

b)

Polybconate/Maxon

c)

Chromic gut

d)

Polypropylene/prolene

45.

Which of the following medications is classified as an opioid?

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Propofol

c)

Ketamine

d)

Morphine

46.

Where will electrocautery (e.g., Bovie pencil) be placed on the surgical field?

a)

Furthest from the surgeon

b)

Close to the CST (certified surgical technologist)

c)

Adjacent to the operative site

d)

Closest to the surgeon

47.

Once the patient is moved from the stretcher to the operating room table, the very next action that should take place is?

a)

Lock the operating table

b)

Secure the safety strap

c)

Place the grounding pad on the patient

d)

Adjust the intravenous pole

48.

Direct patient care is provided by:

a)

Central processing department

b)

Surgical department

c)

Pathology department

d)

Medical records department

49.

When transporting a patient through a corridor, which direction should the patient be facing?

a)

Pull the stretcher, patient's feet first and restrained

b)

Pull the stretcher, patient's feet first and comfortable

c)

Push the stretcher, patient's feet first and restrained

d)

Push the stretcher, patient's feet first

50.

Your patient is having phacoemulsification. Which of the following pieces of equipment will you need to ensure is available to the surgeon?

a)

Electrocautery unit

b)

Fluoroscopy

c)

Laser

d)

Microscope

51.

Male patients desiring permanent contraception undergo the following procedure?

a)

Vasectomy

b)

Mastectomy

c)

Lumpectomy

d)

Arthroplasty

52.

When wishing to create a bloodless field, the following equipment is required to be placed onto the patient:

a)

Blood pressure cuff

b)

Pneumatic tourniquet

c)

Anti-embolitic stockings

d)

Bair hugger

53.

Which of the following positions places the patient flat on the table with the face and torso facing down?

a)

Lithotomy surgical position

b)

Fowler's surgical position

c)

Prone surgical position

d)

Lateral surgical position

54.

While transporting a pediatric patient to the operating room, the surgical technologist along with the circulating nurse are required to remember which of the following standards?

a)

Two surgical technologists are necessary to transport patients from the ICU to OR when they are on a cardiac monitor.

b)

Cribs must be equipped with a Plexiglas cover during transport.

c)

Patients are at risk of hyperthermia when transported without appropriate cover.

d)

Patients should be identified in two ways.

55.

Which of the following will prevent brachial plexus nerve damage when the patient is in a lateral position?

a)

Axillary roll

b)

Chest roll

c)

Foam pads

d)

Shoulder roll

56.

Prior to the beginning of a surgical procedure, the surgical technologist should:

a)

Arrange instruments by size on the mayo stand.

b)

Prepare suture by opening all packages.

c)

Count sponges, suture, sharps, and instruments.

d)

Apply safety strap below the patient's knee.

57.

So many of the positions patients need to be placed in on the operating room table require additional material and/or equipment. When placing a male patient in the prone position what will be needed?

a)

Blankets

b)

Footboard

c)

Shoulder brace

d)

Body rolls and padding

58.

Which of the following is an acceptable substitute for a rubber latex-sensitive team member?

a)

Silicone

b)

Vinyl

c)

Neoprene

d)

Timprene

59.

What is the basic amount of time needed for the surgical scrub?

a)

10 minutes

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

One to two minutes

d)

6 minutes

60.

What is the primary responsibility of the CST (certified surgical technologist) should a patient go into cardiac arrest during a surgical procedure?

a)

Protection of the sterile field

b)

Assist with CPR

c)

Have instrumentation ready for the surgeon

d)

Break scrub

61.

Introducing an anesthetic agent into the subdural space requires

a)

Veress needle

b)

Spinal needle cannula

c)

Reverse cutting needle

d)

Blunt point

62.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A. Aseptic principles are the same for a Mayo stand as they are pertaining to the sterile gown.

b)

B. The underside of the Mayo stand should not be placed over the patient.

c)

C. While establishing a sterile field, sterile drapes are placed to cover the back table, a cylindrical drape on the Mayo stand, and fenestrated (or other drapes) are placed over the patient.

d)

D. The underside of a draped Mayo stand is considered sterile, but objects such as tubing and cords that touch it are not.

63.

Which of the following terms defines "departure from the standard of care"?

a)

Negligence

b)

Scope of Practice

c)

Standard of Care

d)

Perjury

64.

What substance is used for lubrication of the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?

a)

Sterile Water

b)

Sterile Mineral oil

c)

Antibiotic ointment

d)

Petroleum jelly

65.

What is the first step team members must perform when opening sterile items when establishing a sterile field?

a)

Check for an expiration date

b)

Confirm that the item is needed for the case

c)

Check the integrity of the outer package

d)

Orient the item to the back table

66.

Draping a patient incorporates adherence to aseptic principles. What should the sterile team member avoid doing when draping the patient?

a)

A) Passing sterile drapes and towels over nonsterile areas

b)

B) Pass sterile items hand to hand

c)

C) Coming in contact with other sterile items

d)

D) Waking the patient

67.

Prior to prepping a patient in preparation for their ophthalmic surgery, the anesthesiologist injects the area with Marcaine and lidocaine, this type of injection is referred to as what?

a)

Epidural Block

b)

Bier Block

c)

Retrobulbar Block

d)

Spinal Block

68.

While draping an extremity of a surgical patient, the surgical technologist should do what?

a)

When draping the extremity, the surgical technologist should lift the extremity with the nondominant hand while draping with the dominant hand.

b)

The surgical technologist may hold the extremity while the stockinette is unrolled.

c)

The sterile field extends below the table as far as the edge of the drape.

d)

When draping for a craniotomy, the drape must not be placed on the Mayo stand or Mayfield table.

69.

Which of the following medications is used to treat malignant hyperthermia (MH)?

a)

Bacitracin

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Dantrolene

d)

Marcaine

70.

Which position would allow for better visualization during a Marshall Marchetti Krantz procedure?

a)

Reverse trendelenburg

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Telchir

d)

Trendelenburg

71.

Which of the following positions is the patient in when bronchoscopy and mediastinoscopy are performed?

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Lateral

d)

Prone

72.

Which of the following is a process of pharmacokinetics?

a)

Excretion

b)

Ingestion

c)

Side effects

d)

Route of administration

73.

Considering best practice, when changing from street clothes to operating room (OR) attire, what article(s) of surgical attire should be placed first?

a)

Headcover

b)

Mask

c)

Surgical scrubs (top and pant)

d)

Shoe covers

74.

Which of the following is an absorbable multifilament suture that resembles a monofilament suture?

a)

Silk

b)

Vicryl

c)

Chromic gut

d)

Nylon

75.

When counting your laparotomy sponges (laps), you count six. After counting them a second time, you still have six. Your patient has not yet entered the surgical suite. What is your next move?

a)

Keep all six sponges, and you anticipate you will need more anyway.

b)

Ask the circulator to place them in a bag, leave them by your case cart so you can take them home and get your another pack.

c)

Ask the circulator to take them out of the surgical suite for disposing of them and get you another pack of sponges.

d)

Ask the circulator to bag them, label them incorrect count, and place them by or in the case cart until the case has concluded.

76.

Which of the following standard surgical positions places the patients flat on their back, and then lowers the feet below the level of the head?

a)

Supine surgical position

b)

Trendelenburg surgical position

c)

Jack knife surgical position

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg surgical position

77.

There clearly are four stages of anesthesia, which is the correct sequence?

a)

Maintenance, induction, emergence, recovery

b)

Maintenance, induction, recovery, emergence

c)

Induction, maintenance, emergence, recovery

d)

Induction, maintenance, recovery, emergence

78.

______ pertaining to an instrument may cause accidental burns to the patient.

a)

Finger rings

b)

Insulation

c)

Working tips

d)

Grip mechanisms

79.

Performing a surgical procedure without the patient's informed consent is regarded as ______.

a)

Defamation

b)

Libel

c)

Battery

d)

Assault

80.

When should sterile items be opened prior to a surgical procedure?

a)

30 to 60 minutes before time of surgery

b)

20 minutes before time of surgery

c)

2 hours prior to time of surgery

d)

At the time of surgery

81.

Which of the following positions would facilitate optimal laparoscopic visualization of the uterus for a hysterectomy?

a)

Prone

b)

Reverse Trendelenburg

c)

Supine

d)

Trendelenburg

82.

What happens when the "Time Out" is called by the circulator?

a)

The surgeon makes the initial incision

b)

The CST (certified surgical technologist) will pass off medication

c)

All action comes to a halt

d)

The CST initiates the instrumentation count

83.

One AST practice concerning sponge counts in the OR consists of which following standard?

a)

The surgeon is responsible for proper performance of the sponge count.

b)

Sponge counts are only required before the skin incision and after skin closure.

c)

Sponge counts should occur when there is a change in circulator or CST.

d)

Sponges can be cut to smaller size and added to the count.

84.

Which of the following sponges are used in neurosurgery?

a)

Laparotomy sponges

b)

Ray – tecs

c)

Kittner

d)

Cottonoids

85.

The following position involves placing the patient in a semi-upright sitting position:

a)

Lithotomy surgical position

b)

Fowler’s surgical position

c)

Prone surgical position

d)

Lateral surgical position

86.

Maintaining a sterile field adheres to specific protocols. One of those protocols incorporates information pertaining to a non-sterile individual. Which of the following is true of sterile procedure in the OR?

a)

The table in the operating room is considered sterile on the top to 12" below.

b)

A nonsterile person should not come closer than 1 foot away from the sterile field.

c)

Sterile fields can be covered with sterile drapes for later use.

d)

Any area of the body covered by a sterile gown can face the sterile area.

87.

Once a surgical gown and surgical gloves are donned, to avoid contamination, the surgical technologist needs to remember what standard?

a)

The entire surgical drape is considered sterile, even the underside.

b)

The drape should positioned as many times as necessary to achieve the most comfortable position.

c)

Maintain 12 inches from the OR table during draping.

d)

Sterile drapes are unfolded prior to placing them on the patient.

88.

The skin prep required when preparing a patient for an abdominal procedure would extend from the:

a)

Xiphoid process to the pubis

b)

Chest to waist

c)

Nipple line to mid-thigh

d)

Umbilicus to the pubis

89.

What suction device should the CST (certified surgical technologist) have on the field for use in large abdominal cases?

a)

Yankauer

b)

Poole

c)

Frazier

d)

Asepto syringe

90.

Which of the following would the CST (certified surgical technologist) prepare for an open liver resection?

a)

Major GYN set

b)

Major laparotomy set

c)

Minor laparotomy set

d)

Orthopedic set

91.

If a surgeon needs to better visualize pelvic organs, such as the uterus, which of the following positions would be best?

a)

Trendelenberg

b)

ReverseTrendelenberg

c)

Prone

d)

Jackknife

92.

The first count for any procedure is performed:

a)

Before the CST scrubs

b)

Immediately after all sterile items are flipped onto the sterile back table

c)

Prior to the “Time Out” being called

d)

Before the skin incision is made

93.

The first electrosurgical unit was created in 1926 by:

a)

Dr. Riley Smith and Dr. Weston James

b)

Henry J. Ross and Andrew Lister

c)

Dr. Washington D. Dwelter and Henry J. Ross

d)

Dr. William T. Bovie and Dr. Harvey Cushing

94.

Using a waterless surgical scrub such as Avagard® the surgical technologist should make sure they?

a)

Used a minimal amount of solution

b)

Towel dry hands

c)

Remove visible soil from subungual areas of fingers

d)

Don gloves over wet solution

95.

The patient has been prepped, the surgical team proceeds to drape the patient; upon placement of the drape it is noted that part of the unsterile skin is exposed; what is the correct process to take place?

a)

Remove the drape and re-prep

b)

Place another drape over it

c)

Cover with a towel

d)

Reposition the drape

96.

A patient diagnosed with advanced goiter, will undergo the following surgical procedure.

a)

Laparoscopic appendectomy

b)

Proctocolectomy

c)

Partial thyroidectomy

d)

Total thyroidectomy

97.

As a surgical technologist is getting ready for the day to ensure they have all of the necessary supplies needed for their cases, they should verify this information with?

a)

The surgeon’s preference card

b)

Sterile Processing Department

c)

Risk Management

d)

The Control Desk

98.

A patient is having a radical neck dissection, the surgeon wishes to utilize a split sheet. Once placed on the patient the unprepped skin is exposed, what should be done next?

a)

Adjust the drape and apply an Ioban drape over it

b)

Add an additional drape to the existing drape

c)

Shift the drape over so the exposed skin is covered

d)

Remove the drapes, re-prep the patient

99.

What position will be utilized for anorectal surgery?

a)

Kraske

b)

Kidney

c)

Lateral

d)

Supine

100.

When is a Foley catheter usually placed in a patient undergoing a surgical procedure?

a)

Before transport

b)

Before induction of anesthesia

c)

After induction of anesthesia

d)

After the sterile field is in place

101.

in the event of an emergent surgical procedure where the patients life takes precedence, which of the following is the method that will be used to confirm that there are no retained surgical items?

a)

an xray of the patient postoperatively

b)

a preoperative and postoperative count

c)

a quick visual of the surgical equipment by the CST preoperatively

d)

A count initiated at closure is usually sufficient in these cases