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Cloud Computing Quiz

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is a benefit of cloud computing?

a)

Fixed capacity

b)

Elastic scalability

c)

High upfront cost

d)

Manual provisioning

2.

What does “pay-as-you-go” mean in cloud?

a)

Pay fixed monthly rent

b)

Pay only for what you use

c)

Pay upfront for 5 years

d)

Pay extra for idle resources

3.

Which model provides complete applications over the internet?

a)

IaaS

b)

PaaS

c)

SaaS

d)

FaaS

4.

Virtualization in cloud helps to:

a)

Increase physical servers

b)

Run multiple OS on one host

c)

Replace DNS

d)

Create backups

5.

Which AWS service supports hybrid cloud storage?

a)

S3 Glacier

b)

Storage Gateway

c)

DynamoDB

d)

Lambda

6.

Which is an example of PaaS?

a)

AWS EC2

b)

AWS Elastic Beanstalk

c)

AWS IAM

d)

AWS CloudTrail

7.

Which deployment model is fully customer-owned?

a)

Private cloud

b)

Public cloud

c)

Hybrid cloud

d)

Multi-cloud

8.

CloudFront belongs to which service category?

a)

Compute

b)

Storage

c)

Content Delivery Network

d)

Database

9.

Which AWS service provides DNS?

a)

EC2

b)

Route 53

c)

S3

d)

VPC

10.

AWS region consists of:

a)

Single data center

b)

Multiple Availability Zones

c)

Only one subnet

d)

A single availability zone

11.

Which AWS service provides scalable virtual servers?

a)

S3

b)

EC2

c)

RDS

d)

CloudTrail

12.

Which instance type is cost-effective for short tasks?

a)

Reserved Instances

b)

On-Demand

c)

Dedicated Hosts

d)

Spot Instances

13.

Which service is serverless?

a)

EC2

b)

Lambda

c)

EBS

d)

Route 53

14.

Elastic Beanstalk is mainly used for:

a)

Database hosting

b)

Auto-deploying applications

c)

Monitoring usage

d)

Backups

15.

Which storage is cheapest for infrequent access?

a)

S3 Standard

b)

S3 Glacier

c)

EBS

d)

DynamoDB

16.

EBS provides:

a)

Block storage

b)

Object storage

c)

File storage

d)

Content delivery

17.

Amazon FSx provides:

a)

File storage

b)

Compute services

c)

Monitoring

d)

IAM

18.

S3 durability is:

a)

99.9%

b)

99.99%

c)

99.999999999% (11 9s)

d)

90%

19.

Which is AWS’s relational database?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

RDS

c)

S3

d)

Redshift

20.

Amazon Redshift is mainly used for:

a)

Transactional processing

b)

Data warehousing & analytics

c)

Object storage

d)

Monitoring logs

21.

Which database service is key-value NoSQL?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

RDS

c)

Aurora

d)

Neptune

22.

Which RDS option is open-source?

a)

SQL Server

b)

Oracle

c)

PostgreSQL/MySQL

d)

Aurora only

23.

Which AWS service creates isolated networks?

a)

VPC

b)

IAM

c)

CloudTrail

d)

CloudFront

24.

Subnets in AWS can be:

a)

Only private

b)

Only public

c)

Public or private

d)

None

25.

NAT Gateway is used to:

a)

Connect private subnets to internet

b)

Encrypt data

c)

Host DNS

d)

Provide compute power

26.

Which service provides secure private connectivity between AWS & on-premise?

a)

VPN

b)

Direct Connect

c)

Route 53

d)

CloudFront

27.

Which service distributes traffic across instances?

a)

CloudFront

b)

Elastic Load Balancer (ELB)

c)

Route 53

d)

Lambda

28.

IAM stands for:

a)

Identity and Access Management

b)

Information Access Module

c)

Internal Access Method

d)

Internet Authentication Manager

29.

IAM roles are used for:

a)

Human users only

b)

Temporary access for AWS services

c)

Billing alerts

d)

DNS routing

30.

AWS Shield protects against:

a)

Hardware failures

b)

DDoS attacks

c)

SQL injection

d)

Billing issues

31.

Which service records API calls?

a)

CloudWatch

b)

CloudTrail

c)

Shield

d)

Budgets

32.

AWS Config is used for:

a)

DNS resolution

b)

Compliance & resource auditing

c)

Running VMs

d)

File storage

33.

KMS is for:

a)

Monitoring logs

b)

Key Management Service (encryption)

c)

Message queues

d)

Scaling databases

34.

Which is free for all AWS accounts?

a)

IAM

b)

EC2

c)

RDS

d)

S3 Glacier

35.

Security Groups in AWS act as:

a)

Network firewalls at instance level

b)

OS-level firewall

c)

Backup service

d)

Billing alerts

36.

Which AWS service is for compliance/security checks?

a)

Trusted Advisor

b)

DynamoDB

c)

Redshift

d)

Lambda

37.

MFA stands for:

a)

Multi-Factor Authentication

b)

Multiple Firewall Access

c)

Managed File Access

d)

Mainframe Authentication

38.

Which pricing model is cheapest for long-term workloads?

a)

On-Demand

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

Spot Instances

d)

Dedicated Host

39.

Free Tier S3 storage limit is:

a)

1 GB

b)

5 GB

c)

15 GB

d)

30 GB

40.

Which AWS tool helps calculate costs?

a)

Cost Explorer

b)

CloudTrail

c)

CloudWatch

d)

IAM

41.

Which billing alert service can send notifications?

a)

Budgets

b)

Shield

c)

Config

d)

S3

42.

Consolidated billing is part of:

a)

Organizations

b)

CloudWatch

c)

VPC

d)

IAM

43.

Spot Instances can be:

a)

Interrupted by AWS

b)

Reserved forever

c)

Free of cost

d)

Only for databases

44.

Which model has no upfront payment?

a)

Reserved

b)

Spot

c)

On-Demand

d)

Dedicated

45.

AWS Free Tier is valid for:

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

12 months

d)

Lifetime

46.

Which service shows detailed billing reports?

a)

Cost & Usage Reports

b)

CloudWatch

c)

Budgets

d)

IAM

47.

Which factor mainly reduces cost in cloud?

a)

Pay-as-you-go

b)

Fixed resources

c)

Manual scaling

d)

On-premise only

48.

CloudFormation is used for:

a)

Infrastructure as Code

b)

Monitoring

c)

Storage

d)

CDN

49.

CloudWatch alarms are used for:

a)

Identity management

b)

Notifications when thresholds are crossed

c)

Creating VMs

d)

DNS routing

50.

Which service is event-driven?

a)

Lambda

b)

CloudFront

c)

DynamoDB

d)

VPC

51.

Which service provides AI/ML capabilities?

a)

SageMaker

b)

DynamoDB

c)

IAM

d)

EC2

52.

Which is a managed Kubernetes service?

a)

ECS

b)

EKS

c)

CloudFormation

d)

Redshift

53.

Which AWS service is used for queuing messages?

a)

SNS

b)

SQS

c)

Lambda

d)

CloudTrail

54.

Which service publishes notifications to multiple subscribers?

a)

SNS

b)

SQS

c)

IAM

d)

Route 53

55.

Which service enables migration of databases to AWS?

a)

DMS

b)

RDS

c)

CloudTrail

d)

Config

56.

Elasticity ensures:

a)

Adding resources when demand grows

b)

Always keeping fixed capacity

c)

Only vertical scaling

d)

Avoiding backups

57.

Which service provides well-architected best practices?

a)

Trusted Advisor

b)

Well-Architected Tool

c)

Config

d)

CloudWatch

58.

Which of the following best describes IaaS?

a)

Renting virtualized hardware resources over the internet

b)

Providing pre-built software applications online

c)

A content delivery service

d)

A relational database service

59.

Which AWS service provides global content delivery?

a)

S3

b)

CloudFront

c)

EC2

d)

Route 53

60.

What is the benefit of elasticity in cloud computing?

a)

Permanent fixed capacity

b)

Automatically adjusting resources based on demand

c)

Pay once, use forever

d)

Offline backup only

61.

Which AWS database service is NoSQL?

a)

RDS

b)

Aurora

c)

DynamoDB

d)

Redshift

62.

Which service lets you run code without managing servers?

a)

Lambda

b)

EC2

c)

Elastic Beanstalk

d)

CloudFormation

63.

In AWS VPC, what does a subnet represent?

a)

A virtual firewall

b)

A range of IP addresses within the VPC

c)

A database partition

d)

A monitoring service

64.

Which service is used for identity and access management in AWS?

a)

IAM

b)

Cognito

c)

KMS

d)

Shield

65.

Which AWS service allows you to set budget alerts for cost control?

a)

CloudTrail

b)

Budgets

c)

CloudWatch

d)

Trusted Advisor

66.

Which AWS service provides a virtual private network to connect on-premises to AWS?

a)

VPC Peering

b)

Direct Connect

c)

CloudFront

d)

Route 53

67.

Which pricing model is best for unpredictable, short-term workloads?

a)

Reserved Instances

b)

On-Demand

c)

Dedicated Host

d)

Savings Plan

68.

What does AWS CloudTrail primarily record?

a)

Application errors

b)

API calls and account activity

c)

Data transfer costs

d)

Network packet flow

69.

Which of these is an AWS-managed container orchestration service?

a)

Docker

b)

ECS

c)

Lambda

d)

API Gateway

70.

The Shared Responsibility Model states AWS is responsible for:

a)

Patching guest OS

b)

Securing physical infrastructure

c)

Application-level security

d)

Data classification

71.

In AWS, which service is used to create and manage encryption keys?

a)

IAM

b)

CloudHSM

c)

KMS

d)

GuardDuty

72.

What is an Availability Zone?

a)

A single AWS region

b)

A data center within a region

c)

A CDN edge location

d)

A reserved compute host

73.

Which AWS database is fully serverless?

a)

RDS

b)

DynamoDB

c)

Aurora Serverless

d)

Neptune

74.

Which AWS service lets you manage and provision infrastructure as code?

a)

Elastic Beanstalk

b)

CloudFormation

c)

Cloud9

d)

OpsWorks

75.

Which AWS service improves security by analyzing logs for anomalies?

a)

GuardDuty

b)

Inspector

c)

WAF

d)

CloudTrail

76.

Which type of load balancer supports WebSockets and HTTP/2?

a)

Classic Load Balancer

b)

Application Load Balancer

c)

Network Load Balancer

d)

Gateway Load Balancer

77.

Which AWS service is used to send mobile push notifications?

a)

SNS

b)

SQS

c)

CloudWatch

d)

SES

78.

What is the default limit of IAM users per AWS account (can be increased)?

a)

500

b)

100

c)

1000

d)

50

79.

In EC2, what does EBS stand for?

a)

Elastic Block Store

b)

Extended Backup Storage

c)

Elastic Backup Service

d)

Enhanced Block Security

80.

Which AWS service enables caching for databases and applications?

a)

CloudFront

b)

ElastiCache

c)

S3 Glacier

d)

CloudWatch

81.

Which AWS service helps in managing hybrid DNS?

a)

Route 53 Resolver

b)

Global Accelerator

c)

VPC Endpoints

d)

Transit Gateway

82.

A “stateless” firewall in AWS networking is called:

a)

NACL

b)

Security Group

c)

GuardDuty

d)

Shield

83.

Which service lets you automate software deployment across EC2 instances?

a)

CloudFormation

b)

CodeDeploy

c)

OpsWorks

d)

CodePipeline

84.

Which AWS feature allows consolidated billing across multiple accounts?

a)

Organizations

b)

Consolidation Hub

c)

Control Tower

d)

Budgets

85.

Which storage class is cheapest but has retrieval delays?

a)

S3 Standard

b)

S3 Glacier Deep Archive

c)

S3 Intelligent Tiering

d)

EBS Cold

86.

Which AWS service enables message queuing?

a)

SNS

b)

SQS

c)

EventBridge

d)

Kinesis

87.

Which AWS service provides visual dashboards and alarms for metrics?

a)

CloudTrail

b)

CloudWatch

c)

Config

d)

Inspector

88.

Spot Instances are terminated when:

a)

CPU utilization is high

b)

AWS needs the capacity back

c)

Reserved Instance is purchased

d)

Application crashes

89.

Which AWS tool gives an estimated monthly bill before launch?

a)

Cost Explorer

b)

Pricing Calculator

c)

Budgets

d)

Trusted Advisor

90.

Which AWS service allows automatic infrastructure compliance checks?

a)

Inspector

b)

Config

c)

Shield

d)

CloudFormation

91.

Which AWS service reduces latency by routing traffic to the nearest edge?

a)

VPC Peering

b)

CloudFront

c)

Route 53 Failover

d)

Transit Gateway

92.

Which RDS feature enables automatic backups and point-in-time recovery?

a)

Multi-AZ

b)

Snapshots

c)

Read Replicas

d)

Auto Scaling

93.

Which AWS service allows provisioning virtual desktops?

a)

WorkSpaces

b)

AppStream

c)

WorkDocs

d)

Elastic Beanstalk

94.

What is the smallest billing unit for EC2 On-Demand instances?

a)

Per second (with 1-minute minimum)

b)

Per 10 minutes

c)

Per hour

d)

Per day

95.

Which AWS service is used for big data processing?

a)

EMR

b)

Glue

c)

Redshift

d)

Kinesis

96.

Which AWS service lets you create VPN connections using IPSec?

a)

Direct Connect

b)

VPN Gateway

c)

Global Accelerator

d)

Shield

97.

Which AWS service allows scheduling of tasks like cron jobs?

a)

EventBridge

b)

Lambda

c)

Step Functions

d)

CloudWatch Events

98.

IAM roles are typically used for:

a)

Long-term credentials

b)

Temporary access delegation

c)

Billing management

d)

Encryption key storage

99.

Which AWS service is purpose-built for graph databases?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

Aurora

c)

Neptune

d)

Redshift

100.

Which service lets you analyze logs using SQL queries?

a)

CloudTrail

b)

Athena

c)

QuickSight

d)

Glue

101.

What is the max object size you can store in S3?

a)

5 GB

b)

50 GB

c)

5 TB

d)

10 TB

102.

Which AWS service provides a scalable data warehouse?

a)

Redshift

b)

DynamoDB

c)

RDS

d)

Aurora

103.

Which AWS tool checks for unused or underutilized resources to save cost?

a)

Trusted Advisor

b)

Budgets

c)

CloudWatch

d)

Inspector

104.

Which AWS service integrates with Jenkins for CI/CD pipelines?

a)

CodeCommit

b)

CodePipeline

c)

CodeStar

d)

Elastic Beanstalk

105.

AWS Regions are linked together with:

a)

Edge Locations

b)

Availability Zones

c)

Global Backbone Network

d)

Transit Gateways

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