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H12-811 HCIA-Datacom Part 10

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

For an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode, what is the default LACP system priority of a Huawei switch?

a)

4096

b)

36864

c)

32768

d)

24576

2.

Which of the following statements about the network shown in the figure is true?

a)

The sub-interface of Router B cannot learn the MAC address of the sub-interface of Router A.

b)

The sub-interface of Router A cannot learn the MAC address of the sub-interface of Router B.

c)

The sub-interface numbers of Router A and Router B are different, so Router A and Router B cannot communicate with each other.

d)

The host at 10.0.12.1 can ping the host at 10.0.12.2.

3.

If Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the network consisting of switches, a Layer 2 loop will definitely occur.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

Which of the following statements is true about root bridge election in STP?

a)

The device with the largest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.

b)

If the bridge priorities of devices are the same, the device with the largest MAC address becomes the root bridge.

c)

The device with the smallest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.

d)

If the bridge priorities are the same, the device with the largest number of ports becomes the root bridge.

5.

All switches in the figure below have the STP protocol enabled. Assuming that the path cost value of all ports is 200, what is the root path cost value contained in the configuration BPDU message received by the G0/0/4 port of SWD?

a)

200

b)

600

c)

400

d)

0

6.

Refer to the following configuration of a switch interface. Which of the following statements is false?

a)

If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag before sending the data frame.

b)

If the interface receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to tag the data frames with VLAN 200.

c)

The interface cannot send data frames tagged with VLAN 200.

d)

The link type of the interface is trunk.

7.

On an STP-enabled switch, a port in the Learning state can transition to the Forwarding state only after the Forward Delay timer expires.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

Which of the following parameters is used to elect the root bridge in STP?

a)

Bridge ID

b)

System name of the switch

c)

Port ID

d)

Root path cost

9.

What is the length range of an Ethernet_II frame that contains an Ethernet header?

a)

64-1518 bytes

b)

60-1560 bytes

c)

64-1500 bytes

d)

46-1500 bytes

10.

In RSTP, an edge port becomes a common STP port after receiving a configuration BPDU.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

When two switches are connected through link aggregation, what are the requirements for the interfaces on the two switches?

a)

The physical interface rates of the interconnected switches are the same.

b)

The physical interface quantities of the interconnected switches are the same.

c)

The models of the optical modules used by the interconnected switches are the same.

d)

The duplex modes of the physical interfaces on the interconnected switches are the same.

e)

The physical interface IDs of the interconnected switches are the same.

12.

Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. What is the PVID of the interface?

a)

2

b)

100

c)

1

d)

4

13.

Which of the following statements is true about the Forward Delay timer of STP?

a)

Reduce the interval for sending BPDUs.

b)

Improve the STP convergence speed.

c)

Improve the configuration BPDU lifetime, ensuring that the configuration BPDUs can be forwarded to more switches.

d)

Prevent temporary loops.

e)

Delay is required when a port transitions between Blocking and Disabled.

14.

Which of the following are true about the Ethernet data frame with the 'Length/Type' field being 0x0806?

a)

The source MAC address of the data frame is definitely not FFFF-FFFF-FFFF.

b)

The data frame is an Ethernet II frame.

c)

The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame.

d)

The destination MAC address of the data frame must be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF.

15.

An ACL is essentially a packet filter. An ACL takes effect only after it is applied to a service module.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

a)

2000-2999

b)

3000-3999

c)

6000-6031

d)

4000-4999

17.

As shown in the figure, RTA uses NAT and has an address pool configured to implement many-tomany

non-NAPT address translation, so that hosts on the private network can access the public

network. Assume that the address pool has only two public IP addresses, which are translated for

Host A and Host B. If Host C wants to access the public network, which of the following statements is true?

a)

All hosts use public IP addresses in turn and can access the public network.

b)

No public IP address is assigned to Host C, and Host C cannot access the public network.

c)

RTA performs NAT based on the source port number of Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

d)

RTA assigns an interface address (200.10.10.3) to Host C, and Host C can access the public network.

18.

A Layer 2 ACL can match information such as the source MAC address, destination MAC address, source IP address, and destination IP address.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

After the administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, which of the following commands can be used to specify a short lease for addresses assigned using DHCP?

a)

dhcp select relay

b)

lease 0

c)

lease day 0 hour 10

d)

lease 24

20.

On the network shown in the figure, host A logs in to router A through Telnet and obtains the configuration file of router B through FTP on the remote CLI. How many TCP connections exist on router A?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

21.

Which of the following is the default port number of the Telnet server?

a)

22

b)

24

c)

21

d)

23

22.

Which of the following network parameters can be allocated using DHCP?

a)

Address of the DNS server

b)

Operating system

c)

Gateway address

d)

IP address

23.

Only one SSID can be bound to each radio of an AP.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

24.

What is used as the data link-layer MAC address that identifies each VAP on an AP?

a)

BSS

b)

SSID

c)

BSSID

d)

ESS

25.

Which of the following WLAN security policies support open link authentication?

a)

WPA2-PSK

b)

WPA

c)

WEP

d)

WPA2-802.1X

26.

Which of the following commands is used to configure the country code on an AC?

a)

country-code

b)

province-code

c)

nation-code

d)

state-code

27.

The data link layer uses PPP encapsulation. The IP addresses of the two ends of the link can be in different network segments.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

Network devices running SNMP can proactively report traps to help network administrators detect faults in a timely manner.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

29.

Which SNMP version focuses on two main aspects, namely security and administration. The security aspect is addressed by offering both strong authentication and data encryption for privacy. The administration aspect is focused on two parts, namely notification originators and proxy forwarders.

a)

SNMPv2c

b)

SNMPv1

c)

SNMPv3

d)

SNMPv2

30.

If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ( ).

a)

02E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

b)

02E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

c)

00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC

d)

00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC

31.

How many bytes are there in a basic IPv6 header?

a)

40

b)

48

c)

32

d)

64

32.

telnetlib is a module provided by Python to implement the Telnet protocol.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

33.

Which of the following statements are true about transport-layer protocols?

a)

UDP uses SYN and ACK flags to request and confirm connection establishment.

b)

UDP is suitable for transmitting delay-sensitive traffic, and UDP packets can be reassembled based on the sequence number field in the packet header.

c)

Establishing a TCP connection requires the three-way handshake mechanism, while terminating a TCP connection requires the four-way handshake mechanism.

d)

The well-known port number range is from 0 to 1023.

34.

The tree topology is a hierarchical star topology, facilitating network expansion. A consequence of this topology is that faults on a node at a higher layer are more severe.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

Which of the following information is displayed when an entered command is incomplete on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)?

a)

Error: Wrong parameter found at 'A' position

b)

Error: Incomplete command found at 'A' position

c)

Error: Too many parameters found at 'A' position

d)

Error: Ambiguous command found at 'A' position

36.

Refer to the graphic, 00e0-fc99-9999 is a specific host MAC address learned by a switch through ARP, and the host changes the IP address three times.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

UDP does not guarantee data transmission reliability and does not provide packet sorting and traffic control functions. It is suitable for the traffic that has low requirements for data transmission reliability, but high requirements for the transmission speed and delay.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of small campus networks?

a)

Simple network requirements

b)

Wide coverage

c)

Simple network architecture

d)

Small number of users

39.

Which of the following packets are OSPF packets?

a)

LSA

b)

HELLO

c)

LSR

d)

LSU

40.

Which of the following are valid static route configurations?

a)

ip route-static 129.1.0.0 16 serial 0/0/0

b)

ip route-static 129.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 10.0.0.2

c)

ip route-static 10.0.0.2 16 129.1.0.0

d)

ip route-static 129.1.0.0 16 10.0.0.2

41.

Which of the following statements regarding static routing and dynamic routing is incorrect?

a)

Dynamic routing will use more resources than static routes.

b)

The static routing can automatically recover when a link failure is encountered.

c)

The use of dynamic routing is more convenient for the administrator to manage the network following network convergence.

d)

The static routing can be easily configured and managed on the enterprise network.

42.

Which of the following descriptions regarding the TTL field of the IP packet is correct?

a)

The TTL value will decrement by 1 each time the packet is routed.

b)

The TTL defines the duration during which the source can send packets.

c)

The TTL defines how many packets the source can send.

d)

The TTL value will increment by 1 each time the packet is routed.

43.

Which of the following are features of the OSPF protocol?

a)

The shortest path is calculated based on the number of hops.

b)

Triggered update is supported.

c)

Routing loops are likely to occur.

d)

Area division is supported.

44.

If the IPv4 address of a host on a LAN is 192.168.1.1, the host will process IP packets with specific destination IP addresses. Which of the following IP addresses may be the destination IP addresses?

a)

192.168.1.3

b)

192.168.1.1

c)

192.168.1.2

d)

255.255.255.255

45.

Which of the following is the default value of the Router Dead Interval field in OSPF Hello packets on a broadcast network?

a)

20 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

40 seconds

d)

10 seconds

46.

After a switch restarts, static MAC address entries saved on the switch remain in the MAC address table.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Which of the following is correct regarding the configuration of the trunk port and access port on a switch?

a)

Access ports can only send untagged frames.

b)

Trunk ports can only send tagged frames.

c)

Access ports can only send tagged frames.

d)

Trunk ports can only send untagged frames.

48.

After an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode is created, devices on both ends send LACPDUs to elect the Actor. Which of the following parameters in LACPDUs determine the Actor election?

a)

Device priority

b)

Interface number

c)

MAC address

d)

Interface priority

49.

RSTP uses the proposal/agreement mechanism to shorten the time that an upstream port waits before transitioning to the Forwarding state, but no temporary loop occurs. Why?

a)

RSTP introduces the edge port role.

b)

RSTP accelerates port role election.

c)

RSTP uses a synchronization mechanism to prevent temporary loops.

d)

RSTP shortens the time taken by port status transition (Forward Delay).

50.

Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the MAC address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?

a)

Switch B

b)

Switch A

c)

Switch D

d)

Switch C

51.

Which of the following port states are included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?

a)

Discarding

b)

Forwarding

c)

Learning

d)

Listening

52.

According to the one-armed routing configurations shown in the figure, even if ARP proxy is disabled on the sub-interface of R1, the Administration Dept and Finance Dept can still communicate with each other.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

If a device running STP receives an RSTP configuration BPDU, it discards the BPDU.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

54.

A Layer 2 switch works at the data link layer. As such, it can identify MAC addresses in data frames, forward data based on MAC addresses, and record mappings between MAC addresses and interface numbers in its MAC address table.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

55.

Which of the following statements is true about link aggregation in manual load balancing mode?

a)

A maximum of four active interfaces can be configured in manual load balancing mode.

b)

. In manual load balancing mode, devices at both ends of a link send LACPDUs to each other.

c)

In manual load balancing mode, all active interfaces forward data and load balance traffic.

d)

The number of active interfaces can be set in manual load balancing mode.

56.

As shown in the figure, which of the following ports will be in blocking state?

a)

G0/0/2 of SWC

b)

G0/0/3 of SWB

c)

G0/0/1 of SWC

d)

G0/0/3 of SWA

57.

When a switch receives a unicast data frame, if the destination MAC address of the data frame can be found in the MAC address table of the switch, the data frame is definitely forwarded through the port corresponding to the MAC address.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

58.

The network administrator performs the configuration shown in the following figure on RT A. If a user needs to be authenticated in the authentication domain named huawei, which of the following statements is true?

a)

The authentication scheme au2 is used for authentication.

b)

The authentication scheme aul is used for authentication.

c)

The authentication scheme au2 is used for authentication. If the authentication scheme au2 is deleted, the authentication scheme au1 is used.

d)

The authentication scheme aul is used for authentication. If the authentication scheme aul is deleted, the authentication scheme au2 is used.

59.

The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later ACL rules are not processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions. Therefore, the rules with strict conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose conditions must be arranged towards the end.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

60.

When the ACL in the following figure is configured on a Telnet server, only the device with an IP address of 172.16.105.2 can remotely log in to the Telnet server.

bash

Copy code

acl number 2000

rule 5 permit source 172.16.105.2 0

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

What is the main function of the DNS protocol?

a)

Remote access

b)

File transfer

c)

Domain name resolution

d)

Email transmission

62.

Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards supports a theoretical negotiated rate of 5 Gbit/s or higher?

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11ax

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11b

63.

Which of the following packets are exchanged between STAs and an AP to obtain the AP's SSID before association with the AP?

a)

Probe Request

b)

Discovery

c)

Probe Response

d)

Beacon

64.

On a Layer 2 WLAN, STAs use an AC as their gateway.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

Which of the following fields are included in an MPLS header?

a)

Label

b)

TTL

c)

EXP

d)

Tos

66.

With SNMP, an NMS can only display the device running status but cannot deliver configurations.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

When a host uses the stateless address autoconfiguration solution to obtain an IPv6 address, the host cannot obtain the DNS server address.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

(Refer to the display startup command output shown in the figure on an AR2200 router. Which of the following statements about the command output is false?)

Startup voice-files: null

Next startup voice-files: null

<Huawei>display startup

MainBoard:

Startup system software: sdl:/ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc

Next startup system software: sdl:/ar222b-v200r003c00spc200.cc

Backup system software for next startup: null

Startup saved-configuration file: null

Next startup saved-configuration file: null

Startup license file: null

Next startup license file: null

Startup patch package: null

Next startup patch package: null

a)

The system file for next startup cannot be modified.

b)

The startup system software command can be used to modify the system software for next startup.

c)

The running configuration file is not saved.

d)

The system file used for the current startup is ar2220-v200r003c00spc200.cc.

69.

Which of the following methods can be used to assign service VLANs during campus network planning?

a)

VLAN assignment by service type

b)

VLAN assignment by logical area

c)

VLAN assignment by geographic area

d)

VLAN assignment by personnel structure

70.

You can run the "pwd" and "dir" commands on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to view file information in the current directory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

71.

When a network engineer enters a command, the following information is displayed: Error: Unrecognized command found at 'A' position. Which of the following statements is true about such information?

a)

The entered parameter is not specified.

b)

The entered command is incomplete.

c)

The parameter type is incorrect.

d)

No keyword is found.

72.

Which of the following routing protocols are dynamic routing protocols?

a)

Static routing

b)

Direct routing

c)

OSPF

d)

BGP

73.

If a routing table contains multiple routes to the same destination network, what are these routes called?

a)

Sub-optimal routes

b)

Multipath routes

c)

Equal-cost routes

d)

Default routes

74.

Which of the following is a dynamic IGP routing protocol?

a)

Static

b)

BGP

c)

Direct

d)

OSPF

75.

Which of the following are not main functions of routers?

a)

Routers forward data packets based on source IP addresses.

b)

Routers enable devices on the same network segment to communicate with each other.

c)

Routers forward data packets according to routing tables.

d)

Routers learn routes through multiple routing protocols and add them to the routing table.

76.

What is the main function of a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

Generate an IP address.

b)

Manage routers.

c)

Generate a routing table.

d)

Control the status of router interfaces.

77.

Which layer of the OSI model does a router work at?

a)

Network layer

b)

Transport layer

c)

Data link layer

d)

Application layer

78.

Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to confirm the received Link State Update (LSU) packets?

a)

LSA

b)

LSU

c)

LSR

d)

LSACK

79.

Which of the following statements is true about active interface election for an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode?

a)

Only interface priorities are compared.

b)

Device priorities are compared.

c)

Interface priorities are compared first. If priorities of interfaces on the Actor are the same, interfaces with smaller interface numbers are elected as active interfaces.

d)

Only interface numbers are compared.

80.

The IP addresses of VLANIF interfaces on the same switch must be different.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

81.

Which of the following descriptions regarding the STP forwarding state is incorrect?

a)

A port in a forwarding state can send BPDU.

b)

A port in a forwarding state does not learn the source MAC address of a frame.

c)

A port in a forwarding state can receive BPDU.

d)

A port in a forwarding state can forward frames.

82.

An Eth-Trunk interface can be used only as a Layer 2 interface.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

83.

Loops may cause broadcast storms on a Layer 2 network.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

84.

ICMP packets do not contain port numbers. Therefore, NAPT cannot be used.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

85.

The administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, and a host is connected to Gi/0/0 of the router. Which of the following statements is true about the IP address obtained by the host through DHCP?

a)

The host cannot obtain an IP address.

b)

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.10.10.0 network segment.

c)

The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.20.20.0 network segment.

d)

The IP address obtained by the host may belong to the 10.10.10.0 or 10.20.20.0 network segment.

86.

(An administrator cannot log in to a Huawei router through Telnet, but other administrators can log in to the router. Which of the following are possible causes?)

a)

The administrator account has been disabled

b)

The Telnet service has been disabled on the AR2200 router

c)

The administrator account has been deleted

d)

The user level of the administrator account has been changed to 0

87.

Each network device running SNMP runs an agent process locally.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

88.

By default, in the SNMP protocol, which port number is used by the proxy process to send alarm messages to the NMS?

a)

164

b)

163

c)

161

d)

162

89.

The IPv6 address architecture does not include which of the following address types?

a)

Unicast.

b)

Anycast.

c)

Multicast.

d)

Broadcast.

90.

Which of the following statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true?

a)

Packets destined for an anycast address are sent to the nearest interface identified based on the routing distance.

b)

IPv6 anycast addresses implement load balancing for services.

c)

Anycast and unicast addresses use the same address space.

d)

IPv6 anycast addresses provide redundancy functions for services.

91.

Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) implements software-based network application deployment.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE