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Quiz - 1 (RDBMS- 10.2.2025)

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a Database?

a)

Collection of interrelated data

b)

A set of programs

c)

A programming language

d)

None of the above

2.

What is DBMS?

a)

Database Management Structure

b)

Database Management System

c)

Database Maintenance System

d)

Data Backup Management System

3.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of DBMS?

a)

Redundancy control

b)

Data isolation

c)

Data inconsistency

d)

Security

4.

Which characteristic ensures that a database system is self-descriptive?

a)

Cataloging

b)

Meta-data

c)

Independence

d)

Integrity

5.

Which feature of DBMS reduces data redundancy?

a)

Data independence

b)

Normalization

c)

Data inconsistency

d)

Concurrency control

6.

Which of the following is an advantage of DBMS?

a)

Improved data sharing

b)

Data inconsistency

c)

Increased redundancy

d)

Poor security

7.

What is the primary purpose of a DBMS?

a)

To store large volumes of data

b)

To manage data efficiently

c)

To allow multiple users to access data

d)

All of the above

8.

The three levels of schema architecture are:

a)

Internal, Conceptual, External

b)

Conceptual, Logical, Physical

c)

External, Internal, Logical

d)

Logical, Internal, Conceptual

9.

The external schema level represents:

a)

User's view

b)

Internal storage

c)

Metadata

d)

None of the above

10.

Data independence refers to:

a)

Data security

b)

Data abstraction

c)

Data redundancy

d)

Data dependency

11.

Which of the following is NOT a database language?

a)

DDL

b)

DML

c)

HTML

d)

DCL

12.

The primary role of a Database Administrator (DBA) is:

a)

Software development

b)

Database maintenance and security

c)

Network troubleshooting

d)

Hardware repairs

13.

Which of the following is NOT a type of data model?

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Network

c)

Relational

d)

File system

14.

An entity set is a collection of:

a)

Attributes

b)

Entities

c)

Keys

d)

Relations

15.

In ER modeling, a primary key is:

a)

A unique identifier for an entity

b)

A relationship

c)

A type of data redundancy

d)

An attribute with null values

16.

A distributed database system:

a)

Stores data in a single location

b)

Spreads data across multiple sites

c)

Uses only relational data models

d)

Cannot be accessed remotely

17.

Which of the following is NOT a classification of DBMS?

a)

Hierarchical

b)

Relational

c)

Blockchain

d)

Network

18.

RDBMS stands for:

a)

Reliable Database Management System

b)

Relational Database Management System

c)

Real-time Database Management System

d)

Random Database Management System

19.

The relational model organizes data into:

a)

Trees

b)

Graphs

c)

Tables

d)

Documents

20.

Which of the following is NOT a relational operation?

a)

Insert

b)

Select

c)

Rename

d)

Compile

21.

A database transaction is:

a)

A collection of operations that must be executed together

b)

A single SQL statement

c)

A single record entry

d)

A hardware process

22.

First Normal Form (1NF) ensures:

a)

No partial dependencies

b)

No duplicate columns

c)

No multi-valued attributes

d)

No transitive dependencies

23.

What is a key difference between DBMS and RDBMS?

a)

RDBMS supports tables, DBMS does not

b)

DBMS supports relations, RDBMS does not

c)

RDBMS does not support relationships between tables

d)

None of the above

24.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of RDBMS?

a)

Table-based structure

b)

Supports relationships between data

c)

Allows multiple users

d)

No support for ACID properties

25.

The relational model was proposed by:

a)

Edgar F. Codd

b)

Charles Bachman

c)

James Gosling

d)

Dennis Ritchie

26.

A relation in RDBMS is represented in the form of:

a)

Rows and columns

b)

Trees

c)

Graphs

d)

Linked lists

27.

Which of the following is NOT a basic relational operation?

a)

Selection

b)

Projection

c)

Sorting

d)

Join

28.

The Cartesian product of two relations R and S will have:

a)

|R| × |S| tuples

b)

|R| + |S| tuples

c)

|R| - |S| tuples

d)

|R| / |S| tuples

29.

A transaction must satisfy which of the following properties?

a)

ACID

b)

BASE

c)

SQL

d)

HTTP

30.

Which of the following is NOT a type of join in SQL?

a)

Inner Join

b)

Outer Join

c)

Cross Join

d)

Loop Join

31.

The process of removing transitive dependencies is called:

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

d)

4NF

32.

What makes RDBMS different from DBMS?

a)

Support for relationships among tables

b)

Use of structured data

c)

Use of queries

d)

No use of indexes

33.

Which of the following databases is NOT an RDBMS?

a)

MySQL

b)

Oracle

c)

MongoDB

d)

SQL Server

34.

SQL stands for:

a)

Structured Query Language

b)

System Query Language

c)

Standard Query Language

d)

Simplified Query Language

35.

Which of the following is NOT an SQL data type?

a)

CHAR

b)

INTEGER

c)

BOOLEAN

d)

STRING

36.

The command to delete all records from a table is:

a)

DELETE

b)

TRUNCATE

c)

DROP

d)

REMOVE

37.

The command used to modify existing data in a table is:

a)

MODIFY

b)

ALTER

c)

UPDATE

d)

CHANGE

38.

Which SQL feature ensures data consistency and correctness?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Data integrity

c)

Data loss

d)

Data mining

39.

Which SQL command is used to retrieve data from a database?

a)

GET

b)

FETCH

c)

SELECT

d)

RETRIEVE

40.

The command to insert a new row in a table is:

a)

ADD

b)

INSERT INTO

c)

NEW ROW

d)

CREATE ROW

41.

The SQL function used to find the total number of records is:

a)

SUM()

b)

COUNT()

c)

AVG()

d)

TOTAL()

42.

Who proposed the relational model for databases?

a)

Edgar F. Codd

b)

Charles Bachman

c)

Dennis Ritchie

d)

Bill Gates

43.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of RDBMS?

a)

Data redundancy

b)

Data consistency

c)

ACID properties

d)

Data integrity

44.

Which of the following is a relational database?

a)

MySQL

b)

MongoDB

c)

Neo4j

d)

Redis

45.

In RDBMS, data is organized in the form of:

a)

Tables

b)

Files

c)

Graphs

d)

Trees

46.

A primary key in a table:

a)

Can have duplicate values

b)

Cannot be null and must be unique

c)

Can be null

d)

Must contain only null values

47.

A foreign key is used to:

a)

Uniquely identify a record

b)

Maintain referential integrity

c)

Store redundant data

d)

Encrypt data

48.

Which SQL constraint ensures that a column cannot have NULL values?

a)

UNIQUE

b)

NOT NULL

c)

FOREIGN KEY

d)

DEFAULT

49.

Which of the following is NOT an ACID property?

a)

Atomicity

b)

Consistency

c)

Durability

d)

Scalability

50.

Which command is used to save all changes made to a database?

a)

SAVE

b)

COMMIT

c)

ROLLBACK

d)

RESTORE

51.

Which SQL statement is used to undo a transaction?

a)

CANCEL

b)

DELETE

c)

ROLLBACK

d)

COMMIT

52.

Which isolation level ensures the highest level of isolation in transactions?

a)

READ COMMITTED

b)

READ UNCOMMITTED

c)

SERIALIZABLE

d)

REPEATABLE READ

53.

Which JOIN returns only matching rows from both tables?

a)

INNER JOIN

b)

LEFT JOIN

c)

RIGHT JOIN

d)

FULL OUTER JOIN

54.

Which JOIN returns all records from the left table and the matched records from the right table?

a)

INNER JOIN

b)

LEFT JOIN

c)

RIGHT JOIN

d)

CROSS JOIN

55.

Which SQL JOIN returns all records when there is a match in one of the tables?

a)

FULL OUTER JOIN

b)

LEFT JOIN

c)

INNER JOIN

d)

NATURAL JOIN

56.

Which SQL JOIN produces the Cartesian product of two tables?

a)

INNER JOIN

b)

OUTER JOIN

c)

CROSS JOIN

d)

SELF JOIN

57.

Which SQL JOIN is used to join a table with itself?

a)

INNER JOIN

b)

LEFT JOIN

c)

SELF JOIN

d)

FULL JOIN

58.

A view in SQL is:

a)

A virtual table

b)

A copy of a table

c)

A stored procedure

d)

A trigger

59.

Which SQL command is used to create a view?

a)

CREATE TABLE

b)

CREATE VIEW

c)

ALTER VIEW

d)

INSERT VIEW

60.

Indexes in a database help to:

a)

Improve query performance

b)

Increase redundancy

c)

Increase storage space

d)

Reduce security

61.

Which type of index stores a sorted order of values for faster retrieval?

a)

Clustered index

b)

Non-clustered index

c)

Hash index

d)

Unique index

62.

Which of the following statements is true about an index?

a)

It speeds up data retrieval

b)

It is always required for a primary key

c)

It does not impact the performance

d)

It is only used in NoSQL databases

63.

Which SQL command is used to grant privileges to a user?

a)

GIVE

b)

GRANT

c)

ALLOW

d)

PROVIDE

64.

Which SQL command is used to revoke privileges?

a)

REMOVE

b)

DELETE

c)

REVOKE

d)

DENY

65.

Which type of attack involves injecting malicious SQL code?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

Phishing

c)

Brute force

d)

Man-in-the-middle

66.

Which database security feature prevents unauthorized access?

a)

Encryption

b)

Normalization

c)

Indexing

d)

Triggers

67.

A role in a database is:

a)

A predefined set of privileges

b)

A database table

c)

A user

d)

A function

68.

A stored procedure is:

a)

A precompiled SQL statement

b)

A temporary table

c)

A security feature

d)

A type of database

69.

Which SQL statement is used to execute a stored procedure?

a)

EXECUTE

b)

RUN

c)

START

d)

BEGIN

70.

Which SQL command is used to create a trigger?

a)

CREATE TRIGGER

b)

CREATE EVENT

c)

ADD TRIGGER

d)

TRIGGER CREATE

71.

Which of the following is NOT a relational database?

a)

MySQL

b)

PostgreSQL

c)

MongoDB

d)

Oracle

72.

Which SQL keyword is used to combine query results from multiple SELECT statements?

a)

UNION

b)

JOIN

c)

GROUP BY

d)

WHERE

73.

Which SQL clause is used to specify conditions for grouped records?

a)

WHERE

b)

HAVING

c)

GROUP BY

d)

ORDER BY

74.

Which data type is NOT used in an RDBMS?

a)

INT

b)

VARCHAR

c)

BOOLEAN

d)

OBJECT

75.

Which of the following is an open-source RDBMS?

a)

Microsoft SQL Server

b)

Oracle

c)

PostgreSQL

d)

IBM DB2

76.

Which of the following properties ensure that database transactions are processed reliably?

a)

BASE

b)

ACID

c)

CAP

d)

CRUD

77.

Which of the following is NOT an ACID property?

a)

Atomicity

b)

Consistency

c)

Distribution

d)

Durability

78.

What is the primary purpose of a database transaction?

a)

To execute queries in sequence

b)

To ensure data consistency

c)

To increase speed

d)

To prevent indexing

79.

Which key uniquely identifies a record in a table?

a)

Foreign key

b)

Composite key

c)

Primary key

d)

Candidate key

80.

A foreign key in a table:

a)

Uniquely identifies a record

b)

Refers to a primary key in another table

c)

Must always be a numeric value

d)

Cannot have duplicate values

81.

Which type of key can have NULL values?

a)

Primary key

b)

Foreign key

c)

Unique key

d)

Both b and c

82.

A composite key is made up of:

a)

A single column

b)

Multiple foreign keys

c)

Multiple columns

d)

A primary key and a unique key

83.

Which of the following is NOT a type of database key?

a)

Primary key

b)

Alternate key

c)

Secondary key

d)

Cluster key

84.

Which constraint ensures that a column does not accept NULL values?

a)

PRIMARY KEY

b)

NOT NULL

c)

UNIQUE

d)

CHECK

85.

Which SQL constraint ensures all values in a column are different?

a)

FOREIGN KEY

b)

CHECK

c)

UNIQUE

d)

DEFAULT

86.

Which SQL constraint ensures a column value falls within a specific range?

a)

DEFAULT

b)

CHECK

c)

NOT NULL

d)

UNIQUE

87.

What does the DEFAULT constraint do?

a)

Restricts input values

b)

Provides a default value if none is specified

c)

Makes a column unique

d)

Defines a primary key

88.

Which SQL command removes a constraint from a table?

a)

DELETE CONSTRAINT

b)

ALTER TABLE … DROP CONSTRAINT

c)

REMOVE CONSTRAINT

d)

CONSTRAINT OFF

89.

Relational Algebra is used to:

a)

Define the structure of a database

b)

Perform operations on relations (tables)

c)

Create stored procedures

d)

Define primary keys