wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cloud Odyssey

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does IaaS stand for?

a)

Internet as a Service

b)

Infrastructure as a Service

c)

Integration as a Service

d)

Interface as a Service

2.

Name one public cloud provider.

a)

Microsoft Azure

b)

Ubuntu

c)

Linux Mint

d)

Apache

3.

What is the difference between public and private cloud?

a)

Public cloud is free, private is paid

b)

Public cloud is accessible to everyone, private is restricted

c)

Private cloud does not use virtualization

d)

Public cloud is only for small businesses

4.

What is SaaS in cloud computing?

a)

Software as a Service

b)

Security as a Service

c)

Storage as a Service

d)

System as a Service

5.

Define PaaS.

a)

Platform as a Service

b)

Product as a Service

c)

Program as a Service

d)

Package as a Service

6.

What is a virtual machine?

a)

A physical server

b)

A software-based emulation of a computer

c)

A type of cloud storage

d)

A networking device

7.

Name one advantage of cloud computing.

a)

Limited access

b)

Cost efficiency

c)

Requires manual updates

d)

Only for large organizations

8.

What is cloud storage?

a)

Storing files on local computer

b)

Storing files on remote servers accessible via internet

c)

Backup to USB

d)

Offline storage

9.

What is elasticity in cloud computing?

a)

Ability to stretch physical hardware

b)

Automatic adjustment of resources based on demand

c)

Data backup frequency

d)

Internet speed control

10.

Name one commonly used cloud deployment model.

a)

Public

b)

Local

c)

Networked

d)

Distributed

11.

What is multi-tenancy?

a)

One server per client

b)

Multiple clients share the same software/resources

c)

Multiple servers in a rack

d)

Single client using multiple servers

12.

Define serverless computing.

a)

No servers exist

b)

Applications run without managing servers

c)

Servers are managed manually

d)

Only for storage

13.

Name one benefit of auto-scaling.

a)

Manual server maintenance

b)

Resource optimization

c)

Slower performance

d)

Increased downtime

14.

What is a hypervisor?

a)

A type of network cable

b)

Software to run multiple virtual machines

c)

Cloud storage service

d)

Load balancer

15.

Name one popular container platform.

a)

Kubernetes

b)

Windows Server

c)

Oracle DB

d)

SQL Server

16.

What is cloud migration?

a)

Moving data/applications to cloud

b)

Changing server room location

c)

Updating software manually

d)

Downloading files locally

17.

Define disaster recovery in cloud.

a)

Data deletion

b)

Backup and recovery of systems after failure

c)

Daily system reboot

d)

Security patching

18.

Name one common cloud networking port.

a)

21 FTP

b)

25 TCP/IP

c)

53 HTTP

d)

8080 SSH

19.

What is hybrid cloud?

a)

Combination of private and public cloud

b)

Only private cloud

c)

Only public cloud

d)

Cloud without virtualization

20.

Give an example of SaaS software.

a)

Microsoft Office 365

b)

Linux

c)

VMware

d)

Docker

21.

Explain the difference between vertical and horizontal scaling.

a)

Vertical = adding resources to existing server, Horizontal = adding more servers

b)

Vertical = more servers, Horizontal = bigger server

c)

Both mean adding servers

d)

Both mean increasing internet speed

22.

What is the difference between block storage and object storage?

a)

Block storage stores unstructured data, object storage structured

b)

Block storage = raw volumes, object storage = data with metadata

c)

Block storage cheaper

d)

Object storage only on-prem

23.

Describe the CAP theorem briefly.

a)

Consistency, Availability, Partition tolerance

b)

Cloud, Automation, Performance

c)

Cost, Availability, Partitioning

d)

Control, Access, Performance

24.

How does load balancing improve cloud performance?

a)

By reducing traffic

b)

Distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers

c)

Slows network

d)

Stops users from connecting

25.

What is a cloud region vs availability zone?

a)

Region = global location, AZ = isolated data center within region

b)

Region = one server, AZ = multiple regions

c)

Region = AWS only

d)

AZ = physical region

26.

Explain cloud bursting.

a)

Moving workloads to another cloud temporarily

b)

Sudden system crash

c)

Firewall breach

d)

Adding storage manually

27.

Describe differences between private and community cloud.

a)

Private = organization only, Community = multiple orgs share

b)

Both are public

c)

Private = cheap

d)

Community = owned by AWS

28.

What is a cloud orchestration tool?

a)

Software to manage automated cloud processes

b)

Music player

c)

Cloud storage

d)

Hypervisor

29.

Explain the role of an API gateway in cloud architecture.

a)

Manages requests between clients and microservices

b)

Encrypts data only

c)

Handles storage

d)

Reboots server

30.

Describe fault tolerance in cloud computing.

a)

System continues functioning despite failures

b)

System shuts down when error occurs

c)

Daily backup

d)

Manual reboot required

31.

Explain eventual consistency in distributed cloud storage.

a)

Data eventually consistent across all nodes

b)

Immediate data replication

c)

Data lost after crash

d)

Only for local storage

32.

How do container orchestration tools like Kubernetes manage scaling?

a)

Manually start/stop containers

b)

Automatically adjust number of containers based on demand

c)

Only scale vertically

d)

Only scale storage

33.

Compare and contrast edge computing and cloud computing.

a)

Edge computing = local, Cloud = centralized

b)

Both same

c)

Edge = offline, Cloud = online

d)

Edge = server only

34.

Explain the concept of serverless cold start and its implications.

a)

Delay when function invoked first time

b)

Server crash

c)

Auto-update server

d)

Data migration

35.

What does AWS stand for?

a)

Advanced Web Services

b)

Amazon Web Services

c)

Automated Web System

d)

Amazon Windows Server

36.

Name one AWS compute service.

a)

EC2

b)

S3

c)

RDS

d)

DynamoDB

37.

What is S3 used for?

a)

Compute service

b)

Object storage service

c)

Database service

d)

Network management

38.

Define EC2.

a)

Elastic Compute Cloud

b)

Easy Cloud Computing

c)

Enterprise Cloud Connector

d)

Elastic Container Cluster

39.

What is an AWS Availability Zone?

a)

A single physical server

b)

Isolated data center within a region

c)

Global region

d)

A type of storage

40.

What is AWS Lambda?

a)

Managed database service

b)

Serverless compute service

c)

Networking tool

d)

Cloud storage

41.

Name one AWS database service.

a)

RDS

b)

S3

c)

EC2

d)

CloudFront

42.

What is IAM in AWS?

a)

Identity and Access Management

b)

Internet Access Module

c)

Instance Access Manager

d)

Internal AWS Monitor

43.

Name one AWS storage class in S3.

a)

Glacier

b)

Standard DB

c)

EC2

d)

Lambda

44.

What is CloudWatch used for?

a)

Storage

b)

Monitoring resources

c)

Networking

d)

Security scanning

45.

What is RDS in AWS?

a)

Relational Database Service

b)

Resource Deployment System

c)

Remote Data Storage

d)

Reliable Data Sync

46.

What does VPC stand for?

a)

Virtual Private Cloud

b)

Virtual Public Cloud

c)

Verified Private Compute

d)

Virtual Processing Cluster

47.

What is the use of AWS Elastic Beanstalk?

a)

Database hosting

b)

App deployment and management

c)

Network routing

d)

Storage optimization

48.

Name one AWS content delivery service.

a)

CloudFront

b)

EC2

c)

S3

d)

IAM

49.

What is an AWS security group?

a)

Firewall for instances

b)

Storage class

c)

Database group

d)

Networking protocol

50.

What is AWS Route 53?

a)

Monitoring tool

b)

DNS web service

c)

Serverless

d)

Cloud storage

51.

What is an AWS security group?

a)

Firewall for instances

b)

Storage class

c)

Database group

d)

Networking protocol

52.

What is AWS Route 53?

a)

Monitoring tool

b)

DNS web service

c)

Serverless function

d)

Cloud storage

53.

Name one AWS messaging service.

a)

SQS

b)

EC2

c)

CloudWatch

d)

IAM

54.

What is an AWS snapshot?

a)

Security report

b)

Backup of a storage volume

c)

Network configuration

d)

Database table

55.

Name one AWS analytics service.

a)

Athena

b)

EC2

c)

Lambda

d)

S3

56.

What is AWS Auto Scaling?

a)

Manual server adjustment

b)

Automatic resource scaling

c)

Storage backup

d)

Network monitoring

57.

Explain the difference between EC2 instance types.

a)

They differ in CPU, memory, and storage capacity

b)

All are the same

c)

Only differ in region

d)

Only differ in OS

58.

What is the difference between S3 Standard and S3 Glacier?

a)

Glacier is slower, cheaper storage

b)

Standard slower

c)

Both same

d)

Glacier is compute

59.

How does IAM policy differ from IAM role?

a)

Policy = permission document, Role = assignable identity

b)

Role = permission, Policy = identity

c)

Both same

d)

Policy = storage, Role = compute

60.

Explain the concept of AWS Availability Zone vs Region.

a)

Region = global, AZ = isolated data center

b)

AZ = region, Region = center

c)

Both same

d)

Only applies to EC2

61.

Describe VPC peering.

a)

Connect two VPCs privately

b)

Connect two regions publicly

c)

Share storage

d)

Monitor traffic

62.

What is the difference between RDS Multi-AZ and Read Replica?

a)

Multi-AZ = high availability, Read Replica = read scaling

b)

Multi-AZ = read, Replica = write

c)

Both same

d)

Only for S3

63.

Explain the concept of AWS CloudFormation.

a)

Deploy resources via templates

b)

Monitor traffic

c)

Backup data

d)

Database setup

64.

How does AWS Lambda pricing work?

a)

Pay per GB of storage

b)

Pay per invocation and compute duration

c)

Flat monthly fee

d)

Free service

65.

Explain Elastic Load Balancer types.

a)

ALB = application, NLB = network, CLB = classic

b)

All same

c)

Only ALB exists

d)

Only NLB exists

66.

How does AWS Direct Connect differ from a VPN?

a)

Direct Connect = dedicated private connection, VPN = internet-based

b)

VPN faster

c)

Both same

d)

Direct Connect is wireless

67.

Explain AWS Well-Architected Framework pillars.

a)

Operational Excellence, Security, Reliability, Performance Efficiency, Cost Optimization

b)

Security, Backup, Monitoring

c)

Compute, Storage, Network

d)

Development, Testing

68.

How does AWS handle global consistency in DynamoDB?

a)

Strong and eventual consistency options

b)

Always strong

c)

Always eventual

d)

No consistency

69.

Explain the difference between S3 eventual consistency and strong consistency.

a)

Eventual = may take time to sync, Strong = immediate

b)

Both same

c)

Strong slower

d)

Eventual = deleted data

70.

What is an IP address?

a)

Internet Protocol address

b)

Internal Processor

c)

Input Port

d)

Internal Proxy

71.

What is DNS used for?

a)

Email service

b)

Domain name resolution

c)

Data storage

d)

Cloud computing

72.

Define firewall.

a)

Network security device

b)

Storage system

c)

Processor

d)

Cloud instance

73.

Name one operating system.

a)

Windows

b)

Chrome

c)

AWS

d)

IP

74.

What is RAM?

a)

Read-only memory

b)

Random Access Memory

c)

Remote Access Module

d)

Register Address Memory

75.

What is CPU?

a)

Central Processing Unit

b)

Cloud Processing Unit

c)

Central Protocol Unit

d)

Computation Port Unit

76.

What is HTTP?

a)

HyperText Transfer Protocol

b)

Hyper Terminal Transfer Port

c)

Hyper Transfer Protocol

d)

Host Text Transmission

77.

What is HTTPS?

a)

HTTP with SSL/TLS encryption

b)

HTTP standard

c)

Hyper Terminal transfer

d)

Host Text Protocol

78.

What is a router?

a)

Connects networks

b)

Storage device

c)

CPU component

d)

Firewall

79.

Define URL.

a)

Uniform Resource Locator

b)

Universal Remote Link

c)

Uniform Router Link

d)

User Resource Locator

80.

What is the difference between software and hardware?

a)

Software = programs, Hardware = physical devices

b)

Software = CPU, Hardware = memory

c)

Both same

d)

Hardware = software

81.

Name one database type.

a)

MySQL

b)

Chrome

c)

Windows

d)

AWS

82.

What is SQL?

a)

Structured Query Language

b)

System Query List

c)

Secure Query Link

d)

Standard Query Load

83.

Define VPN.

a)

Virtual Private Network

b)

Variable Protocol Network

c)

Verified Private Node

d)

Virtual Processing Network

84.

What is encryption?

a)

Transforming data for security

b)

Deleting data

c)

Copying files

d)

Network setup

85.

What is a MAC address?

a)

Hardware network address

b)

Memory address

c)

Computer ID

d)

Cloud server

86.

Define BIOS.

a)

Basic Input Output System

b)

Binary Internet Operating System

c)

Backup Input Output Storage

d)

Base Internal OS

87.

Name one cloud-independent storage type.

a)

USB drive

b)

S3

c)

Azure

d)

DynamoDB

88.

What is a network switch?

a)

Connects multiple devices in LAN

b)

CPU component

c)

Firewall

d)

Storage device

89.

Define firmware.

a)

Software stored in hardware

b)

Cloud software

c)

Operating system only

d)

Network device

90.

Explain the difference between TCP and UDP.

a)

TCP = connection-oriented, UDP = connectionless

b)

TCP = faster

c)

Both same

d)

UDP = secure

91.

What is the difference between a process and a thread?

a)

Process = program in execution, Thread = lightweight process

b)

Thread bigger than process

c)

Both same

d)

Process = hardware

92.

Describe RAID levels briefly.

a)

Storage redundancy and performance techniques

b)

CPU optimization

c)

Network protocol

d)

Cloud service

93.

What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?

a)

IPv4 = 32-bit, IPv6 = 128-bit

b)

IPv4 faster

c)

IPv6 = 32-bit

d)

Both same

94.

Explain the difference between relational and non-relational databases.

a)

Relational = structured tables, Non-relational = document/key-value

b)

Both same

c)

Relational = cloud only

d)

Non-relational = offline only

95.

What is a subnet mask?

a)

Defines network and host portion

b)

IP address

c)

Gateway

d)

Router

96.

Describe the concept of NAT in networking.

a)

Maps private to public IP

b)

Encrypts traffic

c)

Firewall

d)

Switch

97.

Explain the difference between HTTP/1.1 and HTTP/2.

a)

HTTP/2 supports multiplexing and header compression

b)

HTTP/1.1 faster

c)

Both same

d)

HTTP/2 slower

98.

What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?

a)

Symmetric uses one key, Asymmetric uses key pair

b)

Both same

c)

Asymmetric faster

d)

Symmetric insecure

99.

Explain virtualization vs emulation.

a)

Virtualization shares hardware, Emulation mimics hardware

b)

Both same

c)

Virtualization = slower

d)

Emulation = faster

100.

Explain OSI vs TCP/IP model differences.

a)

OSI = 7 layers, TCP/IP = 4-5 layers

b)

Both same

c)

OSI = cloud only

d)

TCP/IP = offline

101.

How does a proxy server improve security and performance?

a)

Filters traffic, caches content

b)

Only firewall

c)

Only storage

d)

Only DNS

102.

Describe the differences between microservices and monolithic architecture.

a)

Microservices = independent services, Monolithic = single code base

b)

Both same

c)

Microservices slower

d)

Monolithic scalable