wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Audit -2

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Control risk is

a)

the probability that a material misstatement could not be prevented or detected

by the entity's internal control policies and procedures

b)

the probability that a material misstatement could occur and not be detected by

auditors' procedures

c)

the risk that auditors will not be able to complete the audit on a

timely basis.

d)

the risk that auditors will not properly control the staK on the audit

engagement.

2.

The responsibilities principle under generally accepted auditing standards does not

include which of the following?

a)

Competence and capabilities

b)

Independent attitude

c)

Due care

d)

Planning and supervision

3.

Which of the following types of auditors' reports does not require an additional

paragraph to support the opinion?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Adverse opinion

c)

Qualified opion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

4.

Which of the following is an element of a system of quality control that should be

considered by a public accounting firm in establishing its quality control policies and procedures?

a)

Lending credibility to a client's financial statements

b)

Using statistical sampling techniques

c)

Acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements

d)

Membership in the Center for Public Company Audit FIrms

5.

Which of the following presumptions does not relate to the reliability of audit evidence?

a)

The more effective the client's internal control, the more assurance it provides

about the accounting data and financial statements.

b)

The auditors' opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within reasonable

time and based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.

c)

Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is more reliable

than evidence secured solely within the entity.

d)

The independent auditors' direct personal knowledge, obtained through

observation and inspection, is of higher quality than information obtained

indirectly

6.

An important role of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board is to oversee the

a)

issuance of statements by the Financial Accounting Standards Board

b)

preparation and grading of the Uniform CPA Examination.

c)

peer review of member firms of the Private Companies Practice Section.

d)

regulation of firms that audit public entities

7.

Audit evidence is usually considered succient when

a)

it is reliable

b)

there is enough quantity to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion on financial statements

c)

it has the qualities of being relevant, objective, and free from unknown bias

d)

it has been obtained through random selection methods.

8.

Which of the following is not considered a type of audit evidence

a)

The entity's trial balance

b)

Auditors' calculations

c)

Physical observation

d)

Verbal statements made by client personnel

9.

An audit of the financial statements of Camden Corporation is being conducted by external auditors. The external auditors are expected to

a)

certify the correctness of Camden's financial statements

b)

make a complete examination of Camden's records and verify all of Camden's transactions

c)

give an opinion on the fair presentation of Camden's >nancial statements in

conformity with the applicable >nancial reporting framework (e.g., GAAP, IFRS).

d)

give an opinion on the attractiveness of Camden for investment purposes and

critique the wisdom and legality of its business decisions.

10.

Auditors try to achieve independence in appearance in order to

a)

maintain public confidence in the profession.

b)

become independent in fact.

c)

comply with the responsibilities principle

d)

maintain an unbiased mental attitude.

11.

The preparation of an audit plan prior to the beginning of fieldwork is appropriately considered documentation of

a)

planning

b)

supervision

c)

information evaluation

d)

quality assurance

12.

Which of the following procedures would provide the most reliable audit evidence?

a)

Inquiries of the client's accounting staff held in

private

b)

Inspection of prenumbered client shipping

documents

c)

Inspection of bank statements obtained directly from the client's

financial institution

d)

Analytical procedures performed by auditors on the client's

trial balance

13.

Which of the following would most likely be a violation of the independence requirement found in the responsibilities principle under generally accepted auditing standards?

a)

An auditor on the engagement has a distant relative who is employed by a vendor that does a significant amount of business with clients.

b)

The client's Chief Executive Officer graduated from the same university as the

partner in charge of the accounting >rm.

c)

An auditor on the engagement owns a financial interest in the stock of

the client

d)

The client provides financial support to a number of charitable causes that also

receive support from the accounting firm.

14.

A vendor's invoice received and held by the client would be considered what type of evidence

a)

External

b)

Internal

c)

External-internal

d)

Written representation

15.

Which of the following statements is generally correct about the appropriateness of audit evidence?

a)

Auditors' direct personal knowledge, obtained through observation and inspection, is of higher quality than information obtained indirectly from independent outside sources

b)

To be reliable, audit evidence must be either valid or relevant, but need

not be both

c)

Client accounting data alone may be considered succient appropriate audit

evidence to issue an unmodi>ed opinion on client >nancial statements.

d)

Appropriateness of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative

evidence to be obtained.

16.

Which of the following is not included in the auditors' standard report representing

an unmodi>ed opinion?

a)

brief indication of the responsibility of auditors and management for the

>nancial statements

b)

An indication that all appropriate disclosures have been made and included in

the >nancial statements

c)

An indication that the audit was conducted in accordance with standards

established by the PCAOB

d)

The auditors' opinion on the fairness of the >nancial

statements

17.

Which of the following presumptions is correct about the reliability of audit

evidence?

a)

Information obtained indirectly from outside sources is the most reliable form of

audit evidence.

b)

To be reliable, audit evidence should be convincing rather than

persuasive.

c)

Reliability of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative

evidence obtained.

d)

An eKective system of internal control provides more assurance about the

reliability of audit evidence.

18.

The auditors' responsibility to express an opinion on the >nancial statements is

a)

implicitly represented in the auditors'

standard report

b)

explicitly represented in the introductory paragraph of the auditors'

standard report.

c)

explicitly represented in the scope paragraph of the auditors'

standard report

d)

explicitly represented in the opinion paragraph of the auditors'

standard report.

19.

Which of the following is not a concept from the performance principle under

generally accepted auditing standards?

a)

The auditor must plan the work and properly supervise any

assistants.

b)

The auditor must express an opinion in accordance with the

auditor's >ndings.

c)

The auditor must obtain succient appropriate evidence about whether material

misstatements exist.

d)

The auditor must determine and apply an appropriate materiality level

throughout the audit

20.

Under generally accepted auditing standards, which of the following relates to the

responsibilities principle?

a)

The initial planning of the audit

engagement

b)

The con>rmation of accounts

receivable

c)

The completion of an internal control

questionnaire

d)

Maintaining professional skepticism and exercising professional

judgment

21.

Which of the following represent audit quality guides that remain stable over time

and are applicable for all audits?

a)

Auditing procedures

b)

Auditing standard

c)

Due care

d)

System of quality control

22.

Which of the following situations would most likely be in conflict with the

responsibilities principle?

a)

Auditors perform the engagement with the performance level expected of

prudent auditors, but not expert auditors.

b)

Auditors obtain expertise in their client's industry as they are conducting the

audit examination.

c)

Auditors are directly involved with a client manager in a strategic decision making

capacity

d)

Auditors fail to document their assessment of control risk following their study of

internal control

23.

Which of the following statements is not true with respect to the evidence that

would be gathered when assessments of control risk are high?

a)

Auditors would be required to rely on external (rather than internal) forms

of evidence.

b)

Auditors would be required to perform procedures at interim periods, rather than

at year end.

c)

Auditors would be required to con>rm a larger number of customer accounts

receivable balances.

d)

Auditors would be required to obtain more evidence through direct personal

observation.

24.

As it relates to audit evidence, appropriateness refers to the

a)

originality of evidence gathered.

b)

quality of evidence gathered

c)

quantity of evidence gathered

d)

timeliness of evidence gathered

25.

Which of the following information would not be included in the auditors' standard report?

a)

The names of the financial statement audited

b)

A description of the nature of an

audit

c)

An indication that all necessary disclosures have been

presented

d)

An opinion on the entity's >nancial

statements

26.

The primary purpose of the auditors' study of internal control for a nonpublic entity is

a)

to provide constructive suggestions to the client for improving its internal control

b)

to report on internal control as required by Auditing Standard No.5

c)

to identify and detect fraud and irregularities perpetrated by client personnel

d)

to determine the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures

27.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to the quality of audit evidence?

a)

Quality is related to the relevance of evidence, but not the reliability of evidence.

b)

Evidence is considered of higher quality when gathered prior to year-end than following year-end.

c)

Evidence obtained under environments of stronger internal control is of higher

quality than evidence obtained under environments of weaker internal control.

d)

In evaluating quality, succiency of evidence is of greater importance than

appropriateness of evidence

28.

Which reporting options do auditors have if the client's >nancial statements are not

presented according to the applicable financial framework (e.g., GAAP, IFRS)?

a)

Unmodi>ed opinion or disclaimer of

opinion

b)

Quali>ed opinion or disclaimer of

opinion

c)

Unmodi>ed opinion or adverse

opinion

d)

Quali>ed opinion or adverse

opinion

29.

Which of the following concepts is least related to the risk of material

misstatement?

a)

control risk

b)

detection risk

c)

inherent risk

d)

materiality

30.

Which of the following statements describes an appropriate relationship with

respect to the reliability of audit evidence?

a)

Receiving con>rmation from third parties as to the existence of securities is

more reliable than the auditors' personal inspection of those securities.

b)

Verbal inquiries received from the client regarding sales made to customers are

more reliable than sales invoices prepared by the client for its customers.

c)

A bank con>rmation received directly by the auditor is more reliable than a bank

con>rmation initially received by the client and forwarded to the auditor

d)

Evidence drawn from a document prepared by the client is more reliable than

evidence drawn from a document prepared by an external party that is

forwarded to the auditor by the client.

31.

A periodic review of an audit >rm's system of quality control by the PCAOB is

referred to as a(n)

a)

inspection

b)

peer review

c)

principles review

d)

quality review

32.

The performance principle would include all of the following except

a)

the auditors' determination of materiality

levels

b)

the auditors' evaluation of independence with respect to

their clients

c)

the auditors' evaluation of the risk of material

misstatement.

d)

the auditors' determination of the nature, timing, and extent of further audit

procedures.

33.

Which of the following is most closely associated with the responsibilities

principle?

a)

Due care

b)

planning

c)

qualified audit opinion

d)

risk of material misstatement

34.

Which of the following would normally be considered earliest in the audit

examination?

a)

Determination of materiality levels for use during

the audit

b)

Consideration of the ability of the entity's internal control to prevent or

detect errors

c)

Preparation of a written audit plan

d)

Evaluation of the type of audit opinion to be issued, based on the

auditor's >ndings

35.

The state of mind that characterizes the auditors' appropriate questioning and

critical assessment of audit evidence is referred to as

a)

due care

b)

independence in appearance

c)

professional judgement

d)

professional skepticism

36.

Which of the following is least related to the concept of independence in

appearance?

a)

The auditors' objectivity and ability to act impartially

toward the client

b)

The perceptions of individuals who rely on the >nancial statements and auditors'

opinion on the >nancial statements

c)

The ownership of a >nancial interest in a client by

the auditor

d)

The employment of the auditor's family member in an important position

with the client

37.

The concept of _________ recognizes that a GAAS audit may fail to detect all

material misstatements.

a)

absoluteassurance

b)

due care

c)

reasonable assurance

d)

risk of material misstatement

38.

Generally accepted auditing standards are

a)

speci>c actions performed by auditors during an

examination

b)

standards that guide the conduct of an audit

examination.

c)

legal requirements auditors must observe during the audits of

public entities

d)

standards used by entities in deciding whether to engage or retain the services

of auditors.

39.

Which of the following could serve as a source of professional guidance in the audit

of a public entity?

a)

Option A

b)

Option B

c)

Option C

d)

OptionD

40.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the responsibilities for

establishing generally accepted auditing standards?

a)

Auditing standards for both public and private entities must be formally

approved by the Securities and Exchange Commission.

b)

Interpretive publications are issued by the AICPA to provide guidance on the

application of generally accepted auditing standards in speci>c circumstances.

c)

The PCAOB is the body with formal authority for the creation of auditing

standards for the audits of public entities.

d)

If speci>c guidance is not provided by PCAOB Auditing Standards, auditors may

refer to Statements on Auditing Standards that have not been amended or

superseded.

41.

Which of the following is not related to the responsibilities principle

a)

Continuing professional education to ensure that professionals' knowledge

keeps pace with changes in the accounting and auditing profession

b)

Firm-wide policies to evaluate the >nancial and professional relationships of its

professionals

c)

Speci>c auditing procedures designed to determine the eKectiveness of the

entity's internal control over >nancial reporting

d)

The auditors' use of professional judgment throughout the

examination

42.

A level of performance that would be exercised by reasonable auditors in similar

circumstances is referred to as

a)

Due care

b)

independence

c)

professional judgement

d)

professional skepticism

43.

During which stages of an audit examination are auditors required to exhibit the

appropriate use of professional judgment?

a)

option a

b)

option b

c)

option c

d)

option d

44.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the concept of reasonable

assurance?

a)

Reasonable assurance allows for mistakes and misinterpretations by the audit

team throughout the examination.

b)

The nature of many audit procedures is such that they cannot always be relied

upon to detect misstatements.

c)

Audit teams should evaluate all transactions and components of an account

balance or class of transactions

d)

Auditors should control the overall risk in an audit to an acceptably

low level

45.

Which of the following factors influences the risk of material misstatement?

a)

Option A

b)

Option B

c)

Option C

d)

Option D

46.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the auditors' report for a public

entity?

a)

The report title should contain the word

"independent."

b)

The report provides a detailed listing of major auditing procedures performed

during the examination

c)

The opinion assesses the >nancial statements against an applicable >nancial

reporting framework

d)

The report speci>cally identi>es the >nancial statements and years examined by

the auditor

47.

Which of the following paragraphs references the conduct of the audit in

accordance with PCAOB standards?

a)

Introductory paragraph

b)

Scope paragraph

c)

Opinion paragraph

d)

Internal control paragraph

48.

Which of the following is true with respect to the PCAOB inspection process?

a)

Option A

b)

Option B

c)

Option C

d)

Option D

49.

Which of the following types of audit evidence provides the least assurance of

reliability?

a)

Receivable con>rmations from the client's

customers

b)

Prenumbered receiving reports completed by the client's

employees

c)

Prior months' bank statements obtained from

the client

d)

Municipal property tax bills prepared in the

client's name

50.

Which of the following courses of action is most appropriate if an auditor concludes

that there is a high risk of material misstatement?

a)

Use smaller, rather than larger, sample

sizes.

b)

Perform substantive tests as of an

interim date

c)

Select more eKective substantive

tests.

d)

Increase tests of

controls.

51.

Which of the following actions should a CPA >rm take to comply with the AICPA's

quality control standards?

a)

Establish procedures that comply with the standards of the Sarbanes-

Oxley Act

b)

Use attributes sampling techniques in testing internal

controls.

c)

Consider inherent risk and control risk before determining

detection risk

d)

Establish policies to ensure that the audit work meets applicable professional

standards

52.

Which of the following is a de>nition of control risk?

a)

The risk that a material misstatement will not be prevented or detected on a

timely basis by the client's internal controls

b)

The risk that the auditor will not detect a material

misstatement

c)

The risk that the auditor's assessment of internal controls will be at less than the

maximum level

d)

The susceptibility of material misstatement assuming there are no related

internal control policies or procedures

53.

Prior to, or in conjunction with, the information-gathering procedures for an audit,

audit team members should discuss the potential for material misstatement due to

fraud. Which of the following best characterizes the mindset that the audit team

should maintain during this discussion?

a)

Presumptive

b)

Judgemental

c)

Criticizing

d)

Questioning

54.

An independent auditor must have which of the following?

a)

A pre-existing and well-informed point of view with respect to

the audit

b)

Technical training that is adequate to meet the requirements of a

professional

c)

A background in many different

disciplines

d)

Experience in taxation that is sufficient to comply with generally accepted

auditing standards

55.

What type of evidence would provide the highest level of assurance in an

attestation engagement?

a)

Evidence secured solely from within the

entity

b)

Evidence obtained from independent

sources

c)

Evidence obtained

indirectly

d)

Evidence obtained from multiple internal

inquiries

56.

Which of the following is an important consideration during the planning of the

audit?

a)

Considering the independence of members of the

audit team

b)

Performing some of the audit procedures prior to the end of the year

under audit

c)

Considering the ability and expertise of the audit team with respect to

accounting and auditing issues in the client's industry

d)

Considering the impact of tests of controls on the overall assessment of

control risk

57.

The initial development of auditing standards was in response to

a)

a scandal involving embezzlement that was not detected during an audit

engagement.

b)

auditors' concerns that all components of the >nancial statements were not

being veri>ed

c)

independent inquiries of the public accounting profession made by

the SEC.

d)

requests by companies for greater assurance with respect to the auditors' ability

to detect >nancial statement misstatements.

58.

The particular and specialized actions that auditors undertake to obtain evidence in

a speci>c audit engagement are known as

a)

Interim Auditing Standards

b)

Audit procedures

c)

Interpretive publications

d)

Statements on Auditing Standards

59.

The role of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board in the standard-setting

process is to develop

a)

Statements on Auditing Standards for the audits of

nonpublic entities

b)

Auditing Standards for the audits of public

entities

c)

Governmental Auditing Standards for the audits of

governmental entities

d)

International Standards on Auditing for the audits of

foreign entities

60.

The three fundamental principles underlying GAAS include all of the following,

except

a)

general principle

b)

performance principle

c)

reporting principle

d)

responsibilities principle

61.

The relevant ethical requirements relating to due care, professional skepticism, and

professional judgment are responsibilities of the auditor at which stage(s) of the

audit?

a)

Option A

b)

Option B

c)

Option C

d)

Option D

62.

Which of the following does not directly relate to an auditor's responsibility for

having appropriate competence and capabilities to perform the audit?

a)

Participating in continuing professional

education

b)

Gaining experience through hands-on

practice

c)

Obtaining reliable documentary

evidence

d)

Attending on-the-job

training

63.

In a system of quality control, leadership responsibilities for quality within the >rm

are best characterized by

a)

basing personnel performance evaluations on the employees' ability to generate

revenues from existing clients or by acquiring new clients

b)

management's evaluation of the integrity and business reputation

of the client

c)

management's clear and consistent demonstration of its own commitment to

quality control and high-quality work.

d)

assigning management responsibilities in such a manner that commercial

considerations are the >rm's top priority

64.

The audit failures of both Enron and WorldCom were examples in which the

leadership responsibilities for quality work within the accounting >rm were

overshadowed by fears that losing a key client would

a)

result in shareholder losses from reduced company

pro>tability.

b)

require additional audit procedures and increase the fees paid by the companies

to the accounting >rm.

c)

negatively inUuence the results of the >rm's

inspection.

d)

negatively impact individual auditors' performance

evaluations

65.

Which element of a system of quality control strives to provide the >rm with

reasonable assurance that its policies and procedures are operating eKectively?

a)

Human resources

b)

Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm

c)

Monitoring

d)

Relevant ethical requirements