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Worksheets

Review

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a glial cell type?

a)

Ependymal cells

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Parietal cells

d)

Microglia

e)

Astrocytes

2.

What plane of sectioning would divide the rostral part from the caudal part of the cerebral cortex?

a)

Coronal

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Parasagittal

d)

Horizontal

e)

Axial

3.

In the peripheral nervous system, groups of neuronal somata are called ________, and bundles of axons are called ________.

a)

ganglia, nerves

b)

nuclei, tracts

c)

plexuses, fascicles

d)

centers, columns

4.

The two hemispheres of the brain are separated by which of the following?

a)

Interhemispheric fissure

b)

Lateral fissure

c)

Central gyrus

d)

Parasagittal fissure

e)

Parieto-occipital fissure (or sulcus)

5.

What does ectoderm give rise to?

a)

Muscle, nervous system

b)

Skin, muscle, and some internal organs

c)

Mesoderm, gut, and glandular tissue

d)

Skin, nervous system

e)

Gut, bone

6.

What occurs during the G0 phase of the cell cycle?

a)

DNA is replicated

b)

Proteins needed for mitosis are synthesized

c)

Mitosis no longer occurs

d)

Factors that initiate cell division may be expressed

7.

7. The ____ induces the ____ to become the neural plate.

a)

mesoderm, endoderm

b)

endoderm, mesoderm

c)

ectoderm, mesoderm

d)

mesoderm, ectoderm

8.

What structure produces most of the cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Arachnoid granulations

b)

Dura mater

c)

Choroid plexus

d)

Ventricular plexus

9.

What is a major result of the CSF not draining properly?

a)

Spina bifida

b)

Hydrocephalus

c)

Microcephaly

d)

Hydrocele

e)

Anencephaly

10.

The cerebral aqueduct allows cerebrospinal fluid to move directly from the ____ ventricle to the ____ ventricle.

a)

lateral, third

b)

third, lateral

c)

lateral, fourth

d)

third, fourth

11.

In principle, there are multiple sites from which CSF could be sampled. From which of the following sites is sampling LEAST likely to result in damage to the CNS?

a)

lateral ventricle

b)

third ventricle

c)

fourth ventricle

d)

the space between the L3 vertebra and the L4 vertebra

12.

The anterior cerebral artery primarily supplies blood flow to which of the following?

a)

midline of the cerebral cortex

b)

lateral side of cerebral cortex

c)

posterior-inferior cerebral cortex

d)

brainstem and cerebellum

e)

midbrain and pons

13.

What do the dural venous sinuses drain into?

a)

Internal jugular vein

b)

Middle cerebral artery

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Internal carotid artery

e)

Great vein of Galen

14.

The right ventricle pumps ____ blood to the ____

a)

deoxygenated, lungs

b)

deoxygenated, body

c)

oxygenated, lungs

d)

oxygenated, body

e)

deoxygenated, brain

15.

What alleviates decreased oxygen to the brain?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Ischemia

e)

Existence of the blood-brain barrier

16.

Synthesis of mRNA from DNA in the nucleus is a process called…

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Elongation

e)

Termination

17.

What mechanism moves microtubules and neurofilaments away from the cell body?

a)

Fast retrograde transport

b)

Slow anterograde transport

c)

Fast anterograde transport

d)

Slow retrograde transport

e)

Contraction of actin and myosin after release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

18.

Nissl substance is composed of which of the following?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Nuclei

e)

Lysosomes

19.

Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes?

a)

A. “Insulation” of synapses from each other

b)

B. Regulation of the extracellular ionic environment

c)

C. Contributes to the blood-brain barrier

d)

D. Increases axonal conduction velocity

20.

What is the resting membrane potential?

a)

About 140 mv

b)

About 70 mv

c)

About 0 mv

d)

About -70 mv

e)

About -140 mv

21.

Which of these comes first during an action potential? Pick best answer.

a)

Hyperpolarization of the cell

b)

Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

c)

Opening of voltage-gated K+ channels

d)

Depolarization of the cell to its threshold

e)

Closing of voltage-gated Na+ channels

22.

Which of the following is a result of the refractory period?

a)

Removes most limits on the frequency at which action potentials can be generated

b)

It allows synaptic release to happen during periods of very rapid cell firing

c)

Any action potentials that occur during the refractory period will larger than usual.

d)

Ensures that the action potential is only propagated in one direction

23.

Which of the following has the greatest effect on axonal conduction velocity?

a)

Length of the axon

b)

Diameter of the axon

c)

Diameter of the cell body

d)

Number of voltage-gated Na+ channels

e)

Number of voltage-gated K+ channels

24.

What are SNARE proteins?

a)

Ca++ channel proteins in the synaptic terminal that allow neurotransmitter release

b)

Proteins that pull the vesicle away from the cell membrane after neurotransmitter is released

c)

Ca++-binding proteins in the axon terminals that allow action potentials to enter the synaptic terminal

d)

Proteins that cause the vesicle to fuse with the cell membrane

e)

K+-binding proteins in the axon terminals that allow release of neurotransmitter

25.

Some toxic nerve gasses act by inhibiting the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. What is the function of acetylcholinesterase?

a)

It is the pump that moves acetylcholine back into the cholinergic terminal after its release into the synapse.

b)

It is the pump that moves acetylcholine into the vesicle prior to its release from the synapse

c)

It is the enzyme that synthesizes acetylcholine

d)

It is the enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine after its release into the synapse

e)

It is the pump that moves acetylcholine into a glial cell after its release into the synapse

26.

Which of the following statements are TRUE?

a)

G-protein coupled receptors have a rapid action of short duration

b)

In metabotropic receptors, binding of a neurotransmitter changes the activation of a G-protein

c)

The actions of ionotropic receptors typically are slow and of long duration

d)

A neurotransmitter can only bind to the one receptor for which it is the ligand

e)

The three general types of neurotransmitter receptors are ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors and chronotropic receptors.

27.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The spinal cord is longer than the vertebral column.

b)

Each vertebra has two spinal nerves exiting from beneath it

c)

Motoneurons develop from the alar plate

d)

The spinal cord is found just dorsal to the spinous process of the vertebral arch

e)

Sensory axons extend from dorsal root ganglia to the cervical spinal cord via the cauda equina

28.

To which of the following does the arrow point?

a)

Dorsal funiculus

b)

Dorsal horn

c)

Intermediate gray

d)

Ventral funiculus

e)

Ventral horn

29.

Which of the following relationships is correct?

a)

The largest amount of white matter is found in the lumbar and cervical enlargements

b)

Gray matter increases as you move rostrally in the spinal cord

c)

White matter increases as you move caudally in the spinal cord

d)

Gray matter increases as you move caudally in the spinal cord

e)

White matter increases as you move rostrally in the spinal cord

30.

The spinal cord can process information in several ways. Which of the following is NOT one of those ways?

a)

A. Sensory input from muscles can cause reflexive responses

b)

B. Sensory input from muscles can be relayed to the cerebellum and used to coordinate movements

c)

C. Sensory input can be relayed to the cerebral cortex, where it is consciously perceived

d)

D. Sensory input arriving through the ventral roots can evoke a special type of extremely fast reflex

e)

E. Sensory axons can synapse on relay neurons that transmit the information to other sites

31.

Which of the following structures can NOT be seen on the ventral surface of the sheep brain?

a)

Optic chiasm

b)

Oculomotor nerve

c)

Abducens nerve

d)

Cerebral peduncles

e)

Corpus callosum

32.

Which of the following structures surrounds the cerebral aqueduct?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla

d)

Corpus callosum

e)

Frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex

33.

There are vessels that feed into the Circle of Willis that don’t form part of the “circle” (i.e. don’t form part of its anastomotic loop). Which of the following vessels is NOT part of the anastomotic loop of the Circle of Willis?

a)

Internal carotid artery

b)

Anterior cerebral artery

c)

Anterior communicating artery

d)

Vertebral artery

e)

Posterior communicating artery

34.

Which of the following meningeal membranes follows the surface of the brain into the sulci of the human cerebral cortex?

a)

Dura mater

b)

Pia mater

c)

Arachnoid

d)

Arachnoid granulations

35.

Which of the following structures does not need to be severed in order to remove the cerebellum from the brainstem?

a)

Superior cerebellar peduncle

b)

Cerebral peduncle

c)

Middle cerebellar peduncle

d)

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

36.

The basal plate develops into ____ neurons ____ the spinal cord.

a)

sensory, exiting

b)

sensory, entering

c)

motor, exiting

d)

motor, entering

37.

Excitatory neurotransmitter receptors often open ________ channels causing the cell to

___________.

a)

K+, depolarize

b)

K+, hyperpolarize

c)

Na+, depolarize

d)

Ca++, hyperpolarize

38.

Which of the following structures is derived from the embryonic diencephalon?

a)

Superior colliculus

b)

Pons

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Cerebellum

39.

In the image of a mid-sagittal cut through a sheep brain above, what is the structure at the tip of the yellow arrow?

a)

Pons

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Pineal gland

40.

In the image of a mid-sagittal cut through a sheep brain above, what is the structure at the tip of the red arrow?

a)

Pons

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Corpus callosum

d)

Pineal gland