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CCSE-4

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What order should be used when upgrading a Management High Availability Cluster?

a)

Secondary Management, then Primary Management

b)

Active Management, then Standby Management

c)

Standby Management, then Active Management

d)

Primary Management, then Secondary Management

2.

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your Check Point server, which command would you use?

a)

cpinfo –h all

b)

cpinfo –o hotfix

c)

cpinfo –y all

d)

cpinfo –I hotfix

3.

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

a)

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

b)

The corresponding feature is new to R81.10 and is called “Management Data Plane Separation”

c)

The corresponding feature is called “Dynamic Split”

d)

The corresponding feature is called “Dynamic Dispatching”

4.

Which process is used mainly for backward compatibility of gateways in R80.x and newer? It provides communication with GUI-client, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization.

a)

cpm

b)

fwd

c)

cpd

d)

fwm

5.

What component of Management is used for indexing?

a)

fwm

b)

SOLR

c)

API Server

d)

DBSync

6.

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on the management server?

a)

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

b)

It generates indexes of data written to the database

c)

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

d)

Writing all information into the database

7.

What is the difference between Updatable Objects and Dynamic Objects?

a)

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally. In both cases there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

b)

Dynamic Objects are maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. For Dynamic Objects there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally.

c)

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally. For Dynamic Objects there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

d)

Dynamic Objects are maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally. In both cases there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

8.

Which process handles connections from SmartConsole R80?

a)

cpm

b)

cpd

c)

cpmd

d)

fwd

9.

Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

a)

Networks

b)

Machines

c)

Users

d)

Time

10.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

a)

Common Name

b)

Country

c)

User container

d)

Organizational Unit

11.

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

a)

Enable .exe bat protection in IPS Policy

b)

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe, bat

c)

create FW rule for particular protocol

d)

enable DLP and select .exe and .bat file type

12.

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

a)

fw ctl dbg –a 0

b)

fw ctl debug set 0

c)

fw ctl debug 0

d)

fw ctl dbg resetall

13.

Alice knows about the Check Point Management HA installation from Bob and needs to know which Check Point Security Management Server is currently capable of issuing and managing certificate. Alice uses the Check Point command “cpconfig” to run the Check Point Security Management Server configuration tool on both Check Point Management HA instances “Primary & Secondary”. Which configuration option does she need to look for?

a)

Certificate's Fingerprint

b)

Random Pool

c)

Certificate Authority

d)

CA Authority

14.

Is it possible to establish a VPN before the user login to the Endpoint Client.

a)

Yes, you had to set neo_remember_user_password to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_remember_user_password attribute in the trac_client_1.ttm file located in the $FWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

b)

Yes, you had to set neo_always_connected to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_always_connected attribute in the trac_client_1.ttm file located in the $FWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

c)

No, the user must login first.

d)

Yes, you have to enable Machine Authentication in the Gateway object of the Smart Console

15.

Mobile Access Gateway can be configured as a reverse proxy for Internal Web Applications. Reverse proxy users browse to a URL that is resolved to the Security Gateway IP address. Which of the following Check Point command is true for enabling the Reverse Proxy:

a)

ReverseProxy

b)

ReverseCLIProxy

c)

ReverseProxyCLI

d)

ProxyReverseCLI

16.

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two. Which of the following statements correctly identify each product’s capabilities?

a)

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

b)

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support

c)

Workspace supports iOS, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports iOS and Android only

d)

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support, but has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password login support as well as SSO for specific applications.

17.

What are the two modes for SNX (SSL Network Extender)?

a)

Network Mode and Hub Mode

b)

Network Mode and Application Mode

c)

Visitor Mode and Office Mode

d)

Office Mode and Hub Mode

18.

Native Applications require a thin client under which circumstances?

a)

If you want to have assigned a particular Office Mode IP address

b)

If you are about to use a client (FTP, RDP, ...) that is installed on the endpoint.

c)

If you want to use a VPN Client that is not officially supported by the underlying operating system

d)

If you want to use a legacy 32-Bit Windows OS

19.

In SmartConsole, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

a)

Through the Mobile Console

b)

Shared Gateways Policy

c)

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

d)

Smart Dashboard

20.

When detected, an event can activate an Automatic Reaction. The SmartEvent administrator can create and configure one Automatic Reaction, or many, according to the needs of the system. Which of the following statement is false and NOT part of possible automatic reactions:

a)

Syslog

b)

SNMP Trap

c)

Mail

d)

Block Source

21.

What are possible Automatic Reactions in SmartEvent?

a)

Web Mail, Forward to SandBlast Appliance, SNMP Trap, External Script

b)

Web Mail, Block Service, SNMP Trap, SmartTask, Geo Protectio

c)

Web Mail, Block Destination, SNMP Trap, SmartTask

d)

Mail, SNMP Trap, Block Source, Block Event Activity, External Script

22.

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

a)

Cpmqueue set

b)

Set cpmq enable

c)

Cpmq config

d)

cpmq set

23.

What is Dynamic Balancing?

a)

It is a feature that uses a daemon to balance the required number of firewall instances and SNDs based on the current load

b)

It is a ClusterXL feature that switches an HA cluster into an LS cluster if required to maximize throughput.

c)

It is a CoreXL feature that assigns the SND to network interfaces to balance the RX Cache of the interfaces

d)

It is a new feature that is capable of dynamically reserve the amount of Hash kernel memory to reflect the resource usage necessary for maximizing the session rate.

24.

Which is the command to identify the NIC driver before considering about the employment of the Multi-Queue feature?

a)

ip show int eth0

b)

show interface eth0 mq

c)

ifconfig –i eth0 verbose

d)

ethtool –i eth0

25.

What is the minimum number of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

4

d)

6

26.

What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

a)

R77.30 and later

b)

R80.10 and Later

c)

R70 and Later

d)

R76 and later

27.

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

a)

fw conn all

b)

show all connections

c)

fw ctl pstat

d)

show connections

28.

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

a)

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

b)

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

c)

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

d)

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

29.

You pushed a policy to your gateway, and you cannot access the gateway remotely anymore. What command should you use to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access?

a)

“fw unloadpolicy”

b)

“fw unloadlocal”

c)

“fw cpstop”

d)

“fw undo”

30.

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

a)

clusterXL_admin_down

b)

cphaprob_admin down

c)

clusterXL_admin down –p

d)

set clusterXL down –p

31.

While using the Gaia CLI, what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?

a)

json publish

b)

mgmt publish

c)

mgmt._cli commit

d)

commit19009

32.

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server, where it is forwarded to ______ via ______.

a)

cpm, cpd

b)

cpwd, fwssd

c)

fwm, cpd

d)

cpd, fwm

33.

Which TCP port does the CPM process listen on?

a)

19009

b)

18191

c)

8983

d)

18190

34.

What command is used to manually failover a cluster during a zero-downtime upgrade?

a)

clusterXL_admin down

b)

set cluster member down

c)

cpstop

d)

set clusterXL down

35.

Which of the following is an identity acquisition method that allows a Security Gateway to identify Active Directory users and computers?

a)

UserCheck

b)

User Directory Query

c)

Account Unit Query

d)

Active Directory Query