wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Immuno review 9/30

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the mechanism by which defensins contribute to the innate immune system?

a)

act on specific membrane receptors to influence the behavior of immune cells

b)

signal to immune cells and direct them to the site of injury or infection

c)

kill bacteria by competing with them for the body’s limited iron supply

d)

are released from white blood cells to create a pore in microbial membranes

2.

John is having a very bad week and was just diagnosed with COVID-19. He just found out that viruses like COVID enter into the cells of the body, but often are not the actual reason for cell death– one of our own immune cells is. Which is not true about this type of innate immune cell?

a)

they recognize both CD16 and altered MHC I molecules

b)

they are the primary effectors of ADCC

c)

they kill cells with the release of perforin and lysozymes

d)

normal MHC molecules are bound by KIRs

e)

they also kill cancer cells

3.

Elevation of which type of cell is most distinctly characteristic of acute inflammation?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Eosinophils

4.

Leah is reviewing immuno for Step 1 and has realized that she forgot all about complement… oops! She’s confused how Factor H stops the normally-constitutive alternative pathway from killing everything. What should you tell her? Choose all that apply.

a)

Accelerates decay of C3 convertase

b)

Prevents properdin from binding C3bBb

c)

Cleaves and inactivates C3b

d)

Sterically hinders the formation of C5 convertase

5.

What complement component is considered essential for allowing B cells to be more easily activated?

a)

C3a

b)

C3d

c)

CR1

d)

C5a

6.

A 36 y/o female patient presents with the primary complaints of joint pain and blood in the urine. You notice a rash spanning over the patient’s cheeks and nose and she asserts that this is common for her within the past few years, especially after being in the sun. What lab finding would be least consistent with her most likely diagnosis?

a)

low C5-9

b)

low C3/4

c)

low C1q/r/s

d)

low CH50/AP50 values

7.

A 17 y/o patient presents with the primary concern of frequent random swelling, especially of the face, that usually subsides after a day or two. It is discovered that she has a disease of the complement system. What is the correct pairing of the gene and molecule likely responsible for these symptoms?

a)

PIGA; CD55

b)

PIGA; C1-INH

c)

SERPING1; CD59

d)

SERPING1; C1-INH

8.

Which cytokine listed below does not use the common gamma chain often credited for SCID diagnoses?

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-4

c)

IL-6

d)

IL-7

e)

IL-21

9.

Which of the following cytokines is most frequently targeted in inflammatory diseases such as Rheumatoid Arthritis or IBD?

a)

IFN-gamma

b)

TNF-alpha

c)

TNF-beta

d)

IL-1 alpha

10.

A patient with an autoimmune disorder comes in for an ANA antibody titer, hoping for good news. 6 months ago, her titer was 1:160. What would be the best possible result to suggest improvement of her disease?

a)

1:40

b)

1:80

c)

1:320

d)

1:640

11.

Which of the following vaccines is safest to administer to an immunocompromised patient?

a)

DTP

b)

MMR

c)

influenza

d)

Salk polio

12.

A 5 year-old patient presents to the ED with pneumonia. He has a history of recurrent bronchitis, thrush, diarrhea, and ear infections. Family history is pertinent for a maternal uncle dying at a young age from a severe infection. On physical exam, the patient is febrile, short of breath, and has a productive cough. A mutation in what gene is responsible for this patient’s condition?

a)

DNA helicase gene

b)

gamma-chain gene

c)

WASP gene

d)

TAP gene

13.

A 7-year old patient presents with recurrent respiratory infections, chronic bronchitis, and pulmonary fibrosis. A genetic test is run and the patient is found to have a mutation in the TAP gene. Which of the following cells is deficient in this patient?

a)

B cells

b)

NK cells

c)

CD4 T cells

d)

CD8 T cells

14.

A 5-month-old girl presents with a 2-week scalp rash, fever, diarrhea and decreased feeding. She has a history of 2 hospitalizations for omphalitis. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 40,000. There is severely decreased or absent expression of which of the following?

a)

CD18

b)

CD15

c)

CD29

d)

CD61

15.

Where in the body does negative selection of T-cells occur?

a)

lymph nodes

b)

bone marrow

c)

thymus

d)

spleen

16.

A 32-year-old man sustains a penetrating injury to his left eye while working with metal tools. Several weeks later, he develops blurred vision, photophobia, and pain in both eyes. Examination reveals bilateral granulomatous uveitis. Which of the following best explains the pathogenesis of his ocular findings?

a)

Direct microbial infection of ocular tissues

b)

Deposition of immune complexes in the choroid

c)

Release of sequestered ocular antigens leading to autoimmune T cell–mediated inflammation

d)

Increased intraocular pressure causing ischemic damage

e)

Vascular occlusion due to embolic disease

17.

A 58-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue, paresthesias in her lower extremities, and a smooth, red tongue. Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fL, and undetectable serum vitamin B12. Her family history is notable for autoimmune thyroid disease in her mother. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of her condition?

a)

impaired folate absorption in the jejunum

b)

defective synthesis of globin chains

c)

immune complex deposition in parietal cells

d)

antibodies against intrinsic factor

18.

Which of the following autoantibodies is most specific for the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Rheumatoid factor (RF)

b)

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody

c)

Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

d)

Anti-double stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibody

e)

Anti-histone antibody

19.

Which of the following autoantibodies is the most sensitive serologic marker for the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

a)

Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibody

b)

Anti-Smith (anti-Sm) antibody

c)

Anti-nucleosome antibody

d)

Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

e)

Anti-Ro/SSA antibody

20.

A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive proximal muscle weakness and a violaceous, scaly rash over the dorsal aspects of her metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints. She also has a violaceous discoloration with periorbital edema. Laboratory studies reveal elevated creatine kinase and aldolase. Which of the following findings is most specific for her diagnosis?

a)

Presence of anti-Jo-1 autoantibodies

b)

Endomysial inflammation on muscle biopsy

c)

Gottron’s papules and heliotrope rash

d)

Absence of cutaneous findings

e)

Anti-SRP autoantibodies

21.

A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive skin thickening involving her trunk, upper arms, and thighs over the past 6 months. She reports Raynaud phenomenon, dysphagia, and new onset dyspnea on exertion. Physical examination reveals sclerodactyly, digital pitting scars, and diffuse induration of the skin above the elbows and knees. Pulmonary function testing demonstrates a restrictive pattern, and high-resolution CT of the chest shows interstitial lung disease. Laboratory studies reveal a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) with a speckled pattern. Which autoantibody is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

a)

Anti-centromere antibody

b)

Anti-histone antibody

c)

Anti-topoisomerase I (Scl-70) antibody

d)

Anti-U1 RNP antibody

e)

Anti-double stranded DNA antibody

22.

A 5-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father because of coughing and difficulty breathing that began after playing in a field of newly cut hay. He has no history of major medical illness. He is afebrile, and his respirations are 30/min. His physical examination shows labored respirations, intercostal muscle retractions, a prolonged expiratory phase, and diffuse wheezes. Which of the following conditions has a mechanism most similar to the one most likely responsible for this patient’s findings?

a)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

b)

Arthus reaction

c)

Goodpasture syndrome

d)

Shellfish allergy

e)

Tuberculosis skin test response

23.

A 56-year-old woman develops fever and decreased urine output 1 hour after receiving an unrelated-donor kidney transplant. Her blood type is B, Rh-positive. Records were reviewed and the donor was seen to have blood type A, Rh-negative. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of transplant rejection that is occurring in this patient?

a)

donor macrophages

b)

donor T cells

c)

recipient T cells

d)

recipient preformed anti-donor antibodies

e)

donor preformed anti-recipient antibodies

24.

A 48-year-old man with a transplanted kidney comes to the hospital because of body aches, low-grade fever, and reduced urine volume for the past 4 days. He underwent uncomplicated cadaveric kidney transplant 3 weeks ago. Urinalysis shows no bacteria or crystals. His serum creatinine is 2.8 mg/dL, increased from 1.7 mg/dL in the immediate postoperative period. A biopsy of the transplanted kidney is shown. Which of the following markers is most likely to be found on the surface of the cells that are causing the depicted damage to tubular cells?

a)

CD34

b)

CD8

c)

CD14

d)

CD20

e)

CD27

25.

A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Three months ago, she underwent heart transplantation for restrictive cardiomyopathy and was started on transplant rejection prophylaxis. Her pulse is 76/min and blood pressure is 148/82 mm Hg. Physical examination shows enlargement of the gum tissue. There is a well-healed scar on her chest. Serum studies show hyperlipidemia. The physician recommends removing a drug that decreases T cell activation by inhibiting the transcription of interleukin-2 from the patient's treatment regimen and replacing it with a different medication. What is the medication that you are wanting to replace?

a)

Sirolimus

b)

Prednisolone

c)

Tacrolimus

d)

Cyclosporine

e)

Azathioprine

26.

Which child would be the best donor for the father? for the mother?

a)

Child 2; Child 1

b)

Child 1 or 2; Child 3

c)

Child 1 or 2; Child 2

d)

Child 3; Child 2

e)

Child 1 or 2; Child 1

27.

A 22-year-old man comes to the office with a rash, itchiness over his palms and soles, and diarrhea for 3 weeks. He recently received an allogeneic donor bone marrow transplant for treatment of his leukemia. On physical examination, a maculopapular rash is noted over his neck, shoulders, abdomen, palms, and soles (as shown in the photograph). Laboratory studies show aspartate aminotransferase of 432 U/L, alanine aminotransferase of 356 U/L, alkaline phosphatase of 400 U/L, and bilirubin of 3 mg/dL. Which of the following events likely led to the patient’s condition?

a)

Failed restoration of cell counts

b)

Transplantation 5 weeks ago

c)

Immediate post-operative complication

d)

Reaction to blood type incompatibility

28.

In preparation for a blood transfusion, ABO testing on whole blood from an uncharacterized donor and recipient is performed. In the five trials, the antibodies (anti-A, anti-B, anti-D) or RBCs (A or B type) are added separately to whole blood samples from a control B-positive subject (B+), the donor, and the recipient. Each whole blood sample is then observed for the presence of agglutination after addition of the antibodies. The results are shown in the chart. Which of the following pairs best represents the blood types for donor and recipient?

a)

O- donor, A+ recipient

b)

AB- donor, A+ recipient

c)

A+ donor, O- recipient

d)

AB+ donor, B- recipient

e)

B- donor, AB+ recipient

29.

Which of the following transfusion reactions is NOT typically associated with fever?

a)

hemolytic transfusion reaction

b)

anaphylactic reaction

c)

transfusion-related acute lung injury

d)

bacterial/septic transfusion reactions

30.

Which types of cancer can be prevented with a vaccination? 

a)

cervical and liver

b)

colon and leukemia

c)

lymphoma and liver

d)

lung and cervical

31.

A 2-week-old male presents with recurrent fungal and viral infections. Physical exam reveals a small mandible, low-set ears, and congenital heart defects. Laboratory studies show profoundly decreased circulating T lymphocytes but normal B and NK cell numbers.

Which of the following best explains this immunodeficiency?

a)

Failure of thymic epithelial cell development due to TBX1 mutation

b)

Loss of RAG1/2 function preventing V(D)J recombination

c)

Deficiency of terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

d)

Impaired TAP transporter preventing peptide loading onto MHC I

32.

A 10-year-old boy presents with recurrent bacterial and viral infections. Genetic testing shows a mutation in the WAS gene, which encodes the actin cytoskeleton regulator. Which immunologic process is most directly impaired?

a)

MHC class I peptide loading in the ER

b)

Formation of the immunological synapse between T cells and APCs

c)

V(D)J recombination during thymocyte maturation

d)

Cytotoxic T cell perforin-mediated killing

33.

A patient develops chronic graft-versus-host disease after bone marrow transplantation. Flow cytometry reveals reduced CD4+CD25+FoxP3+ cells. Which mechanism best describes the normal function of these missing cells?

a)

Direct killing of viral-infected cells via perforin and granzymes

b)

Secretion of IL-10 and TGF-β to suppress autoreactive T cells

c)

Enhancing CD8+ T cell expansion via IL-2 production

d)

Activating macrophages through IFN-γ release

34.

A 35-year-old man undergoes kidney transplantation. He is prescribed sirolimus to prevent rejection. Which step in T cell activation is most directly inhibited by this drug?

a)

Activation of calcineurin and NFAT-mediated IL-2 transcription

b)

Costimulation via B7-CD28 interaction

c)

Progression of T cells from G1 to S phase in response to IL-2 signaling

d)

Peptide loading onto MHC II molecules

35.

A 6-year-old boy has recurrent bacterial sinus and ear infections. Flow cytometry shows normal counts of T and B cells, but sequencing of his immunoglobulin genes reveals markedly reduced receptor diversity. Which enzyme defect best explains this finding?

a)

Activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID)

b)

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

c)

Recombination-activating gene 1 (RAG1)

d)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

36.

A 12-year-old girl presents with recurrent sinopulmonary infections. Labs show elevated IgM but markedly reduced IgG, IgA, and IgE. Flow cytometry reveals normal B and T cell counts. Genetic testing shows a mutation in activation-induced cytidine deaminase (AID).

Which process is defective in this patient?

a)

T cell positive selection

b)

Class switching

c)

V(D)J recombination in pre-B cells

d)

N-region diversification

37.

An investigator who is studying a particular primary immunodeficiency disorder performs lymph node biopsies on patients with this disorder and compares the findings with those of healthy subjects. A photomicrograph of the cross-section of the lymph node obtained from a healthy volunteer is shown. The investigator notes that the region indicated by the arrow is absent in patients affected by the immunodeficiency disorder. Which of the following processes most likely occurs in this region? ​

a)

T cell activation

b)

Macrophage activation

c)

Negative selection

d)

Isotype switching

38.

Stromal cells are important for the development of B-cells due to their secretion of __? treatment

a)

IL-4

b)

IL-7

c)

IL-10

d)

IL-21

39.

Which of the following is true about large pre-B cells? ​

a)

The heavy chain is VDJ rearranged and the light chain is V-J rearranging​

b)

The heavy chain has VDJ rearranged and the light chain has VJ rearranged

c)

The heavy chain has VDJ rearranged and the light chain is not rearranged

d)

The heavy chain has DJ rearrangement and the light chain is germline

40.

An activated B cell located in the spleen binds an antigen and is activated via cytokines from a nearby T cell. An enzyme is then expressed in the B cell, which causes random nucleotides to be changed in the B cell receptor variable region. Subsequent generations of daughter cells of this B cell develop progressively stronger binding to this antigen. Which of the following correctly describes this process?

a)

MHC binding

b)

isotype switching

c)

peripheral tolerance

d)

affinity maturation

41.

A 30-year-old woman gives birth to a newborn with jaundice and anemia. The mother had one previous pregnancy, which resulted in no abnormalities. ​

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the newborn's condition?​

a)

Maternal Ab transfer against A Ag​

b)

Maternal Ab transfer against Rh Ag

c)
  1. Maternal infection with CMV​

d)

Maternal diabetes mellitus

42.

Which of the following is not a contraindication for breastfeeding?​

a)

Diabetes

b)

Influenza virus

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus

d)

Alcohol use