WorksheetsISD2-P2
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 57mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Amount of complement serum that can cause hemolysis of the 50% of a standardized concentration of antibody-sensitized sheep RBC
a)
CH50 Assay
b)
AH50 Assay
c)
Nephelometry, immunoturbidimetry, and RID
d)
Complement Fixation Test
2.
50% point is used because this is when the change in lytic activity per unit change in complement is at maximum
a)
CH50 Assay
b)
AH50 Assay
c)
Nephelometry, immunoturbidimetry, and RID
d)
Complement Fixation Test
3.
Magnesium chloride and ethylene glycol tetraacetic acid (EGTA)
a)
CH50 Assay
b)
AH50 Assay
c)
Nephelometry, immunoturbidimetry, and RID
d)
Complement Fixation Test
4.
Traditional concentration tests
a)
CH50 Assay
b)
AH50 Assay
c)
Nephelometry, immunoturbidimetry, and RID
d)
Complement Fixation Test
5.
2 systems involved for complement fixation
✓ Test system/Bacteriolytic system
✓ Indicator system/hemolytic system
✓ Reporting: Highest dilution showing no hemolysis
✓ Positive: RED CELLS ARE NOT LYSED
✓Negative: RED CELLS ARE LYSED
a)
CH50 Assay
b)
AH50 Assay
c)
Nephelometry, immunoturbidimetry, and RID
d)
Complement Fixation Test
6.
Chemical messengers that regulate the immune system, orchestrating both innate and adaptive response to infection
a)
Cytokines
b)
Stimuli
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Redundancy
7.
Cytokines are induced in response to the binding of stimuli, such as bacterial lipopolysaccharides, flagellin, or other bacterial products, to specific receptors or through the recognition of foreign antigens by host lymphocytes
a)
Cytokines
b)
Stimuli
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Redundancy
8.
A single cytokine that can have many different actions
a)
Cytokines
b)
Stimuli
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Redundancy
9.
Different cytokines activate some of the same pathways and genes
a)
Cytokines
b)
Stimuli
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Redundancy
10.
Cytokines often act in networks, if the effects complement and enhance each other
a)
Synergistic reaction
b)
Antagonism
c)
Cytokine storm
11.
A cytokine that may counteract the action of another cytokine
a)
Synergistic reaction
b)
Antagonism
c)
Cytokine storm
12.
A massive overproduction and dysregulation of cytokines produced by hyperstimulation of the immune response or hypercytokinemia
a)
Synergistic reaction
b)
Antagonism
c)
Cytokine storm
13.
It may lead to shock, multi organ failure, or even death
a)
Synergistic reaction
b)
Antagonism
c)
Cytokine storm
14.
affecting the same cell that secreted it
a)
Autocrine
b)
Paracrine
c)
Endocrine
15.
affecting a target cell in close proximity
a)
Autocrine
b)
Paracrine
c)
Endocrine
16.
systemic activities
a)
Autocrine
b)
Paracrine
c)
Endocrine
17.
TNF-α
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
18.
IL-1
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
19.
IL-6
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
20.
IFN-γ
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
21.
TGF- β
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
22.
IL-10
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
23.
IL-13
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
24.
IL-35
a)
Major inflammatory cytokines
b)
Major anti-inflammatory cytokines
25.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is Secreted by: Monocytes, macrophages, DCs
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
26.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is Secreted by: Monocytes, macrophages, neutrophils, NK cells, activated T cells
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
27.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is Secreted by: Monocytes, macrophages, endothelial cells, Th2 cells
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
28.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is Secreted by: T cells, macrophages, other cell types
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
29.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is Secreted by: Macrophages, DCs, virally infected cells
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
30.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity involves PROTECTS CELLS AGAINST VIRUSES, increases class I MHC expression, and activates NK cells?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
31.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity involves Inhibition of both T and B cell proliferation, induction of IgA, inhibition of macrophages?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
32.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity involves Initiation of the acute phase response, and ACTIVATION OF B AND T CELLS?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
33.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity involves Inflammation, fever, initiation of the acute phase response, DEATH OF TUMOR CELLS?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
34.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity involves Inflammation, FEVER, and initiation of the acute phase response?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
35.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is an Endogenous pyrogen?
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
36.
Which cytokine associated with innate immunity is a Renal stone marker
a)
Interlekin-1β
b)
Tumor necrosis factor-α
c)
Interleukin-6
d)
Transforming growth factor-β
e)
Interferon-α, Interferon-β
37.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted by Th2 cells?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
38.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted by Th2 cells and mast cells?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
39.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted by Th2 cells only?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
40.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted by Th2 cells, macrophages, and monocytes?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
41.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted by Th1 cells, CD8+ cells, NK cells?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
42.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is secreted only by T cells?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
43.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity is known as T-cell growth factor?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
44.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity involves Growth and proliferation of T and B cells, NK cells activation and proliferation?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
45.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity involves Promotion of Th2 differentiation, and stimulation of B cells to switch to IgE production?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
46.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity involves Eosinophil generation and activation, B cell differentiation?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
47.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity involves Suppression of Th2 cells, inhibition of antigen presentation, and inhibition of IFN-γ?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
48.
Which of the following cytokines associated with adaptive immunity involves Activation of macrophages, increased expression of class I and II MHC molecules, and increased antigen presentation?
a)
Interleukin-2
b)
Interleukin-4
c)
Interleukin-5
d)
Interleukin-10
e)
Interferon-γ
49.
Anaphylactic
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
50.
Immediate; happens within 30 to 60 minutes
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
51.
Immune mediator is IgE
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
52.
Antigen is heterologous only
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
53.
Antibodymediated cytotoxic
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
54.
Immune mediator is IgG or IgM
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
55.
Cell surface is INSOLUBLE autologous or heterologous
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
56.
Cell surface is SOLUBLE autologous or heterologous
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
57.
Complex mediated
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
58.
Immune complex
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
59.
Cell-mediated or Delayed type
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
60.
Delayed hypersensitivity
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
61.
Autologous or heterologous
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
62.
Immediate
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
63.
Which of the following is NOT involved in classical?
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
64.
Which of the following is involved in classical?
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
65.
Effector cells of this hypersensitivity include basophils and mast cells
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
66.
Effector cells of this hypersensitivity include RBCs, WBCs, Platelets
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
67.
Effector cells of this hypersensitivity include RBCs, WBCs, Platelets
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
68.
Effector cells of this hypersensitivity include Host tissue cells
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
69.
Effector cells of this hypersensitivity include Macrophages, T cells
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
70.
Immune mechanism of this hypersensitivity include releasing cytokines
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
71.
Immune mechanism of this hypersensitivity include Deposits of antigen-antibody complexes
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
72.
Immune mechanism of this hypersensitivity include Cytolysis due to antibody and complement
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
73.
Immune mechanism of this hypersensitivity include Release of mediators like mast cells and basophils
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
74.
Anaphylaxis
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
75.
Pollen grains
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
76.
Bee sting
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
77.
Hives
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
78.
Urticaria
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
79.
Asthma
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
80.
Food allergies
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
81.
Hay fever
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
82.
Transfusion reactions
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
83.
HDN
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
84.
Serum sickness
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
85.
Contact dermatitis
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
86.
Tuberculin test
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
87.
antigen is injected into the skin of an individual who has circulating antibody of that specificity. Immune complexes are formed and deposit on the walls of blood vessels, activating complement. It can be seen in humans following booster injections with Tetanus, diphtheria, and measles
a)
Serum sickness
b)
Atopy
c)
Arthus reaction
d)
Urticaria
88.
refers to inherited tendency to develop classic allergic responses to naturally occurring inhaled or ingested allergens.
a)
Serum sickness
b)
Atopy
c)
Arthus reaction
d)
Urticaria
89.
Farmer's lung disease
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
90.
Pneumonitis
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
91.
Other autoimmune disorders
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
92.
RA
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
93.
SLE
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
94.
Arthus reaction
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
95.
Myasthenia gravis
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
96.
Grave's disease
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
97.
Goodpasture's syndrome
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
98.
AIHA
a)
Type I Hypersensitivity
b)
Type II Hypersensitivity
c)
Type III Hypersensitivity
d)
Type IV Hypersensitivity
99.
What in vivo skin test is the most common and uses a small amount of antigen?
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
100.
What in vivo skin test is more sensitive and uses larger amount of antigen?
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
101.
What in vitro test is a competitive assay?
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
102.
radioimmunoassay for determining Total IgE
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
103.
Solid phase and nephelometry replaced this assay
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
104.
What in vitro test is a non-competitive assay?
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
105.
radioimmunoassay for determining specific IgE
a)
Percutaneous (Prick/Puncture Test)
b)
Intradermal test
c)
Radioimmunosorbent test
d)
Radioallergosorbent test
106.
Test for HDN, HTR, and Auto immune hemolytic anemia
a)
Direct Antiglobulin Test/Coomb's test
b)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
c)
Direct Fluorescence Examination
d)
Indirect Fluorescence Immunoassay
107.
Analyzing renal biopsy for Goodpasture's syndrome
a)
Direct Antiglobulin Test/Coomb's test
b)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
c)
Direct Fluorescence Examination
d)
Indirect Fluorescence Immunoassay
108.
Uses fluorophores for autoantibody detection
a)
Direct Antiglobulin Test/Coomb's test
b)
Indirect Antiglobulin test
c)
Direct Fluorescence Examination
d)
Indirect Fluorescence Immunoassay
109.
Gold standard test for contact dermatitis
a)
Patch test
b)
Mantoux test
c)
ELISA
d)
RAST
e)
RPR
110.
It uses a Mycobacteria tuberculosis antigen extract prepared from a purified filtrate of the organism’s cell wall, called a PPD
a)
Patch test
b)
Mantoux test
c)
ELISA
d)
RAST
e)
RPR
111.
On in vivo skin tests for type 1 hypersensitivity, a positive reaction is formation of a wheal ______ or greater in diameter than the negative control
a)
15 mm or greater
b)
10 mm or greater
c)
5 mm or greater
d)
3 mm or greater
112.
In mantoux test for testing type 4 hypersensitivity, what interpretation is considered positive in recent immigrants from high-prevalence countries, intravenous drug users, employees of healthcare, people with certain clinical conditions, and children younger than 5 years of age?
a)
15 mm or greater
b)
10 mm or greater
c)
5 mm or greater
d)
3 mm or greater
113.
In mantoux test for testing type 4 hypersensitivity, what interpretation is considered positive in persons who have HIV infection or other forms of immunosuppression, features on a chest X-ray consistent with tuberculosis, or recent contact with TB patients?
a)
15 mm or greater
b)
10 mm or greater
c)
5 mm or greater
d)
3 mm or greater
100 %
