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INS - Risk Transfer Accounting 1

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The accrual concept records transactions when cash is received or paid.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The going concern concept assumes a business will continue operating in the foreseeable future.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Materiality means all financial information must be disclosed, regardless of its impact.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The matching concept requires expenses to be recognized in the same period as the revenues they help generate.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

The entity concept allows mixing personal and business transactions in financial records.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Solvency measures the amount of cash available to a company.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Insurance service result is calculated by subtracting service expenses from insurance revenue.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Operating profit is a mandatory item in the income statement under IFRS.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Deferred income tax assets represent future tax benefits.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The Statement of Changes in Equity includes dividends paid and profit for the year.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Which concept assumes a business will not liquidate in the near future?

a)

Accrual

b)

Prudence

c)

Going Concern

d)

Materiality

12.

Which of the following is a current asset?

a)

Goodwill

b)

Property

c)

Debtors

d)

Investments

13.

Which stakeholder uses financial information to assess job security and wage potential?

a)

Directors

b)

Employees

c)

Creditors

d)

Regulators

14.

What does the Statement of Financial Position primarily show?

a)

Cash flow

b)

Profitability

c)

Net wealth

d)

Revenue

15.

Which item is NOT typically included in Other Comprehensive Income (OCI)?

a)

Reclassification of FVOCI investments

b)

Actuarial gains/losses

c)

Revenue from sales

d)

Fair value changes in investments

16.

Which financial statement shows how cash is generated and used?

a)

SOCI

b)

SOFP

c)

Statement of Changes in Equity

d)

Statement of Cash Flow

17.

Which of the following is a non-current liability?

a)

Trade creditors

b)

Bank overdraft

c)

Mortgages

d)

Debtors

18.

Which concept prevents overstating income or assets?

a)

Matching

b)

Prudence

c)

Consistency

d)

Accrual

19.

Which item represents shareholders’ residual interest in assets?

a)

Liabilities

b)

Equity

c)

Revenue

d)

Assets

20.

Which of the following is a qualitative information requirement?

a)

Solvency

b)

Profitability

c)

Liquidity

d)

Strategic objectives

21.

Solvency II was implemented to ensure insurers hold sufficient capital to reduce insolvency risk.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The Companies Act (Cap. 386) does not require companies to prepare financial statements.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The Delegated Regulation under Solvency II includes valuation of assets and liabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Insurance Rules Chapter 5 applies only to non-insurance entities.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The Own Risk and Solvency Assessment (ORSA) is part of Solvency II governance requirements.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

GAPEE is applicable to all insurance undertakings regardless of eligibility.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The SFCR must be disclosed annually and include business performance and capital management.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Matching adjustment applies to short-term insurance portfolios.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Tier 1 own funds must exceed 50% of eligible own funds for SCR.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Insurance Rules Chapter 17 governs the operation of cell companies in Malta.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which directive governs capital requirements for EU insurance companies?

a)

Solvency I

b)

Solvency II

c)

Basel III

d)

GDPR

32.

What is the purpose of the Delegated Regulation under Solvency II?

a)

To set tax rates

b)

To define insurance premiums

c)

To implement Solvency II

d)

To regulate banking

33.

Which act mandates companies to prepare accounts showing a true and fair view?

a)

Insurance Business Act

b)

Companies Act

c)

Insurance Distribution Act

d)

MFSA Act

34.

What is the confidence level used in SCR calculation?

a)

85%

b)

90%

c)

99.5%

d)

100%

35.

Which component is NOT part of technical provisions?

a)

Best Estimate

b)

Risk Margin

c)

Matching Adjustment

d)

Revenue Recognition

36.

Which principle guides investment decisions under Solvency II?

a)

Profit Maximisation

b)

Prudent Person

c)

Risk Aversion

d)

Market Timing

37.

What is the minimum capital requirement confidence level?

a)

99.5%

b)

85%

c)

75%

d)

100%

38.

Which report must be publicly disclosed annually?

a)

RSR

b)

ORSA

c)

SFCR

d)

QRT

39.

Which entity develops Regulatory Technical Standards?

a)

MFSA

b)

IASB

c)

EIOPA

d)

ESAs

40.

Which accounting framework is an alternative to IFRS for eligible entities?

a)

GAPSME

b)

GAPEE

c)

IAS

d)

GAAP