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Mental Health and Substance Use Quiz

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with PTSD reports sleeping only 3–4 hours and waking with panic from nightmares. What’s the best immediate psychoeducation point?

a)

Avoid naps; sleep restriction prevents nightmares.

b)

Limit evening fluids to reduce nocturia.

c)

Create a consistent wind‑down routine and avoid trauma content near bedtime.

d)

Add daily high‑intensity workouts at night.

2.

During a grounding exercise, which cue most directly targets dissociation in PTSD?

a)

Tell me the exact date of your trauma.

b)

Name five things you can see, four you can feel, three you can hear.

c)

Let’s analyze your cognitive distortions.

d)

Try deep sleep right now.

3.

A combat veteran says, “It should have been me.” Which response best addresses survivor guilt?

a)

You’re overreacting.

b)

Let’s explore how guilt fits with the facts of the event.

c)

Think about happier memories.

d)

We’ll avoid talking about guilt.

4.

Which is the safest early‑session exposure strategy for PTSD?

a)

Unplanned full trauma recounting in session 1

b)

Gradual, collaborative hierarchy with coping skills in place

c)

Immediate flooding without breaks

d)

Daily prolonged exposure homework before teaching relaxation

5.

A patient with panic‑level anxiety is hyperventilating. First priority?

a)

Offer long insight‑oriented interpretation

b)

Coach paced breathing and reduce environmental stimuli

c)

Confront the irrationality of panic

d)

Encourage vigorous exercise to “burn it off”

6.

A survivor of intimate partner violence (IPV) asks to switch to a female nurse. Best response?

a)

Assignments can’t change.

b)

Your doctor is a man, so this shouldn’t matter.

c)

I’ll re‑review assignments and arrange a female nurse.

d)

A male aide will do hygiene care instead.

7.

Which step most directly enhances immediate safety planning in IPV?

a)

Discuss long‑term therapy goals first

b)

Identify a code word with trusted contacts

c)

Ask the survivor to confront the partner tonight

d)

Instruct the survivor to stop using social media

8.

Priority documentation element after IPV disclosure?

a)

The nurse’s personal opinion of the partner

b)

Exact patient quotes and objective injury descriptions

c)

Speculation about legal guilt

d)

A promise to keep all information secret

9.

Which example best illustrates avolition?

a)

Inventing new words

b)

Marked lack of initiation for goal‑directed tasks

c)

Sensation that the body is unreal

d)

Pleasure in fewer activities

10.

A patient says, “The cat flat sat the bat—snip snap.” This is most consistent with:

a)

Clang associations

b)

Neologisms

c)

Thought insertion

d)

Perseveration

11.

The safest first response to possible command hallucinations is to:

a)

Ignore them to avoid reinforcing

b)

Ask, “What are the voices telling you to do?”

c)

Argue that voices aren’t real

d)

Increase environmental stimulation

12.

Which intervention best reduces paranoia‑related meal refusal on the unit?

a)

Offer sealed, single‑serve foods and allow some space

b)

Force the patient to eat at the group table

c)

Remove all choices

d)

Start insulin

13.

You observe word salad and extreme disorganization. What’s the priority milieu action?

a)

Group confrontation to increase reality testing

b)

One‑step, brief instructions in a low‑stimulus area

c)

Delayed responses to force patience

d)

Offer abstract tasks to build cognition

14.

Which change is most typical in acute mania rather than schizophrenia?

a)

Decreased need for sleep

b)

Negative symptoms

c)

Persistent auditory hallucinations without mood sx

d)

Long‑standing flat affect

15.

A patient on lithium develops 24 hours of vomiting and profuse diarrhea. What do you do?

a)

Continue lithium; replace fluids later

b)

Hold lithium and notify the provider now

c)

Double the dose to maintain level

d)

Start a diuretic

16.

Which snack fits acute mania nutrition goals?

a)

Salad and steak (sit‑down meal)

b)

Finger sandwiches and a smoothie

c)

Spaghetti with meatballs

d)

Broiled fish with asparagus

17.

Most reliable early indicator that a patient is “revving up” toward hypomania/mania?

a)

Reports feeling cold

b)

Sleeping 2–3 hours and “feeling great”

c)

Eating more vegetables

d)

Increased cooperation in groups

18.

Which limit‑setting approach is best for intrusive, high‑energy manic behavior?

a)

Stop it right now or you’ll lose all privileges.

b)

Clear, brief directions + immediate redirection to a quiet space

c)

Ignore the behavior

d)

Long explanations about unit rules

19.

Therapeutic lithium trough goal for maintenance in many adults is approximately:

a)

0.1–0.3 mEq/L

b)

0.4–0.6 mEq/L

c)

0.6–1.2 mEq/L

d)

2.0–3.0 mEq/L

20.

Classic opioid withdrawal triad includes:

a)

Severe respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, coma

b)

Lacrimation, yawning, piloerection

c)

Violent agitation, diaphoresis, hyperthermia only

d)

Visual scotomata and ataxia

21.

First medication step for a confused, malnourished patient with severe alcohol use who is N/V and hypoglycemic?

a)

IV glucose first

b)

Thiamine before glucose

c)

Haloperidol IM

d)

Naloxone IV

22.

Alcohol withdrawal typically begins within:

a)

2–4 days after last drink

b)

6–12 hours after last drink

c)

2 weeks after last drink

d)

Immediately after last sip

23.

Which finding most strongly suggests stimulant (cocaine/amphetamine) intoxication rather than opioid intoxication?

a)

Bradycardia, miosis, hypoventilation

b)

Euphoria, mydriasis, tachycardia, hypertension

c)

Hypothermia, bradypnea, pinpoint pupils

d)

Sedation, constipation

24.

Primary cause of cirrhosis emphasized in substance teaching:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Caffeine

c)

Cocaine

d)

Inhalants

25.

Which assessment raises red flags for refeeding syndrome during inpatient weight restoration?

a)

Rising phosphorus

b)

Hypophosphatemia with edema and arrhythmia risk

c)

Low fiber intake

d)

Increased thirst only

26.

Most consistent finding in anorexia nervosa (restricting type)?

a)

Tachycardia and hyperkalemia

b)

Bradycardia and lanugo

c)

Hirsutism and hypertension

d)

Polycythemia and fever

27.

For a patient who over‑exercises to purge calories, the most effective behavioral agreement is to:

a)

Allow exercise after each meal

b)

Replace exercise with scheduled nursing check‑ins when urges rise

c)

Ignore exercise because it reduces anxiety

d)

Praise weight loss to build alliance

28.

Best staff strategy to reduce splitting on the unit (e.g., “You’re the only good nurse”)?

a)

Rotate rules based on patient preference

b)

Unified, consistent team communication and limits

c)

Give extra exceptions to build trust

d)

Avoid discussing behavior in report

29.

Priority group‑therapy boundary for histrionic personality disorder:

a)

Encourage center‑stage storytelling without limits

b)

Enforce time limits and redirect attention‑seeking behavior

c)

Allow flirtatious behavior if consenting

d)

Let peers handle disruptions

30.

Which trait best fits antisocial personality disorder?

a)

Fear of abandonment with frantic efforts to avoid it

b)

Disregard for rights of others and lack of remorse

c)

Perfectionism, orderliness, control

d)

Social inhibition from fear of criticism

31.

A patient becomes verbally abusive and moves closer. The nurse’s first action?

a)

Speak slowly, low, and maintain ~2 arm’s‑length distance

b)

Threaten loss of privileges

c)

Block the exit

d)

Touch the patient’s shoulder to calm them

32.

In an acute crisis with flooded affect, which intervention comes first?

a)

Insight‑oriented therapy

b)

Ensure immediate safety, reduce stimuli, use short directives

c)

Assign extensive journaling

d)

Explore childhood roots

33.

Most specific bedside clue that favors delirium over dementia in a hospitalized elder?

a)

Months of gradual memory decline

b)

Acute onset with waxing/waning attention

c)

Long history of language difficulties

d)

Personality exaggeration over years

34.

Which room setup best supports a cognitively impaired inpatient?

a)

Windowless room with dim lighting

b)

Room next to a busy nurses’ station

c)

Room with personal belongings and clear day‑night cues

d)

Constantly rotating staff to increase stimulation

35.

Most concerning medication pattern for delirium risk in older adults?

a)

Stable SSRI at low dose

b)

Multiple anticholinergic meds and benzodiazepines

c)

Vitamin D supplementation

d)

Single daily acetaminophen

36.

Best initial response to sundowning (evening agitation) in dementia?

a)

Confront the delusion directly

b)

Increase evening stimulation

c)

Maintain routine, reduce evening stimuli, use night‑lights

d)

Remove clocks and calendars

37.

A patient with Alzheimer’s gives an inaccurate but confident story about the morning’s therapy. This is most consistent with:

a)

Lying

b)

Confabulation

c)

Delusion

d)

Perseveration

38.

Family education that best reduces agitation during ADLs in dementia:

a)

Offer many choices to enhance autonomy

b)

Use short, one‑step instructions and limit choices

c)

Test memory repeatedly to stimulate cognition

d)

Correct every error to maintain reality orientation

39.

Which behavior management tactic is most likely to escalate aggression in dementia?

a)

Distraction with a preferred activity

b)

Calm redirection to a quiet space

c)

Confrontation and arguing the facts

d)

Offering a rummage box

40.

Safest early step when an older adult abruptly becomes agitated and tries to leave the day room?

a)

Send a peer to follow them

b)

Assume attention‑seeking; ignore

c)

Follow to assess for immediate risk and de‑escalate

d)

Discuss with the group what just happened