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SZ, MD, and ICD

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 2hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SZ Symptom - [ ]: Blunted emotional expression

(a)  

2.

[ ]: Lack of motivation experienced by some with schizophrenia

(a)  

3.

[ ]: Lack of movement or speech experienced by some with schizophrenia

(a)  

4.

Impaired cognitive function: Reduced memory or [ ]

(a)  

5.

[ ] delusion: A strongly held belief that you are in danger because others are conspiring against you or pursuing you to cause harm

(a)  

6.

[ ] delusion: A strongly held belief that you are someone with special powers or special abilities, for example that you are a superhero

(a)  

7.

Delusion of [ ]: A strongly held belief that events in the environment are related to you, for example believing that a television programme is talking about you

(a)  

8.

For a diagnosis of schizophrenia, symptoms must have persisted for at least [ ] and not be due to another health condition

a)

1 month

b)

6 weeks

c)

2 months

d)

3 months

9.

Schizophrenia is marked by [ ] distorted beliefs called delusions

(a)  

10.

The Freeman et al study sought to specifically investigate whether non-clinical Ps would experience [ ] in VR

a)

persecutory ideation

b)

auditory hallucinations

c)

flattened affect

d)

avolition

11.

The Freeman et al study sought to specifically investigate whether [ ] Ps would experience persecutory ideation in VR

(a)  

12.

The sample of the Freeman study was [ ] non-clinical participants.

(a)  

13.

All the Ps in the Freeman study were

a)

students or staff at University College London

b)

gamblers

c)

patients at Croatian hospitals

d)

schizophrenic patients in the UK

14.

All the Ps in the Freeman study were students or staff at

(a)  

15.

The Sensky study included a follow-up evaluation after [ ], after which the CBT group showed continued improvement while the befriending group's benefit had disappeared.

a)

9 months

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

16.

The Sensky study on the effectiveness of CBT for SZ used which experimental design?

a)

independent measures

b)

repeated measures

c)

matched pairs

17.

One of the most common side effects of ECT is

a)

memory loss

b)

weight gain

c)

cardiac issues

d)

tardive dyskinesia

18.

If SZ were TRULY caused only by genetic factors, then identical twins of those with SZ would develop it 100% of the time. This suggests there is at least some [ ] aspect to the disorder as well.

(a)  

19.

Crucially, the Ps in the Sensky study were assessed by [ ] raters who did not know which condition they had been in (CBT or Befriending), and thus could not demonstrate bias.

(a)  

20.

Genetic explanations in particular are often criticized as [ ] because they suggest that most people with certain genetic mutations will inevitably develop disorders.

(a)  

21.

Biological explanations (and treatments) are often criticized as [ ] because they focus on ONE aspect of SZ, the dopamine abnormality or genetics, ignoring environmental and situational factors which may contribute to the disorder.

(a)  

22.

Large trials like the RCT into the effectiveness of antipsychotics demonstrate a(n) [ ] approach, attempting to make generalisations about effective treatments based on large sets of data.

(a)  

23.

CBT as a treatment may be said to take a(n) [ ] approach, as the therapy tailored to addressing patients' individual goals and experiences.

(a)  

24.

The goal of Electro-Convulsive Therapy is to use electricity to induce [ ], which somehow treat SZ symptoms in some people.

(a)  

25.

ECT stands for [ ].

(a)  

26.

The Sensky example study investigated the effectiveness of CBT for SZ by comparing results to a control group who received [ ].

(a)  

27.

Randomised control trials shown that [ ]% of SZ Ps taking anti-psychotics show significant improvement within 4-6 weeks.

(a)  

28.

Typical anti-psychotics caused some Ps to experience [2 words], or involuntary muscle spasms and abnormal movements of the face and body.

(a)  

29.

Evidence for dopamine hypothesis: Patients with [ ] disease, who take synthetic dopamine, may show symptoms similar to SZ if their dosage is too high.

(a)  

30.

The semi-structured interview for Freeman was videotaped, then rated for persecutory content on a [ ] point scale by Freeman, a clinical psychologist.

(a)  

31.

Freeman: Ps took the Brief Symptom Inventory, The Paranoia Scale, The Anxiety Questionnaire, The Sense of Presence Questionnaire, and the [ ] questionnaire, written by the Rs.

(a)  

32.

The VR-Paranoia scale had [ ] total items, each rated on a 4 point scale from 0-3.

(a)  

33.

The VR-Paranoia scale had 15 total items, each rated on a 4 point scale from [ ].

(a)  

34.

Freeman: Ps took the The Paranoia Scale, The State Anxiety Questionnaire, The Sense of Presence Questionnaire, the VR-Paranoia Questionnaire, and the 53 question [ ].

(a)  

35.

Freeman: Ps were NOT told that the research was investigating persecutory ideation in order to avoid [ ] them to experience the thoughts.

(a)  

36.

Freeman conclusion: Higher levels of [ ] and anxiety were significantly correlated with higher levels of persecutory thoughts in VR.

(a)  

37.

Freeman conclusion: Higher levels of interpersonal sensitivity and [ ] were significantly correlated with higher levels of persecutory thoughts in VR.

(a)  

38.

These 5 items from Freeman's VR-Paranoia Scale measured VR-[ ].

(a)  

39.

These 5 items from Freeman's VR-Paranoia Scale measured VR-[ ].

(a)  

40.

Freeman found [ ] correlation between Ps' VR-persecution and VR-reference scores.

a)

a positive

b)

a negative

c)

no

41.

Freeman found [ ] correlation between Ps' VR-Paranoia scores and the semi-structured interview.

a)

a positive

b)

a negative

c)

no

42.

Freeman found [ ] correlation between Ps' VR-persecution and VR-positive scores.

a)

a positive

b)

a negative

c)

no

43.

Freeman found [ ] significant correlation between Ps' VR-persecution and Paranoia Scale Scores.

a)

a positive

b)

a negative

c)

no

44.

Ps demonstrated, on average, a [ ] degree of immersion or sense of presence in VR.

a)

high

b)

moderate

c)

low

45.

Freeman conclusion: People DO [ ] mental states to VR characters, usually positive ones, but sometimes persecutory.

(a)  

46.

The most common views of the avatars in Freeman were

a)

positive

b)

persecutory

c)

reference

47.

Freeman aim: To investigate whether non-clinical Ps would experience persecutory ideation in VR, AND which cognitive or emotional [ ] might predict the likelihood of developing PI.

(a)  

48.

Another key positive symptom of SZ is an experience of [ ], passivity, or control - the belief that your thoughts or actions are being controlled by someone or something external.

(a)  

49.

A key positive symptom of SZ is thought [ ], or the inability to think (or speak) in an organised manner, which often gives rise to "word salad."

(a)  

50.

The most common hallucinations in SZ are

a)

auditory

b)

visual

c)

tactile

d)

olfactory

51.

SZ is a [ ] disorder, which involves a break with reality.

(a)  

52.

The biochemical explanation for SZ is that positive symptoms are caused by

a)

excess dopamine in the mid-brain

b)

reduced dopamine in the mid-brain

c)

excess dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

d)

reduced dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

53.

The biochemical explanation for SZ is that negative symptoms may be caused by

a)

excess dopamine in the mid-brain

b)

reduced dopamine in the mid-brain

c)

excess dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

d)

reduced dopamine in the pre-frontal cortex

54.

Another cognitive explanation for SZ is that Ps show impaired [3 words], which causes them to struggle to interpret the intentions of others and may contribute to feelings of persecution and paranoia.

(a)  

55.

If you have a fraternal twin with SZ, you have a [ ]% chance of developing it.

(a)  

56.

If you have an identical twin with SZ, you have a [ ]% chance of developing it.

(a)  

57.

Frith's cognitive explanation for schizophrenia suggests the central issue is abnormality of [ ].

(a)  

58.

The best evidence for the genetic explanation of SZ is that monozygotic twins have a higher [ ] rate than fraternal ones.

(a)  

59.

In his study of 30,000 twin pairs in Denmark, Hilker estimated a [ ]% heritability rate for SZ.

(a)  

60.

A [ ] is a chemical which enables communication between neurons (at synapse)

(a)  

61.

Developed in the 1990s as a treatment for SZ

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

62.

Treat primarily positive symptoms

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

63.

May treat both positive and negative symptoms

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

64.

Block dopamine activity for only a short period of time, reducing side effects

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

65.

May cause weight gain, drowsiness, or difficulties in concentration

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

66.

May cause extrapyramidal symptoms / tardive dyskinesia (involuntary muscle spasms and abnormal face and body movements)

a)

Typical

b)

Atypical anti-psychotics

67.

Which best describes the central result of the Sensky study?

a)

While Ps receiving both CBT and BF theory showed improvement immediately after treatment, only the CBT group's improvement continued 9 months later.

b)

While both CBT and BF patients showed improvement immediately after treatment, only the BF group's improvement continued 9 months later.

c)

Neither group still showed substantial improvement of symptoms at the 9 month follow-up.

d)

Immediately after treatment, the CBT group showed much more improvement compared to the BF group.

68.

How many avatars were used in the Freeman study?

a)

3 at one table, 2 at another

b)

3 at each table

c)

4 at one table, 2 at another

d)

2 at each table

69.

Ps in the Freeman study explored the VR situation for [ ] minutes.

(a)  

70.

The Freeman study showed

a)

no significant differences in persecution scores between males and females

b)

significant differences in persecution scores between males and females

c)

minor differences in persecution score between males and females

71.

The first-line treatment for SZ is

a)

a typical anti-psychotic

b)

an atypical anti-psychotic

c)

ECT

d)

CBT

72.

Ps undergoing ECT for acute SZ will be given anesthetic and a [ ].

(a)  

73.

ECT is now applied to only one side of the brain, or [ ], to reduce side effects like memory loss.

(a)  

74.

ECT side effects include: [ ], dizziness, memory loss, confusion

(a)  

75.

Typically, CBT for SZ will last 12-[ ] weekly sessions

(a)  

76.

During CBT, Ps are taught to recognize and [ ] their own delusions, often "reality-testing" them

(a)  

77.

While drug therapy may not reduce hallucinations completely, through CBT Ps can learn strategies to ignore or [ ] them

(a)  

78.

CBT is a talk therapy that begins with forming a [ ] therapeutic relationship

(a)  

79.

The Freeman study used [ ] design.

a)

independent measures

b)

repeated measures

c)

matched pairs

d)

a non-experimental

80.

Freeman hypothesized that [ ] would predict persecutory thoughts in VR.

a)

paranoia and emotional distress

b)

paranoia and interpersonal sensitivity

c)

anxiety and paranoia

d)

anxiety and interpersonal sensitivity

81.

Which therapy is based on the philosophy of Stoicism and targets changing underlying attitudes?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

82.

Which therapy is based on ABCDE model?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

83.

In which therapy does the therapist "forcefully dispute" and question irrational beliefs (a more directive method)?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

84.

Which therapy begins with explaining the Cognitive Triad theory of depression to the patient?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

85.

Which involves training patients to observe and record their thoughts, then eventually be able to recognize irrational or inaccurate beliefs themselves?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

86.

Which therapy focuses on ANTs and maladaptive thinking patterns?

a)

Ellis's Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy

b)

Seligman's Attributional Style Therapy

c)

Beck's Cognitive Restructuring

d)

Electroconvulsive Therapy

87.

The key point of Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy is that the consequence is most importantly a result of the person's [ ] about the event, rather than the event iself.

(a)  

88.

Ellis says that we create a [ ] to our emotions as a result of our irrational beliefs about bad things that happen.

(a)  

89.

The "A" in ABCDE is the [ ] that a P experiences.

(a)  

90.

The "C" in ABCDE is the emotional and behavioral [ ] a P experiences as a result of their irrational beliefs.

(a)  

91.

The "D" in ABCDE is forcefully [ ] those irrational beliefs.

(a)  

92.

The "E" in ABCDE refers to the [ ] that the P learns to form.

(a)  

93.

Which were the first anti-depressants developed in the 1950s?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

94.

Which anti-depressants focus on increasing levels of serotonin and norepinephrine (and lots of others) by preventing them from being re-absorbed?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

95.

Which anti-depressants are most frequently prescribed because they typically have the fewest side effects?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

96.

Which anti-depressants specifically target an enzyme responsible for breaking down serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

97.

Which anti-depressants specifically may interact with other medications such as pain meds or other anti-depressants, causing headaches or high blood pressure?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

98.

Which anti-depressants focus specifically on preventing serotonin from being reabsorbed and broken down at synaptic crossings?

a)

tricyclics

b)

SSRIs

c)

MAOIs

d)

CAMPs

99.

Recent evidence suggests that anti-depressants are more effective for [ ] depression.

a)

moderate to severe

b)

mild

100.

The MA in MAOI stands for [one word]

(a)  

101.

The O in MAOI stands for

(a)  

102.

SSRI stands for

(a)  

103.

The Seligman (example) study on Attributional Style included

a)

Ps with unipolar and bipolar disorder

b)

only Ps with unipolar disorder

c)

only Ps with bipolar disorder

d)

schizophrenic patients

104.

Ps with a more negative attributional style had [ ] scores on the BDI

a)

higher

b)

lower

c)

no correlation

105.

People with negative/pessimistic attributional style believed that the causes of bad things that happened to them would last for a long time, aka they would be [ ].

(a)  

106.

People with negative/pessimistic attributional style believed that the causes of bad things that happened to them would affect many areas of their lives, aka they would be [ ].

(a)  

107.

Seligman believed that depression stems from a feeling of a lack of control over outcomes, which he called [ ].

(a)  

108.

Seligman believed depression could be explained by your [ ] style - or how you explained the bad events that happened to you.

(a)  

109.

All the Ps in the Oruc study were from what country?

(a)  

110.

Cognitive Restructuring focuses on how [ ] thinking processes underpin [ ] (same word) behavioural and unhealthy emotional outcomes.

(a)  

111.

Rather than focusing on the underlying philosophy, as Ellis's REBT did, Beck's cognitive restructuring focused more teaching Ps to identify and counter their ANTs, or [ ].

(a)  

112.

REBT stands for [ ] Behavioural Therapy

(a)  

113.

Oruc chose the 5-HT2C gene because it encodes for [ ] receptors.

(a)  

114.

The CONTROL group in Oruc was [ ] Ps without bipolar disorder, recruited from the hospital staff and friends.

(a)  

115.

The bipolar group in Oruc was [ ] Ps with BP-I (25 females, 17 males).

(a)  

116.

Each item on the BDI includes [ ] statements, and Ps choose the one that best describes how they have been feeling during the past 2 weeks.

(a)  

117.

Each item on the BDI is rated from [ ].

(a)  

118.

The Beck Depression Inventory has [ ] items.

(a)  

119.

A depressive episode is a period of at least [ ] during which there is almost daily depressed mood or decreased interest in activities.

a)

1 week

b)

2 weeks

c)

1 month

d)

6 months

120.

A diagnosis of depressive disorder can only be made if the individual has never experienced a [ ] episode, as this would indicate bipolar disorder. [The answer is the simplest one-word answer.]

(a)  

121.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with sleep, appetite, mood, and anxiety?

(a)  

122.

Which neurotransmitter is associated with motivation and pleasure?

(a)  

123.

The Oruc study gives evidence to which side of the debate?

a)

determinism

b)

free will

124.

In the Oruc sample, Ps with bipolar were not significantly more likely to show 5-HT and 5-HT2C polymorphisms compared to the control group. But when they analyzed separately by [ ], a significant difference appeared.

(a)  

125.

The experimental design for Oruc was

a)

matched pairs

b)

independent measures

c)

repeated measures

126.

Genetic variations are also known as

(a)  

127.

Genetic factors are believed to account for up to [ ]% of bipolar, but identifying specific genes is difficult.

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

128.

The aim of the Oruc study was to investigate whether certain genes involved in the encoding for serotonin receptors could be involved in susceptibility to bipolar. These were the 5-HTT and [ ] genes.

(a)  

129.

Depressive symptoms include: low mood, loss of pleasure/interest in activities, difficulty [ ], feelings of worthlessness or guilt

(a)  

130.

Bipolar Type II is characterized by the presence of [ ]-manic episodes, where symptoms are less acute than in a manic episode.

(a)  

131.

Manic episodes last at least 1 week and are characterized by: Extreme mood (euphoric or irritable), high levels of activity/energy and self-esteem, rapid speech, and [ ] behavior.

(a)  

132.

The BDI is a [ ] test, meaning it attempts to quantify a complex mental process.

(a)  

133.

The BDI has high split-half reliability, as well as high [ ] with the Hamilton Depression Scale, another measure of depression.

(a)  

134.

A score of [ ] on the BDI is where severe depression starts.

a)

11

b)

21

c)

31

d)

41

135.

Beck created the [ ] to explain how Ps' negative views about themselves, the world, and the future reinforce their symptoms.

(a)  

136.

Beck believed that trauma or criticism in childhood could cause people to develop a negative [ ], or outlook on life, that caused them to form maladaptive thinking patterns.

(a)  

137.

Beck believed depression was reinforced by thought [ ], or maladaptive thinking patterns - such as catastrophising, selective thinking, personalising, and overgeneralisation.

(a)  

138.

It can take [ ] for people taking anti-depressants to see significant improvement.

a)

1-2 weeks

b)

2-4 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

6-8 weeks

139.

Oruc: Because serotonin is known to be [2 words], Rs re-analyzed the data by gender, finding there WAS a suggestive association for the polymorphisms in females only.

(a)  

140.

People with ICDs all experience an increase in tension or [ ] before they perform their undesirable behavior.

(a)  

141.

The K-SAS has 11 items rated on a [ ] scale.

(a)  

142.

The K-SAS has [ ] items.

(a)  

143.

The main measure for Kleptomania is the [ ].

(a)  

144.

The biological explanation for ICDs is [ ].

(a)  

145.

Behavioral Explanation: People develop an ICD as a result of [ ], especially if the reinforcement schedule is intermittent.

(a)  

146.

People develop an ICD as a result of operant conditioning, especially if the reinforcement schedule is [ ].

(a)  

147.

The cognitive explanation for ICDs is Miller's [ ] Theory.

(a)  

148.

According to the Feeling-State Theory, Ps experience an [ ] emotion while performing the behavior, causing the two to become linked.

(a)  

149.

Which treatment for ICD focuses on progressive muscle relaxation and visualizing leaving the situation without engaging in the undesirable behavior?

(a)  

150.

Imaginal desensitisation as a treatment for ICDs relies on reducing the physiological [ ] caused by someone's triggers.

(a)  

151.

Conditioning those with ICDs to associate their undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus is [ ].

(a)  

152.

Covert sensitisation for ICDs trains Ps to associate their undesirable behavior with a(n) [ ].

(a)  

153.

Covert sensitisation works on the principle of [ ].

(a)  

154.

The variable most strongly associated with positive treatment response for OAs was a [ ].

(a)  

155.

Clinically relevant treatment in the Grant study was defined as a [ ]% reduction in PG-YBOCS score.

(a)  

156.

The effectiveness of the OA treatment in the Grant study was measured by the change in [ ] score.

(a)  

157.

[ ]% of Ps received an active medication, in the Grant study of OAs.

(a)  

158.

The Grant study actually combined the results of two studies, one on [ ], and one on naltrexone.

(a)  

159.

Ps had to be on [ ] in order to be included in the Grant study on opiate antagonists.

(a)  

160.

To be included in the Grant study, Ps had to score a 5 or higher on the [ ] Gambling Screener.

(a)  

161.

The Grant sample was [ ] Ps with pathological gambling.

(a)  

162.

The Grant study set out to identify the [ ] associated with treatment outcome in pathological gambling subjects receiving opiate antagonists

(a)  

163.

The Grant key study investigated the factors that influenced the effectiveness of [ ] as treatment for pathological gambling.

(a)  

164.

A key part of both psychological therapies for ICDs is that the procedures need to practiced between sessions as [ ].

(a)  

165.

A key point of diagnosing ICDs is that the undesirable behaviors are performed with no discernible [ ].

(a)  

166.

Both cognitive-behavioral treatments for ICDs begin with progressive muscle relaxation exercises to help the Ps immerse themselves in the [ ].

(a)  

167.

Both cognitive-behavioral treatments for ICDs begin with [ ] exercises to help the Ps immerse themselves in the visualizations.

(a)  

168.

In the Glover study, a 56 year old kleptomaniac was successfully treated using covert sensitisation, specifically by pairing the idea of stealing with nausea and [ ].

(a)  

169.

[ ] were associated with a positive treatment outcome, but only among those taking higher doses.

a)

stronger urges to gamble

b)

family history of alcoholism

c)

age

d)

type of gambling

170.

In Grant, [ ] Ps were more likely to respond to the placebo.

(a)  

171.

A compulsive desire to light fires is known as

(a)  

172.

A compulsive desire to steal is known as

(a)  

173.

ICDs are associated with reduced levels of dopamine in the brain's reward system (the [ ]).

(a)  

174.

ICDs are characterized by a repeated inability to [ ] the impulse or urge to carry out a behavior that is rewarding in the short-term but has long-term negative consequences

(a)  

175.

To diagnose pyromania, the therapist must ensure there is no understandable motive, such as [ ], sabotage, or revenge

(a)  

176.

Performing the behavior provides [ ] from the affective arousal or tension Ps experience when facing a trigger.

(a)  

177.

The K-SAS measures thoughts, feeling, and [ ] related to stealing

(a)  

178.

Which group was not excluded from the Grant sample?

a)

Bipolar Type I and II

b)

Schizophrenic

c)

Anxiety

d)

Dementia

179.

Which group was NOT excluded from the Grant study?

a)

pregnant women

b)

people with an unstable medical illness

c)

drug users

d)

smokers

180.

Family history for Ps in the Grant study was gathered using

a)

PG-YBOCS

b)

semi-structured interviews

c)

K-SAS

d)

observations

181.

Psychosocial functioning was assessed in the Grant study using the [ ] Scale.

(a)  

182.

In the Glover (1985) example study, a 56 year old woman was successfully treated for kleptomania using [ ] which linked thinking about stealing with imagined feelings of nausea/vomiting.

a)

imaginal desensitisation

b)

covert sensitisation

c)

deconditioning

d)

systematic desensitisation

183.

First, Ps take part in a progress muscle relaxation procedure, then they pair aversive imagery (such as nausea/vomiting) with their impulsive behavior. This is known as

a)

imaginal desensitisation

b)

covert sensitisation

c)

deconditioning

d)

systematic desensitisation

184.

First, Ps take part in a progress muscle relaxation procedure, then they visualize themselves being exposed to a trigger for impulsive behaviors. They think about acting on the impulse, then picture themselves leaving the situation. This treatment is known as

a)

imaginal desensitisation

b)

covert sensitisation

c)

deconditioning

d)

systematic desensitisation

185.

Researchers in Grant et al hypothesized that WHICH group would respond better to the placebo?

a)

People with more severe PG

b)

People with less severe PG

c)

Younger people

d)

Older people

186.

Opiate antagonists work be reducing the response of the [ ] centre in the brain (located in the striatum).

(a)  

187.

The purpose of the Grant study was to understand why [ ]% of people with gambling disorder did NOT seem to respond to opiate antagonists.

a)

5-15%

b)

10-30%

c)

20-35%

d)

20-40%

188.

Which is NOT true of the feeling-states associated with ICDs?

a)

They are often caused by underlying negative feelings.

b)

They are more intense than typical feelings.

c)

They are usually short-lived.

d)

They persist across different circumstances.

189.

Miller's Feeling-State Theory is part of the [ ] explanation for ICDs.

a)

biological

b)

cognitive

c)

psychodynamic

d)

behavioral

190.

Positive reinforcement and operant conditioning are part of the [ ] explanation of ICDs.

a)

biological

b)

cognitive

c)

psychodynamic

d)

behavioral

191.

Dopamine and the Reward Deficiency Syndrome are part of the [ ] explanation of ICDs.

a)

biological

b)

cognitive

c)

psychodynamic

d)

behavioral

192.

Learned behavior in gambling relies on

a)

constant positive reinforcement

b)

constant negative reinforcement

c)

partial positive reinforcement

d)

partial negative reinforcement

193.

Over time, dopamine levels released by the impulsive behavior will [ ], which prompts the person the engage in the behavior more and more in order to achieve the happy feelings previously attached.

a)

decrease

b)

increase

194.

When you compare two measures of the same phenomenon and they produce similar results, that is known as [ ].

(a)  

195.

Which is NOT true of gambling disorder?

a)

Person has impaired control of how much time or money are spent gambling.

b)

Gambling is rarely given priority over other interests.

c)

Gambling continues to increase despite negative consequences.

d)

A diagnosis usually requires symptoms for a year, but can be shortened if severe.