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BGHMC CV Module 2025 Quiz A

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 62-year-old man had a drug-eluting stent placed for NSTEMI 3 months ago. He’s on aspirin + ticagrelor. He now requests elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy for biliary colic. Best plan?

a)

Proceed; continue aspirin, stop ticagrelor 24 h preop

b)

Proceed; stop both antiplatelets 5 days preop

c)

Proceed with cangrelor bridging after stopping ticagrelor

d)

Delay elective non-cardiac surgery until at least 12 months after DES for ACS

e)

Proceed under neuraxial anesthesia to reduce cardiac risk

2.

A 74-year-old with symptomatic severe aortic stenosis (AVA 0.7 cm², mean gradient 48 mmHg) is scheduled for elective colonoscopy for anemia workup. He is dyspneic at rest. Best anesthetic strategy?

a)

Propofol MAC with nasal cannula; treat hypotension with ephedrine

b)

Defer non-urgent procedure and refer for valve intervention/optimization first

c)

Ketamine MAC to preserve SVR

d)

GA with LMA; liberal PEEP to reduce LV preload

e)

Spinal anesthesia to avoid myocardial depression

3.

A 45-year-old with obstructive HCM (dynamic LVOT gradient) develops septic hypotension during colectomy (MAP 55, HR 112). Best vasopressor?

a)

Epinephrine infusion

b)

Dobutamine infusion

c)

Phenylephrine infusion

d)

Norepinephrine infusion

e)

Ephedrine boluses

4.

A 78-year-old with CKD (eGFR 25) on apixaban for AF has a hip fracture requiring fixation today; last dose 6 h ago. Best reversal strategy before neuraxial anesthesia is considered?

a)

Protamine

b)

Vitamin K + FFP

c)

4-factor PCC and avoid neuraxial

d)

Idarucizumab

e)

Desmopressin

5.

A 59-year-old with LBBB needs ischemia evaluation before vascular surgery; poor METs. Best noninvasive test?

a)

Exercise treadmill ECG

b)

Dobutamine stress echo

c)

Vasodilator nuclear perfusion imaging

d)

Stress echo with exercise

e)

Coronary calcium score

6.

A 66-year-old with controlled HTN, RCRI = 0, and poor functional capacity (<4 METs) is scheduled for inguinal hernia repair. No cardiac symptoms. Best next step?

a)

Cancel until stress test negative

b)

Start high-dose β-blocker day before

c)

Coronary CTA

d)

Proceed to surgery without further testing

e)

Start ACE inhibitor morning of surgery

7.

A pacemaker-dependent patient (DDD) presents for shoulder arthroscopy with monopolar cautery. A magnet is available. Best perioperative device plan?

a)

Place magnet over device and proceed—no further steps

b)

Preop interrogation and temporary reprogramming to asynchronous pacing

c)

Disable all pacing with magnet

d)

No change; bipolar cautery only is enough

e)

Remove the pacemaker lead sensing via magnet

8.

A patient with an ICD (not pacer-dependent) needs laparotomy above the umbilicus with monopolar cautery. Best plan?

a)

Proceed; magnet will convert to asynchronous pacing

b)

Proceed without change; pads are unnecessary

c)

Deactivate tachyarrhythmia therapies preop, place external defib pads, and use magnet as backup

d)

Turn off brady pacing but maintain shocks

e)

Switch to bipolar cautery only; no programming changes

9.

A 38-year-old with WPW develops new-onset AF with RVR (HR 180) in the OR; BP 120/70; stable. Best treatment?

a)

A. Adenosine

b)

B. Diltiazem

c)

C. Procainamide

d)

D. Esmolol

e)

E. Amiodarone bolus (first-line)

10.

A 68-year-old on lisinopril for uncomplicated HTN is scheduled for total knee arthroplasty. Best ACE-i plan?

a)

Continue morning of surgery to avoid rebound HTN

b)

Hold morning of surgery to reduce refractory hypotension risk

c)

Stop 72 h preop to avoid AKI

d)

Switch to ARB morning of surgery

e)

Give half-dose morning of surgery

11.

A 70-year-old with moderate aortic regurgitation undergoes open AAA repair. Hemodynamics worsen after increasing PEEP from 5 – 12 cmH2O. Mechanism?

a)

Decreased RV afterload

b)

Increased coronary perfusion pressure

c)

Reduced LV preload with bradycardia worsening regurgitant fraction

d)

Improved forward flow via reduced afterload

e)

Reduced LV wall stress and improved EF

12.

A 55-year-old with cardiac tamponade from malignancy needs urgent pericardial window. Best induction plan?

a)

Propofol + high PEEP to improve venous return

b)

Ketamine with spontaneous ventilation

c)

Etomidate + large fentanyl bolus + PEEP

d)

Sevoflurane inhalational induction with N2O

e)

Spinal anesthesia

13.

A 47-year-old with severe pulmonary hypertension (mPAP 45, RV dysfunction) presents for laparoscopic appendectomy. Best intraop hemodynamic target?

a)

Hyperventilation to PaCO2 25 mmHg

b)

Avoid hypoxia, hypercarbia, acidosis

c)

Large fluid boluses to raise CVP >20

d)

High PEEP to offload RV

e)

Phenylephrine as first-line for any hypotension

14.

You are asked to start perioperative β-blocker therapy in a vascular patient with no prior use, two days preop. Best approach?

a)

Load with metoprolol 200 mg on the morning of surgery

b)

If indicated, initiate weeks in advance with careful titration

c)

Start morning of surgery and titrate to HR 50

d)

Avoid β-blockers in vascular surgery

e)

Start esmolol infusion night before surgery

15.

During one-lung ventilation, SpO₂ drops from 98% → 88%. FiO₂ is 1.0. Best next step to improve oxygenation consistent with HPV physiology?

a)

Increase sevoflurane from 1.0 – 2.0 MAC

b)

Apply CPAP to non-dependent lung or PEEP to dependent lung after recruitment

c)

Switch to N₂O–O₂ mixture

d)

Start nitroprusside to reduce HPV

e)

Hyperventilate to PaCO₂ 25 mmHg

16.

A 60-year-old with severe AS becomes hypotensive after induction (MAP 45). Best immediate vasopressor?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Phenylephrine

d)

Dobutamine

e)

Isoproterenol

17.

A 72-year-old with moderate MS develops AF with RVR (HR 150) during hip surgery; BP 100/60. Best initial therapy?

a)

Amiodarone for pharmacologic conversion

b)

Rate control with β-blocker or diltiazem if LV function preserved

c)

Adenosine

d)

Immediate synchronized cardioversion (hemodynamically stable)

e)

Procainamide

18.

A 58-year-old with recent DES for stable CAD 8 months ago needs colon resection for cancer (cannot delay). Best antiplatelet strategy?

a)

Stop aspirin and clopidogrel 7 days preop

b)

Continue aspirin and stop clopidogrel 5 days prep

c)

Stop clopidogrel 24 h preop

d)

Continue DAPT through surgery

e)

Stop aspirin 3 days preop; continue clopidogrel

19.

Which ventilator change most increases RV afterload in a COPD patient with pulmonary HTN?

a)

Lowering tidal volume

b)

Raising mean airway pressure/PEEP excessively

c)

Increasing FiO2

d)

Reducing I:E from 1:2 to 1:3

e)

Adding pressure support during controlled ventilation

20.

You place a PA catheter in a patient with acute MR. Which tracing change is most characteristic?

a)

Giant A wave in wedge

b)

Tall V waves in wedge pressure

c)

Blunted Y descent in RA

d)

Kussmaul sign

e)

Large cannon A waves

21.

A 63-year-old with ischemic cardiomyopathy (EF 25%) requires open colectomy. Which induction plan best balances hemodynamics?

a)

High-dose propofol bolus

b)

Etomidate-based induction with opioid blunting and vasopressor ready

c)

Thiopental + N2O

d)

Ketamine + high PEEP

e)

Spinal anesthesia with heavy bupivacaine

22.

During carotid endarterectomy under GA, sudden ST depression and hypotension occur. Best immediate step?

a)

Large fluid bolus only

b)

Treat as supply–demand mismatch

c)

Give esmolol and phenylephrine to HR 40 regardless of BP

d)

Start nitroprusside

e)

Stop surgery and extubate

23.

A 50-year-old with HFrEF on sacubitril/valsartan presents for surgery. Which periop risk is most typical vs ACE-i?

a)

Hypertension refractory to treatment

b)

Hypotension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Hyperkalemia only

e)

Worsened diastolic function

24.

A patient on dabigatran (CrCl 35) has life-threatening bleeding after regional block. Best reversal?

a)

4-factor PCC

b)

Idarucizumab

c)

Andexanet alfa

d)

Vitamin K

e)

FFP

25.

A 54-year-old with severe MR needs laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which targets are best?

a)

Slightly higher HR, maintain preload, reduce afterload

b)

Very low HR to maximize filling

c)

High afterload to improve coronary perfusion

d)

Low preload and high PEEP

e)

Avoid volatile agents

26.

In a patient with tamponade, which RA waveform change is expected?

a)

Prominent Y descent

b)

Blunted Y descent

c)

Kussmaul sign

d)

Cannon A waves

e)

Giant V waves

27.

A 70-year-old with bioprosthetic aortic valve (implanted 5 years ago) presents for dental extraction. Endocarditis prophylaxis?

a)

None indicated

b)

Give prophylaxis

c)

Only if poor dentition

d)

Only if prior endocarditis

e)

Only if within 6 months of implantation

28.

A 64-year-old with diastolic dysfunction (HFpEF) undergoes open hernia repair. Sudden hypotension with small fluid responsiveness, high BP variability with PPV 8%. Best initial therapy?

a)

Large fluid bolus

b)

Phenylephrine

c)

Esmolol to HR <50

d)

Nitroprusside

e)

Dobutamine

29.

Which change most decreases coronary perfusion pressure intraop?

a)

Increasing SVR

b)

Vasodilation

c)

Mild bradycardia

d)

Reducing PEEP

e)

Decreasing HR

30.

A 58-year-old with pulmonary HTN and RV failure becomes hypotensive. Best initial vasopressor/inotrope?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Esmolol

d)

Nitroglycerin

e)

Milrinone as first-line bolus

31.

A patient on ticagrelor requires urgent craniotomy for epidural hematoma. Best strategy?

a)

Platelet transfusion reliably reverses ticagrelor

b)

Bentracimab

c)

Desmopressin completely reverses

d)

Vitamin K

e)

tPA

32.

In severe MS, which intraop event most threatens hemodynamics?

a)

AF with RVR

b)

Mild anemia

c)

Decrease in SVR

d)

Mild hypercarbia

e)

Slight bradycardia

33.

For a patient with recent PCI who must stop clopidogrel, which short-acting agent can bridge P2Y12 inhibition up to the time of incision?

a)

Heparin infusion

b)

Cangrelor

c)

Cilostazol

d)

Eptifibatide infusion post-op only

e)

Aspirin bolus

34.

A 76-year-old with severe AS develops new LBBB and hypotension after cross-clamping the aorta. Best immediate monitor/step?

a)

Troponin now

b)

Place arterial line and treat hypotension

c)

Remove cross-clamp immediately

d)

Give amiodarone

e)

Increase volatile to 2 MAC

35.

You suspect dynamic LVOT obstruction after aggressive diuresis in an elderly patient with small LV cavity; TEE shows systolic anterior motion. Best acute therapy?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Phenylephrine and volume

c)

Dobutamine

d)

Milrinone

e)

Increase PEEP

36.

A 67-year-old with aortic regurgitation under GA becomes profoundly bradycardic (HR 40) but normotensive. What’s the main risk?

a)

Coronary steal

b)

Increased diastolic time

c)

RV ischemia

d)

Alkalosis

e)

Hyperkalemia

37.

A 55-year-old with EF 30% requires major abdominal surgery. Which volatile agent property is most favorable?

a)

Halothane preserves baroreflex

b)

Modern volatiles allow titratable afterload reduction but must avoid hypotension

c)

N2O reduces PVR and is ideal

d)

Desflurane sympathetic blunting at any dose

e)

Sevoflurane contraindicated in LV dysfunction

38.

A patient with CRT-D needs TURP (below umbilicus) with bipolar cautery. Best device plan?

a)

Disable therapies anyway

b)

No routine reprogramming

c)

Place magnet to asynchronous mode

d)

Turn off pacing

e)

Replace with temporary pacer

39.

During prone spine surgery, PPV is 18% with controlled ventilation (no arrhythmia), Vt 6 mL/kg, PEEP 5, FiO2 0.5. MAP 70. CVP 10 after turning prone. Interpretation?

a)

Not fluid responsive

b)

Likely fluid responsive if criteria met

c)

Indicates RV failure

d)

Indicates need for vasodilator

e)

Indicates pneumothorax

40.

The oxygen delivery (DO2) of a septic patient is low with Hb 7, SaO2 100%, CO 3 L/min. Which change most increases DO2?

a)

Raise FiO2 from 0.6 → 1.0

b)

Transfusion

c)

Hyperventilation

d)

Decrease PEEP

e)

Start nitroglycerin

41.

A patient with mechanical mitral valve on warfarin presents for urgent laparotomy with INR 2.8. Best immediate reversal to allow surgery?

a)

Vitamin K only

b)

4-factor PCC + IV vitamin K

c)

FFP only

d)

Protamine

e)

Idarucizumab

42.

TEE during hypotension shows a small LV cavity, hyperdynamic walls, and no regional wall motion abnormality. Best cause and treatment?

a)

MI; give nitro

b)

Relative hypovolemia/low preload

c)

RV infarct; start nitro

d)

Tamponade; start PEEP

e)

PE; give thrombolysis

43.

A patient with moderate MR is undergoing shoulder surgery in beach-chair position. MAP measured at the arm is 65. The brain is 30 cm above the transducer. Cerebral perfusion pressure is approximately:

a)

65 mmHg

b)

~42 mmHg

c)

~58 mmHg

d)

~35 mmHg

e)

~75 mmHg

44.

After spinal anesthesia, a patient with severe AS becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. Best immediate step?

a)

Trendelenburg and fluids only

b)

Phenylephrine and treat tachycardia

c)

Ephedrine only

d)

Atropine and nitro

e)

High-flow O₂ only

45.

A 52-year-old with Brugada pattern on ECG needs appendectomy. Which drug is most concerning?

a)

High-dose Fentanyl

b)

High-dose Propofol

c)

High-dose Etomidate

d)

High-dose Phenylephrine

e)

High-dose Rocuronium

46.

For a patient with severe pulmonary HTN on chronic sildenafil and inhaled treprostinil, which agent is preferred to treat systemic hypotension?

a)

Phenylephrine

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Esmolol

d)

High-dose vasopressin as first-line

e)

Nitroglycerin

47.

A patient with HOCM on β-blocker is persistently hypotensive (MAP 55) after induction despite phenylephrine and volume. Next best step?

a)

Start dobutamine

b)

Add vasopressin

c)

Increase sevoflurane to deepen anesthesia

d)

Start nitroprusside

e)

Switch to ephedrine

48.

During TEE, you suspect acute PE. Which immediate finding supports this?

a)

Hyperdynamic LV with low gradient

b)

Dilated RV with septal flattening and McConnell sign

c)

Small RV with hypertrophy

d)

Large pericardial effusion

e)

Severe MS

49.

A 65-year-old with CKD and NSTEMI 1 month ago (managed medically, no stent) needs urgent colectomy for bleeding cancer. Best periop troponin strategy?

a)

No troponins periop

b)

Obtain baseline and postoperative troponins for surveillance

c)

Only if symptomatic

d)

Daily ECGs only

e)

Echo only

50.

During laparoscopic surgery, a patient with fixed-rate VVI pacemaker develops profound bradycardia with insufflation. Magnet is placed but HR remains 40. Most likely reason?

a)

Magnet disables all pacing

b)

Not all pacemakers convert to asynchronous pacing with a magnet

c)

Magnet always increases HR

d)

Magnet turns on ICD therapies

e)

Magnet converts to DDD mode