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BGHMC CV Module 2025 Quiz B

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 69-year-old with stable CAD, prior CABG (LIMA–LAD patent, vein grafts occluded) needs urgent hemicolectomy for obstruction. Intraop ST depressions and tachycardia occur with MAP 62 despite phenylephrine. Which intervention most directly improves myocardial supply–demand balance now?

a)

Give nitroprusside to reduce afterload

b)

Titrate esmolol to reduce HR while supporting MAP with norepinephrine

c)

Increase sevoflurane to 1.5 MAC

d)

Large crystalloid bolus

e)

Start dobutamine

2.

A 58-year-old on high-dose long-acting β-blocker for CAD is NPO since midnight for abdominal surgery. On induction he becomes bradycardic (HR 38) and hypotensive (MAP 45). Best initial drug?

a)

Atropine 0.4 mg

b)

Ephedrine 10 mg

c)

Esmolol 30 mg

d)

Nitroglycerin 100 μg

e)

Lidocaine 100 mg

3.

A 76-year-old with low-flow, low-gradient AS (AVA 0.8 cm², mean gradient 32 mmHg, EF 30%) is coming for urgent laparotomy. Dobutamine stress echo shows increased stroke volume and mean gradient rising to 50 mmHg with AVA unchanged. Interpretation most relevant to anesthetic risk:

a)

Pseudo-severe AS; risk is like moderate AS

b)

True severe AS with contractile reserve; treat as severe fixed obstruction

c)

Nonsevere AS with dynamic obstruction

d)

Data inconsistent—cancel surgery

e)

Treat as HOCM

4.

You plan an arterial line for carotid endarterectomy under GA. Shortly after carotid cross-clamp, EEG shows ischemic changes. The surgeon requests a higher pressure. What is the most appropriate immediate target?

a)

Maintain arm MAP 60–65 mmHg

b)

Raise MAP >20% above patient’s baseline

c)

Lower MAP to reduce cerebral edema

d)

Keep MAP unchanged and add mannitol

e)

Switch to nitroprusside infusion

5.

A 63-year-old with moderate MS and pulmonary HTN needs emergent open cholecystectomy. Which ventilator strategy best avoids acute decompensation?

a)

High PEEP to reduce RV afterload

b)

Low–moderate PEEP, avoid hypercarbia, maintain slow–normal rate to allow diastolic filling

c)

Hyperventilate to PaCO₂ 25 mmHg

d)

Increase I:E to 1:1

e)

Maximize tidal volume to reduce dead space

6.

A 72-year-old with EF 20% and CRT-P presents for femur fracture fixation. During reaming, BP falls to 70/40, ETCO2 drops, and TEE (emergent) reveals dilated RV with preserved LV. Which first action best addresses the likely pathophysiology?

a)

Start nitroglycerin infusion

b)

Administer 100% O2, treat hypotension with norepinephrine, and avoid high PEEP

c)

Give esmolol to slow HR

d)

Give furosemide

e)

Increase PEEP to 12 cmH2O

7.

A 61-year-old on prasugrel for a DES placed 9 months ago (stable angina) needs semi-urgent colectomy in 4 days. Best antiplatelet strategy?

a)

Stop aspirin; continue prasugrel

b)

Continue aspirin; stop prasugrel now (7 days preop)

c)

Stop both 5 days preop

d)

Continue both

e)

Bridge with IV heparin

8.

Intraop torsades de pointes occurs in a patient with long-QT after ondansetron. BP is 70/40; still perfusing. Best immediate treatment?

a)

Amiodarone 150 mg

b)

Magnesium sulfate 2 g IV

c)

Lidocaine 100 mg

d)

Adenosine 6 mg

e)

Esmolol infusion

9.

A patient with severe AR under GA becomes hypotensive (MAP 55) and bradycardic (HR 45) after a large remifentanil bolus. Which pressor/inotrope is best now?

a)

Phenylephrine bolus

b)

Ephedrine or low-dose epinephrine to increase HR and forward flow

c)

Vasopressin bolus

d)

Esmolol bolus

e)

Nitroglycerin bolus

10.

A 74-year-old with HFpEF and concentric LVH becomes acutely hypotensive after induction. Stroke-volume variation is 7%. Which action most likely corrects the cause?

a)

1 L fluid bolus

b)

Small phenylephrine bolus to restore afterload, then cautious fluids

c)

Start nitroprusside

d)

Dobutamine infusion

e)

Increase PEEP

11.

A 66-year-old with mechanical mitral valve (bileaflet) on warfarin (goal INR 3.0) needs elective open hysterectomy. She has prior stroke. Best bridging plan?

a)

Stop warfarin 5 days prior; no bridge

b)

Stop warfarin; bridge with therapeutic LMWH/UFH; stop heparin per neuraxial/OR timing

c)

Continue warfarin with FFP available

d)

Stop warfarin 2 days prior only

e)

Switch to DOAC 48 h before

12.

Post-carotid endarterectomy, a normocapnic patient becomes acutely hypertensive (MAP 120) with severe headache and focal seizures. Most likely diagnosis requiring urgent control is:

a)

Carotid thrombosis

b)

Cerebral hyperperfusion syndrome

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

TIA from hypotension

e)

Intracranial hemorrhage from anticoagulation reversal only

13.

During open AAA, supraceliac cross-clamping is applied. Which change is most expected and must be managed?

a)

Fall in afterload and BP

b)

Acute increase in afterload and LV wall stress

c)

Immediate increase in renal blood flow

d)

Decrease in coronary perfusion pressure due to high diastolic BP

e)

Decrease in LVEDP

14.

Clamp release after AAA repair causes profound hypotension and acidosis. Best pre-emptive strategy to attenuate this response is:

a)

Hyperventilate only

b)

Volume loading, reduce anesthetic depth, vasopressors ready, and gradual declamping

c)

Give furosemide before release

d)

Administer nitroprusside before release

e)

Tighten PEEP

15.

A 68-year-old with CRT-D is paced biventricularly 98% of the time. You plan shoulder arthroplasty with monopolar cautery. What is the most reliable strategy to avoid inhibition of pacing?

a)

Place a magnet over the device during the whole case

b)

Preop reprogram to asynchronous pacing; disable ICD therapies; use cautery precautions

c)

Use bipolar cautery; nothing else

d)

Turn off the device with magnet

e)

Use short-burst cautery and hope for intrinsic rhythm

16.

A 73-year-old with critical AS arrives hypotensive after spinal anesthesia at an outside center. Which two principles guide immediate therapy?

a)

Tachycardia and vasodilation

b)

Restore SVR (α-agonist/vasopressin) and maintain sinus rhythm/preload

c)

High PEEP and nitroglycerin

d)

β-agonist inotropy and low preload

e)

Reduce afterload with clevidipine

17.

A 59-year-old with suspected PE during laparoscopic colectomy has an unexplained rise in PA pressures, hypotension, and sudden ETCO₂ drop. TEE shows RV free-wall akinesis with apical sparing. Best immediate additional therapy?

a)

Epinephrine infusion

b)

Inhaled pulmonary vasodilator (NO or epoprostenol) with norepinephrine to maintain MAP

c)

High PEEP

d)

Esmolol

e)

Nitroglycerin

18.

For a patient with pheochromocytoma optimized with doxazosin, which intraop pressor choice best treats hypotension after tumor vein ligation?

a)

Phenylephrine infusion

b)

Norepinephrine infusion

c)

Esmolol infusion

d)

Nicardipine infusion

e)

Nitroglycerin infusion

19.

A 70-year-old with severe MR and chronic AF (rate-controlled) presents for noncardiac surgery. Which plan best maintains forward flow?

a)

Keep HR <50 to increase filling time

b)

Avoid bradycardia, maintain preload, reduce afterload; avoid sudden ↑SVR

c)

Use pure α-agonists for any hypotension

d)

High PEEP to reduce preload

e)

Deep volatile to suppress HPV

20.

An 82-year-old with constrictive pericarditis is for pericardiectomy. Which waveform/bedside sign is typical before opening the pericardium and helps distinguish it from tamponade?

a)

Pulsus paradoxus

b)

Kussmaul sign with prominent Y descent

c)

Equalization of diastolic pressures with blunted Y

d)

Water-hammer pulse

e)

Alternans

21.

A 55-year-old with EF 25% undergoing colectomy exhibits hypotension after induction. PAOP is 8 mmHg; TEE shows small LV cavity with dynamic mid-cavity gradient. Best pharmacologic step?

a)

Dobutamine

b)

Phenylephrine and small volume bolus; reduce inotropy

c)

Nitroglycerin

d)

Esmolol then nitroprusside

e)

Milrinone

22.

Patient with bileaflet mechanical aortic valve (no risk factors) is scheduled for elective herniorrhaphy. Best anticoagulation approach per risk category?

a)

Continue warfarin

b)

Hold warfarin 5 days; no bridging; resume post-op when hemostasis achieved

c)

Hold 2 days only; check INR morning of

d)

Switch to DOAC 72 h preop

e)

Bridge with full-dose heparin regardless

23.

A 64-year-old with HFrEF on sacubitril/valsartan, carvedilol, and spironolactone comes for major abdominal surgery. Which preop medication plan best reduces hemodynamic instability?

a)

Continue all three the morning of surgery

b)

Continue β-blocker; consider holding ARNI morning-of to reduce vasoplegia; continue MRA

c)

Hold β-blocker to avoid bradycardia

d)

Stop spironolactone to avoid hyperkalemia only

e)

Switch ARNI to ACE-i morning-of

24.

A patient with WPW undergoing GA develops narrow-complex SVT at 190 bpm; BP is 70/40 with poor perfusion. Best immediate step?

a)

A. Adenosine 6 mg

b)

B. Diltiazem 20 mg

c)

C. Synchronized cardioversion

d)

D. Procainamide 10 mg/kg

e)

E. Esmolol infusion

25.

For periop statins in a vascular patient without prior use, the most evidence-based statement is:

a)

Start morning of surgery for benefit

b)

Initiate days–weeks preop if time allows; continue chronically post-op

c)

Stop in chronic users to avoid rhabdomyolysis

d)

Give only if LDL >190 mg/dL

e)

No role perioperatively

26.

A 71-year-old with moderate AR and CKD develops severe hypotension during sepsis. Which vasoactive profile is most favorable?

a)

High-dose phenylephrine

b)

Norepinephrine with low-dose epinephrine if needed

c)

Vasopressin alone

d)

Dopamine

e)

Esmolol

27.

After induction for laparoscopic nephrectomy in a patient with pulmonary HTN, PETCO₂ drops and hypoxemia develops during insufflation. PAP rises from 35 to 65 mmHg. Best ventilatory adjustment to reduce PVR?

a)

Increase PEEP to 15 cmH₂O

b)

Ensure adequate oxygenation, avoid hypercarbia (increase minute ventilation), keep PEEP modest

c)

Switch to N₂O–O₂

d)

Prolong inspiratory time

e)

Use high tidal volumes

28.

A 62-year-old with Brugada syndrome requires GA for bowel resection. Which anesthetic plan best minimizes malignant arrhythmia risk?

a)

Long propofol infusion for maintenance

b)

Sevoflurane at 2 MAC with hyperventilation

c)

Balanced anesthetic; avoid prolonged high-dose propofol infusions; maintain normothermia and electrolytes

d)

Ketamine infusion

e)

High-dose bupivacaine epidural boluses

29.

A 66-year-old with left main disease and poor functional capacity needs urgent colectomy for perforation. Which monitoring choice most improves ability to manage ischemia and hemodynamics intraop?

a)

Pulse ox + NIBP

b)

Arterial line + TEE

c)

Pulmonary artery catheter only

d)

Precordial ST segment leads only

e)

CVP + arterial line, no echo

30.

In a high-risk vascular patient, which noninvasive test best identifies balanced three-vessel ischemia when exercise is impossible?

a)

Dobutamine stress echo

b)

Vasodilator nuclear perfusion imaging (look for transient ischemic dilation, uniform depression)

c)

Coronary calcium score

d)

Resting TTE

e)

6-minute walk test

31.

A patient with severe MR (flail posterior leaflet) and normal coronaries is scheduled for noncardiac surgery. Which induction choice best preserves forward flow?

a)

Large propofol bolus, phenylephrine as needed

b)

Etomidate or small-dose propofol with opioid; prefer vasodilators over pure α-agonists for BP support

c)

High-dose remifentanil then phenylephrine

d)

Ketamine then esmolol

e)

Spinal anesthesia with heavy bupivacaine

32.

A 48-year-old with long-standing HTN shows LV strain pattern on ECG and concentric LVH on echo. Which intraop BP strategy best reduces myocardial events?

a)

MAP 55–60 to reduce bleeding

b)

Maintain BP within ~10–20% of baseline; avoid wide swings

c)

Keep SBP <100 throughout

d)

Use permissive hypotension

e)

Lower diastolic pressure aggressively to improve LV filling

33.

A patient with permanent AF on apixaban presents for urgent hip fixation 36 h after last dose; CrCl 35. You plan neuraxial anesthesia. Most appropriate action?

a)

Proceed with spinal now

b)

Avoid neuraxial; consider GA or delay until adequate DOAC washout

c)

Give PCC then neuraxial

d)

Give vitamin K then neuraxial

e)

Do epidural with test dose only

34.

During thoracotomy, TEE reveals acute severe TR with dilated RV and septal shift. Which step best improves RV output?

a)

Decrease FiO2 to augment HPV

b)

Optimize preload, reduce PEEP, treat hypotension with norepinephrine; consider inhaled pulmonary vasodilator

c)

Esmolol

d)

Nitroprusside

e)

High PEEP to reduce venous return

35.

A 70-year-old with bioprosthetic AVR (3 months ago) on aspirin alone needs noncardiac surgery. Best antiplatelet plan?

a)

Continue aspirin

b)

Stop aspirin 7 days prior

c)

Bridge with heparin

d)

Add clopidogrel temporarily

e)

Stop aspirin 24 h prior

36.

In severe AS, which arrhythmia is most poorly tolerated and should be aggressively prevented/treated?

a)

Sinus tachycardia to 110

b)

New-onset AF with loss of atrial contribution

c)

Sinus bradycardia 55

d)

First-degree AV block

e)

Junctional rhythm at 70

37.

A 60-year-old with HFrEF and severe CAD has persistent hypotension despite adequate volume and norepinephrine. Lactate is rising. TEE shows global depression, no obstruction, full IVC. Best next pharmacologic approach?

a)

Add phenylephrine

b)

Add inodilator (low-dose dobutamine or milrinone) while maintaining MAP with norepinephrine

c)

Give nitroglycerin

d)

High-dose epinephrine alone

e)

Increase volatile depth

38.

A patient with Mobitz II block presents for urgent laparotomy. Which preop step best reduces peri-induction cardiac arrest risk?

a)

Atropine at bedside only

b)

Temporary pacing capability in place (transvenous/transcutaneous) before induction

c)

Esmolol ready

d)

Phenylephrine infusion running

e)

Avoid volatile agents

39.

TEE during unexplained hypotension shows large pericardial effusion with diastolic RV collapse but preserved LV function. ETCO2 is low. Which maneuver is harmful before drainage?

a)

Ketamine induction

b)

Positive-pressure ventilation with high PEEP

c)

Maintain spontaneous ventilation

d)

Small fluid bolus

e)

Phenylephrine

40.

A 68-year-old with resistant hypertension on ACE-i, CCB, thiazide, and spironolactone becomes severely hypertensive on emergence (MAP 125) with no pain. Which titratable IV agent best offers predictable BP control and favorable cerebral/renal perfusion?

a)

Nitroprusside

b)

Nicardipine

c)

Esmolol

d)

Hydralazine

e)

Labetalol in large boluses

41.

A 72-year-old post-op develops myocardial injury after noncardiac surgery (MINS) with troponin rise and no ischemic symptoms. Which action most improves outcomes according to perioperative strategies summarized in Barash/Miller?

a)

Ignore if asymptomatic

b)

Optimize hemodynamics/oxygen balance; initiate/continue guideline-directed therapy (statin, β-blocker if indicated), consider cardiology evaluation

c)

Routine thrombolysis

d)

Immediate cath for all

e)

Switch to NPO and wait

42.

A 65-year-old with severe pulmonary HTN receiving IV epoprostenol via dedicated line presents for surgery. The infusion pump fails intraop. First step?

a)

Clamp the line

b)

Resume epoprostenol immediately (backup pump/hand-bolus per protocol); treat systemic hypotension with norepinephrine

c)

Start vasopressin only

d)

Increase PEEP

e)

Give nitroglycerin

43.

A patient with moderate AS and CAD on chronic β-blocker is scheduled for major abdominal surgery. Best plan regarding β-blocker?

a)

Hold to avoid bradycardia

b)

Continue perioperatively; avoid withdrawal

c)

Convert to short-acting and stop after induction

d)

Give high loading dose morning-of

e)

Replace with calcium channel blocker

44.

A 59-year-old with Takotsubo cardiomyopathy (EF 30%) after recent stress is optimized and needs urgent laparotomy. What intraop pressor/inotrope profile is favored?

a)

High-dose epinephrine

b)

Norepinephrine for MAP support; avoid high β-1 drive; consider vasopressin; cautious inotropes only if needed

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

Dopamine

e)

Dobutamine at 10 μg/kg/min as first-line

45.

A 70-year-old with RBBB and anterior MI 2 years ago develops new bifascicular block during hip arthroplasty with hypotension and bradycardia. Best management?

a)

Atropine alone

b)

Transcutaneous pacing while preparing for transvenous pacing

c)

Continue surgery; observe

d)

Esmolol

e)

Adenosine

46.

For a patient with severe MS undergoing noncardiac surgery, which fluid/vasoactive plan is best?

a)

Aggressive fluids and vasodilators

b)

Maintain preload, avoid tachycardia, treat hypotension with phenylephrine or vasopressin; avoid large fluid shifts

c)

Use ephedrine for any hypotension

d)

Lower SVR with nitroprusside

e)

Use high PEEP to reduce pulmonary edema

47.

A 63-year-old with ischemic MR undergoes laparoscopy. Insufflation raises SVR and worsens hypotension. Which intervention best improves forward flow?

a)

Phenylephrine boluses

b)

Reduce pneumoperitoneum pressure, give vasodilator (nitroglycerin) while supporting MAP with norepinephrine

c)

Esmolol

d)

Add PEEP

e)

Large crystalloid bolus only

48.

A 58-year-old on clopidogrel for prior stroke requires urgent CABG-independent noncardiac surgery today. Platelet function remains inhibited. Of the following, which step most increases hemostatic capacity immediately?

a)

Desmopressin alone

b)

Platelet transfusion (timed near incision) acknowledging variable efficacy

c)

Vitamin K

d)

FFP

e)

Cryoprecipitate

49.

A 76-year-old with severe TR from pulmonary HTN needs noncardiac surgery. Which induction/maintenance strategy best preserves RV output?

a)

Propofol bolus 2.5 mg/kg and high PEEP

b)

Etomidate or small-dose propofol, avoid hypoxia/hypercarbia, maintain modest PEEP, support MAP with norepinephrine

c)

Isoflurane 2 MAC and nitroprusside

d)

Ketamine 2 mg/kg and phenylephrine

e)

Desflurane with rapid changes

50.

A 64-year-old with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy on metoprolol is stable intraop but develops hypotension during emergence when coughing against the tube. Best immediate action?

a)

Give albuterol and extubate quickly

b)

Deepen anesthesia, give phenylephrine, and ensure adequate volume to minimize dynamic obstruction

c)

Start dobutamine

d)

Give nitroglycerin

e)

Apply high PEEP