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semi final long quiz

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nutritionist is assessing an elderly patient who is bedridden and cannot stand. What is the most appropriate method to estimate their height?

a)

Usual Body Height

b)

Standing Height

c)

Proxy Height

d)

Actual Body Height

2.

A patient tells you they weighed 150 lbs last month during their previous check-up. What type of weight measurement is this?

a)

Lean Body Mass

b)

Usual Body Weight

c)

Fat Mass

d)

Actual Body Weight

3.

A 5-month-old infant has a birth weight of 3,200g. What is the infant's Desirable Body Weight (DBW)?

a)

6,200g

b)

5,700g

c)

3,800g

d)

5,200g

4.

A mother brings in her 20-week-old full-term infant but does not remember the birth weight. What is the infant's DBW?

a)

8,000g

b)

5,500g

c)

5,000g

d)

6,000g

5.

An 8-month-old infant was born prematurely, and the birth weight is unknown. What is the infant's DBW using the formula DBW (Kg) = (age in months/2) + 3 ?

a)

8 kg

b)

6 kg

c)

11 kg

d)

7 kg

6.

A 6-year-old child has a DBW of 20 kg. What is their approximate DBW in pounds (lbs)? (1 kg = 2.2 lbs)

a)

44 lbs

b)

40 lbs

c)

9.1 lbs

d)

22.2 lbs

7.

Which of the following is a correct procedure when weighing a subject?

a)

Subject should stand with both feet flat on the scale.

b)

Remove bulky clothing items.

c)

The floor surface where the scale is placed should be firm and even.

d)

Subject should look down at their feet to ensure they are placed correctly.

8.

A 5-foot-8-inch adult male has a large body frame. Using the NDAP Method, what is his Desirable Body Weight (DBW)?

a)

130 lbs

b)

158.4 lbs

c)

172.8 lbs

d)

144 lbs

9.

A 160 cm tall Filipina has a medium body frame. Using the Tannhauser's Method, what is her DBW?

a)

16 kg

b)

54 kg

c)

60 kg

d)

66 kg

10.

A 5-foot-5-inch adult female has a small body frame. Using the Hamwi Method, what is her DBW?

a)

112.5 lbs

b)

125 lbs

c)

137.5 lbs

d)

100 lbs

11.

A male patient is 63 inches tall. Using the Devine Method, what is his Ideal Body Weight (IBW)?

a)

D) 61.5 kg

b)

A) 56.9 kg

c)

B) 50 kg

d)

C) 52.3 kg

12.

An obese patient has an actual weight of 100 kg and a calculated IBW of 65 kg. What is their Adjusted Body Weight (ABW)?

a)

85 kg

b)

72 kg

c)

79 kg

d)

90 kg

13.

An adult weighs 75 kg and is 1.8 meters tall. What is their Body Mass Index (BMI)?

a)

B) 20.8

b)

D) 41.6

c)

A) 23.1

d)

C) 25.5

14.

A 5-month-old infant has a DBW of 7 kg. Using the Narin's and Well Method, what is the infant's Total Energy Allowance (TEA)?

a)

770 kcal

b)

910 kcal

c)

700 kcal

d)

840 kcal

15.

A 35-year-old male student (light activity) has a DBW of 68 kg. Using the Krause Method, what is his TEA?

a)

2,380 kcal

b)

2,040 kcal

c)

3,060 kcal

d)

2,720 kcal

16.

A 62-year-old female with a DBW of 55 kg is a cashier (sedentary). Using the NDAP kcal allowance for her activity level, what is her final adjusted TEA after accounting for her age?

a)

1,650 kcal

b)

1,232 kcal

c)

1,540 kcal

d)

1,320 kcal

17.

A 45-year-old morbidly obese male patient is in the ICU. Which is the most appropriate equation to estimate his Basal Energy Expenditure (BEE)?

a)

WHO/FAO/UNU Equation

b)

Harris-Benedict Equation

c)

Mifflin-St. Jeor Method

d)

Fusco Equation

18.

What is the primary difference between Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) and Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)?

a)

BMR is measured under very strict conditions, while RMR is measured under less strict conditions

b)

BMR is measured after a 2-4 hour fast, while RMR requires a 12-hour fast.

c)

BMR is used for ambulatory patients, while RMR is for ICU patients.

d)

RMR and BMR are interchangeable terms for the same measurement.

19.

A 30-year-old female is 165 cm tall and weighs 60 kg. Calculate her Resting Energy Expenditure (REE) using the Mifflin-St. Jeor Method.

a)

1320.25 kcal

b)

1555.75 kcal

c)

1450.50 kcal

d)

1200.00 kcal

20.

Using the Atwater factors, how many kilocalories are in 1 gram of protein?

a)

4 kcal/g

b)

9 kcal/g

c)

5 kcal/g

d)

7 kcal/g

21.

According to the provided text, the Fusco equation should NOT be used in which of the following patients?

a)

A 40-year-old patient with a very high BMI in an outpatient clinic.

b)

A 60-year-old morbidly obese patient in the ICU with severe sepsis.

c)

A 50-year-old morbidly obese patient in the ICU.

d)

A 55-year-old patient who is morbidly obese and on a ventilator.

22.

A patient's diet provides 300g of carbohydrates, 80g of protein, and 60g of fat. What is the total non-protein calorie (NPC) intake?

a)

1860 kcal

b)

1740 kcal

c)

1520 kcal

d)

2060 kcal

23.

What is the recommended average percentage of total daily calories that should come from carbohydrates?

a)

15%

b)

40%

c)

25%

d)

60%

24.

If a meal plan includes 2 exchanges of Fruit, 1 exchange of Whole Milk, and 3 exchanges of Vegetables, what is the total energy (kcal) intake from these items?

a)

276 kcal

b)

322 kcal

c)

258 kcal

d)

298 kcal

25.

After accounting for the protein from the vegetable, milk, and rice lists, a patient has 32 grams of protein remaining in their prescription. According to the instructions, how many meat exchanges are allowed?

a)

6 exchanges

b)

4 exchanges

c)

5 exchanges

d)

8 exchanges

26.

A patient with diabetes is prescribed a 1,800 kcal diet to be supplemented with enteral formula. If Glucerna is used, how many scoops are needed to meet this requirement?

a)

51 scoops

b)

28 scoops

c)

40 scoops

d)

32 scoops

27.

A primary advantage of using enteral nutrition (EN) over parenteral nutrition (PN) when the GI tract is functional is:

a)

It completely eliminates the risk of infection.

b)

It provides more calories than PN.

c)

It is always less expensive than PN.

d)

It helps maintain gut integrity and function.

28.

Which of the following patients is the most suitable candidate for a tube feeding?

a)

A well-nourished patient who is expected to not eat for 3 days.

b)

A patient with intractable vomiting and diarrhea.

c)

A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding.

d)

A patient with a severe swallowing disorder following a stroke.

29.

A patient is being fitted for a feeding tube. If the selected tube has a size of 9 French (Fr), what is its outer diameter in millimeters?

a)

9 mm

b)

6 mm

c)

3 mm

30.

Which term describes the movement of a drug through the body via absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?

a)

Pharmacokinetics

b)

Bioavailability

c)

Pharmacognosy

d)

Pharmacodynamics

31.

At which stage of drug action does the drug get broken down into inactive forms by enzymes, primarily in the liver?

a)

Stage 3

b)

Stage 4

c)

Stage 5

d)

Stage 2

32.

A patient is advised not to take the antibiotic tetracycline with milk. This is because calcium in milk binds with the drug, which is an example of a food-drug interaction that primarily affects:

a)

Metabolism

b)

Excretion

c)

Absorption

d)

Distribution

33.

According to the text, which of the following is considered a host-related risk factor for adverse drug-nutrient interactions?

a)

Being a young, healthy adult

b)

Having impaired kidney or liver function

c)

Consuming a well-balanced diet

d)

Taking a drug for a short-term illness

34.

Combining alcohol with acetaminophen poses a significant risk of damage to which organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Liver

c)

Lung

d)

Kidney

35.

Which statement best summarizes the primary safety concern regarding herbal supplements mentioned in the text?

a)

They have all been rigorously tested and proven effective for the claims they make.

b)

They can have toxic effects and may interact dangerously with prescription drugs.

c)

They are always safe because they are "natural."

d)

Their ingredients are consistently standardized across all products.

36.

Which population is identified as being at the highest risk for herb-drug interactions due to their common use of multiple prescription medications?

a)

Pregnant women

b)

Infants

c)

Elderly individuals

d)

Teenagers

37.

A patient with mild to moderate dysphagia who has some chewing ability would be prescribed which level of the dysphagia diet?

a)

Level 2: Dysphagia Mechanically Altered

b)

Full Liquid Diet

c)

Level 1: Dysphagia Pureed

d)

Level 3: Dysphagia Advanced

38.

Which of the following is a common lifestyle recommendation for managing Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

a)

Consume large, infrequent meals to reduce stomach acid production.

b)

Lie down immediately after eating to aid digestion.

c)

avoid lying down immediately after eating and eat small, frequent meals

d)

eat larger at breakfast for you not to produce so much stomach acid

39.

What is a key characteristic that can distinguish Crohn's disease from ulcerative colitis?

a)

Crohn's disease can affect any part of the GI tract and pervade the entire intestinal wall.

b)

Crohn's disease inflammation is continuous, while ulcerative colitis has "skip" lesions.

c)

Ulcerative colitis is primarily caused by H. pylori infection.

d)

Crohn's disease only affects the rectum and colon.

40.

The primary treatment for constipation, especially for an individual with a low-fiber intake, is to:

a)

Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

b)

Adopt a low-fiber, low-fat diet.

c)

Gradually increase fiber intake to at least 25 grams per day.

d)

Use antidiarrheal medications to slow GI motility.

41.

A diet prescribed before a GI procedure that consists of clear juices, broth, and gelatin is known as a:

a)

Soft Diet

b)

Blenderized Diet

c)

Full Liquid Diet

d)

Clear Liquid Diet

42.

A patient who has had an ileostomy is at a higher risk for obstructions and is often advised to:

a)

Limit fluid and electrolyte intake.

b)

Increase their intake of insoluble fibers to speed transit time.

c)

Consume mainly gas-producing foods to promote motility.

d)

Chew foods thoroughly and be cautious with high-fiber foods.

43.

Chronic gastritis can lead to achlorhydria (absence of gastric acid), which impairs the absorption of vitamin B12 and can result in what condition?

a)

Pernicious anemia

b)

Barrett's esophagus

c)

Peptic ulcer disease

d)

Reflux esophagitis

44.

According to the liquid consistency classifications, a fluid like eggnog or tomato juice that is thicker than water but can still be sipped through a straw is categorized as:

a)

Nectarlike

b)

Spoon-thick

c)

Honeylike

d)

Thin

45.

Which of the following laboratory values would meet the criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?

a)

Fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL

b)

Plasma glucose of 180 mg/dL two hours after a 75-gram glucose load

c)

Fasting plasma glucose of 115 mg/dL

d)

HbA1c level of 6.0%

46.

What is the fundamental difference between the cause of Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?

a)

Type 1 only develops in adults, while Type 2 only develops in children.

b)

Type 1 is managed with diet alone, while Type 2 always requires insulin.

c)

Type 1 is caused by autoimmune destruction of beta cells, while Type 2 is primarily caused by insulin resistance.

d)

Type 1 is caused by insulin resistance, while Type 2 is caused by autoimmune destruction of beta cells.

47.

A patient with Type 1 diabetes presents with hyperglycemia, rapid breathing, and a fruity odor on their breath. These are classic signs of which acute complication?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

48.

Hypoglycemia in a person with diabetes is most often caused by:

a)

The natural progression of the disease itself.

b)

Inappropriate management, such as taking excessive insulin or skipping a meal.

c)

A lack of physical activity.

d)

A high-carbohydrate meal.

49.

Diabetic retinopathy and nephropathy are examples of which type of chronic complication associated with long-term diabetes?

a)

Microvascular complications

b)

Acute complications

c)

Diabetic neuropathy

d)

Macrovascular complications

50.

In the development of atherosclerosis, what is the role of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)?

a)

They are fibrous tissues that directly harden the artery walls.

b)

They help to remove cholesterol from the artery walls, protecting against atherosclerosis.

c)

They are immune cells that are attracted to sites of chronic injury.

d)

They slip under the artery's endothelial cells, become oxidized, and accumulate to form plaque.

51.

A patient's blood pressure is consistently measured as 145/95 mm Hg. How would this be classified?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Desirable

c)

Prehypertension

d)

Normal for their age

52.

A patient with end-stage heart failure experiences significant weight loss and tissue wasting. This condition of severe malnutrition is known as:

a)

Pulmonary edema

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Diabetic neuropathy

d)

Cardiac cachexia

53.

During the acute-phase response to inflammation, the body prioritizes survival by increasing muscle catabolism. What is the primary purpose of this process?

a)

To lower the metabolic rate to conserve energy.

b)

To increase plasma concentrations of albumin, iron, and zinc.

c)

To increase body fat storage.

d)

To make amino acids available for glucose production, tissue repair, and immune protein synthesis.

54.

What is a primary nutritional concern when feeding a patient with respiratory failure?

a)

Limiting fluids is always necessary, regardless of the patient's condition.

b)

Overfeeding should be avoided as it can cause excessive carbon dioxide production.

c)

Restricting protein to prevent stress on the kidneys.

d)

Providing a high-carbohydrate diet to maximize energy.

55.

Which of the following best describes the condition of emphysema?

a)

A productive cough that persists for at least 3 months for 2 consecutive years.

b)

Persistent inflammation and excessive mucus secretions in the airways.

c)

Breakdown of the lungs' elastic structure and destruction of alveoli walls.

d)

An inherited disorder caused by alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.

56.

A patient with cancer is experiencing involuntary weight loss, muscle wasting, anorexia, and fatigue. This condition, which cannot be fully reversed by nutrition intervention alone, is known as:

a)

Cardiac cachexia

b)

Cancer cachexia

c)

Acute-phase response

d)

Atherosclerosis

57.

According to the guidelines for reducing cancer risk, which of the following is recommended?

a)

Choosing a diet that emphasizes red and processed meats.

b)

Achieving and maintaining a healthy body weight.

c)

Limiting physical activity to conserve energy.

d)

Relying on dietary supplements to meet nutritional needs.

58.

What is the primary target of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) in the body?

a)

Cells in the gastric mucosa

b)

Pancreatic beta cells

c)

Helper T cells (CD4+ T cells)

d)

Red blood cells

59.

A patient with an advanced HIV infection is experiencing mouth pain, difficulty swallowing, and altered taste sensation due to a common oral infection. Which infection is the likely cause?

a)

Herpes simplex virus

b)

Oral candidiasis

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Kaposi's sarcoma

60.

What is the primary purpose of pharmacodynamics in relation to drug therapy?

a)

To study the effects of drugs on biological systems

b)

To determine the optimal dosage of a drug

c)

To evaluate the side effects of medications

d)

To analyze the absorption rates of drugs