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GI review

Total questions: 18

Worksheet time: 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client newly diagnosed with GERD asks which foods commonly worsen symptoms. Which food should the nurse tell the client to avoid? Select all that apply

a)

Bananas

b)

Coffee and chocolate

c)

Plain rice

d)

Baked chicken

e)

Peppermint and garlic

2.

A client with a suspected peptic ulcer has melena and weight loss. Which finding suggests a duodenal ulcer rather than a gastric ulcer?

a)

Pain worsens immediately after eating.

b)

Pain relieved by eating and occurs 2–3 hours after meals.

c)

Hematemesis is absent.

d)

Epigastric pain localized to the left upper quadrant.

3.

Which laboratory test result is most useful in diagnosing hepatic encephalopathy in a client with liver failure?

a)

Serum albumin level

b)

Serum ammonia level

c)

Serum bilirubin level

d)

Prothrombin time (INR)

4.

A client presents with right lower quadrant (RLQ) abdominal pain, nausea, and low-grade fever. Which assessment finding most strongly suggests acute appendicitis?

a)

Diffuse abdominal bloating only.

b)

Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point.

c)

Left lower quadrant guarding.

d)

Pain that improves with movement.

5.

A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. Which lab value is most diagnostic of pancreatitis?

a)

Elevated serum lipase (and amylase)

b)

Elevated AST

c)

Elevated calcium

d)

Elevated billirubin

6.

Which nursing action is most appropriate during the acute phase of pancreatitis?

a)

Encourage oral intake of fatty foods to stimulate pancreatic enzymes.

b)

Keep the client NPO, provide IV fluids, and administer analgesia as ordered.

c)

Start immediate enteral feeding via high-fat formula.

d)

Recommend large-volume enemas to relieve abdominal pain.

7.

A client with cirrhosis has ascites and is being taught sodium restriction. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?

a)

A. “I can have approximately 2 grams (2000 mg) of sodium per day unless my provider advises otherwise.”

b)

B. “Salt is okay as long as I drink more water.”

c)

C. “I’ll add table salt to foods to taste.”

d)

D. “Sodium intake does not affect my fluid build-up.”

8.

A client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD) asks how peptic ulcers and duodenal ulcers differ. Which is accurate?

a)

Gastric (peptic) ulcers are more likely to cause weight loss and pain that worsens with eating; duodenal ulcers are often relieved by food.

b)

Duodenal ulcers always cause vomiting.

c)

Gastric ulcers are only caused by spicy foods.

d)

There is no difference between the two.

9.

A 68-year-old with chronic liver failure is scheduled for paracentesis to drain large-volume ascites. Which pre-procedure action should the nurse perform?

a)

Ensure fasting for 12 hours beforehand.

b)

Check coagulation studies (PT/INR) and platelet count per policy.

c)

Encourage the client to increase sodium intake the day before.

d)

Administer a laxative.

10.

The nurse suspects a client with a perforated duodenal ulcer. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Sudden severe abdominal pain with rigid abdomen

b)

Mild epigastric discomfort after eating

c)

Intermittent nausea relieved by antacids

d)

Low-grade fever with mild tenderness

11.

The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which statement indicates correct understanding?

a)

I will avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen.

b)

I can continue to drink alcohol in moderation.

c)

I’ll stop my PPI when symptoms are gone.

d)

I’ll lie down right after eating.

12.

The nurse caring for a client with acute appendicitis notes sudden relief of pain followed by increased HR and fever. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

The appendix has perforated.

b)

The client is improving.

c)

The client is dehydrated.

d)

The appendix is shrinking.

13.

The nurse is administering lactulose to a client with hepatic encephalopathy. What is the expected outcome?

a)

Decrease in serum ammonia level

b)

Increase in serum potassium

c)

Decrease in bilirubin

d)

Increase in appetite

14.

A client with liver failure is prescribed furosemide for ascites. Which nursing assessment is most important?

a)

Monitor daily weight and abdominal girth

b)

Assess bowel sounds every 4 hours

c)

Encourage a high-sodium diet

d)

Increase fluid intake

15.

A client with cirrhosis and ascites has shallow respirations and is increasingly anxious. Which nursing action should be performed first?

a)

Elevate the head of the bed

b)

Administer lactulose

c)

Notify the physician for paracentesis

d)

Encourage deep breathing and coughing

16.

The nurse prepares to administer medications to a client with liver failure. Which order requires clarification?

a)

Morphine 10 mg IM every 4 hours PRN pain

b)

Furosemide 20 mg PO daily

c)

Vitamin K 5 mg IV once

d)

Spironolactone 25 mg daily

17.

A client with cirrhosis is being discharged on spironolactone. Which statement requires further teaching?

a)

I will avoid high-potassium foods like bananas.

b)

I’ll weigh myself daily and report sudden gains.

c)

I’ll limit sodium intake as prescribed.

d)

I can take salt substitutes to replace sodium.

18.

A client is admitted with suspected appendicitis. Which nursing intervention is contraindicated?

a)

Keep NPO.

b)

Apply a heating pad to the abdomen for comfort.

c)

Maintain IV fluids.

d)

Prepare for possible surgery.