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Human Anatomy and Physiology Quiz

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Tight junctions between epithelial cells primarily function to:

a)

Permit free passage of ions

b)

Prevent leakage of materials between cells

c)

Anchor cells to the basement membrane

d)

Provide mechanical support

e)

Allow selective transport of proteins

2.

The connective tissue that forms the internal framework of lymph nodes and spleen is:

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Reticular connective tissue

c)

Areolar connective tissue

d)

Adipose tissue

e)

Elastic tissue

3.

Smooth muscle is characterized by:

a)

Striations and multiple nuclei

b)

Non-striated, spindle-shaped cells with central nuclei

c)

Rapid voluntary contractions

d)

Presence of sarcomeres

e)

Peripheral nuclei

4.

In dense irregular connective tissue, collagen fibers are arranged:

a)

In parallel bundles

b)

In concentric rings

c)

Randomly in multiple directions

d)

In straight vertical lines

e)

Along muscle fibers only

5.

The main pigment present in red blood cells is:

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Bilirubin

d)

Melanin

e)

Albumin

6.

The process by which immature red blood cells mature in the bone marrow is known as:

a)

Erythropoiesis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Leukopoiesis

e)

Thrombopoiesis

7.

Iron is essential for hemoglobin synthesis because it:

a)

Enhances plasma osmotic pressure

b)

Forms the heme portion that binds oxygen

c)

Catalyzes antibody formation

d)

Stabilizes the globin chain structure

e)

Regulates coagulation

8.

Destruction of red blood cells releases heme, which is converted in the liver into:

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Albumin

c)

Globin

d)

Fibrin

e)

Ferritin

9.

The process of stopping bleeding after vascular injury is called:

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Hemostasis

c)

Fibrinolysis

d)

Hematopoiesis

e)

Agglutination

10.

A person with type A blood has:

a)

A antigens on red cells and anti-B antibodies in plasma

b)

B antigens and anti-A antibodies

c)

Both A and B antigens

d)

No ABO antigens

e)

Anti-A and anti-B antibodies

11.

The term “universal donor” applies to individuals with blood group:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

e)

Rh positive

12.

Neutrophils are classified as:

a)

Agranulocytes

b)

Granulocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Monocytes

e)

Basophils

13.

The largest type of white blood cell found in circulating blood is:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

e)

Eosinophil

14.

Immunoglobulin responsible for providing protection in mucosal secretions is:

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

e)

IgD

15.

The antigen–antibody complex is primarily removed from circulation by:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages in the liver and spleen

c)

Platelets

d)

Lymph nodes alone

e)

Plasma enzymes

16.

A vaccine stimulates protection by:

a)

Providing passive antibodies

b)

Introducing weakened or inactivated antigens to induce immune memory

c)

Blocking natural infection permanently

d)

Neutralizing toxins directly

e)

Stimulating innate immunity only

17.

The double-layered membrane that surrounds the nucleus and contains pores for exchange of materials is called the:

a)

Nuclear envelope

b)

Cell membrane

c)

Golgi complex

d)

Nuclear lamina

e)

Endoplasmic reticulum

18.

Ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum primarily synthesize:

a)

Structural lipids

b)

Secretory and membrane proteins

c)

Enzymes for glycolysis

d)

Mitochondrial DNA

e)

Cytoskeletal filaments

19.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is abundant in cells that:

a)

Store glycogen

b)

Synthesize steroid hormones and detoxify drugs

c)

Secrete digestive enzymes

d)

Conduct impulses

e)

Absorb nutrients only

20.

Peroxisomes differ from lysosomes because they:

a)

Contain hydrolytic enzymes

b)

Participate in lipid oxidation producing hydrogen peroxide

c)

Digest old cell organelles

d)

Are derived from the Golgi apparatus

e)

Contain DNA for replication

21.

The maintenance of resting membrane potential primarily depends on:

a)

Equal distribution of ions

b)

Passive diffusion of chloride only

c)

Unequal distribution of sodium and potassium ions maintained by Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase

d)

Protein synthesis in cytoplasm

e)

Water balance across membrane

22.

A cell placed in an isotonic solution will:

a)

Shrink due to water loss

b)

Swell and burst

c)

Remain unchanged in size

d)

Gain water continuously

e)

Lose all solutes

23.

The basement membrane underlying epithelial tissue is produced by:

a)

Connective tissue cells only

b)

Epithelial and connective tissue cells jointly

c)

Endothelial cells exclusively

d)

Fibroblasts of neighboring organs

e)

Plasma proteins of blood

24.

Transitional epithelium lines organs such as the urinary bladder because it:

a)

Is keratinized for protection

b)

Allows stretching without tearing

c)

Secretes large amounts of mucus

d)

Permits active absorption of ions

e)

Conducts impulses

25.

The connective tissue covering that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is called the:

a)

Endomysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Epimysium

d)

Sarcolemma

e)

Myofibril

26.

The supporting cells of the nervous system responsible for myelin formation in the peripheral nervous system are:

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Schwann cells

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Microglia

e)

Satellite cells

27.

The transparent, biconvex structure that focuses light on the retina is the:

a)

Cornea

b)

Lens

c)

Iris

d)

Sclera

e)

Vitreous body

28.

The plasma protein fibrinogen plays a key role in:

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Blood clot formation

c)

Immune response

d)

Osmotic balance only

e)

Antibody synthesis

29.

An increase in lymphocyte count is most commonly associated with:

a)

Bacterial infections

b)

Viral infections

c)

Allergic conditions

d)

Anemia

e)

Bleeding disorders

30.

Platelet adhesion at sites of vascular injury requires the plasma protein:

a)

Fibrin

b)

Von Willebrand factor

c)

Albumin

d)

Hemoglobin

e)

Complement C3

31.

The main white blood cell type that releases histamine during inflammatory reactions is the:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Eosinophil

32.

Oxygen dissociation from hemoglobin is facilitated by:

a)

High pH and low temperature

b)

Low CO₂ concentration

c)

High CO₂ concentration and low pH

d)

High oxygen tension

e)

Increased hemoglobin affinity

33.

A decrease in plasma albumin concentration would most likely lead to:

a)

Tissue dehydration

b)

Reduced capillary filtration

c)

Edema due to fall in oncotic pressure

d)

Increased blood viscosity

e)

Hypertension

34.

Complement activation through the classical pathway requires the presence of:

a)

Antibody–antigen complexes

b)

Bacterial endotoxins alone

c)

Natural killer cells

d)

Interferon-gamma

e)

Platelet granules

35.

The function of macrophages in immunity includes:

a)

Production of antibodies

b)

Phagocytosis and antigen presentation

c)

Secretion of histamine

d)

Release of clotting factors

e)

Transport of oxygen

36.

Immunological memory ensures that upon second exposure to the same antigen:

a)

The immune response is weaker and slower

b)

Only innate immunity responds

c)

The response is faster and stronger due to memory cells

d)

Antibody production is suppressed

e)

The antigen is ignored by lymphocytes

37.

The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as:

a)

A rigid bilayer of lipids without proteins

b)

A dynamic structure with lipids and proteins capable of lateral movement

c)

A uniform layer of carbohydrate molecules

d)

A fixed barrier with immobile components

e)

A layer composed exclusively of phospholipids

38.

The organelle responsible for packaging and secretion of enzymes in pancreatic acinar cells is the:

a)

Ribosome

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Peroxisome

e)

Centriole

39.

The diffusion of ions through a membrane channel depends on:

a)

ATP hydrolysis

b)

Size and electrical charge of the ion

c)

Enzymatic breakdown

d)

Osmotic pressure only

e)

Active carrier proteins

40.

Endocytosis differs from exocytosis because endocytosis:

a)

Expels waste materials

b)

Imports materials into the cell by vesicle formation

c)

Requires no membrane fusion

d)

Is a type of diffusion

e)

Occurs only in plant cells

41.

The main characteristic of epithelium specialized for absorption is:

a)

Absence of microvilli

b)

Presence of cilia

c)

Columnar shape with surface microvilli

d)

Stratification into multiple layers

e)

Cuboidal cells with keratin

42.

Stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium is typically found lining the:

a)

Skin surface

b)

Esophagus

c)

Urinary bladder

d)

Alveoli

e)

Trachea

43.

The primary fiber type providing elasticity in connective tissue is:

a)

Collagen

b)

Reticular fiber

c)

Elastic fiber

d)

Keratin fiber

e)

Myosin filament

44.

The structural unit of compact bone consisting of concentric lamellae surrounding a central canal is called an:

a)

Trabecula

b)

Osteon

c)

Lacuna

d)

Canaliculus

e)

Periosteum

45.

The type of cartilage found in intervertebral discs providing resistance to compression is:

a)

Hyaline cartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Calcified cartilage

e)

Reticular cartilage

46.

The connective tissue cell type primarily involved in immune surveillance and antigen presentation is the:

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Mast cell

c)

Macrophage

d)

Adipocyte

e)

Chondrocyte

47.

The average diameter of a normal red blood cell is approximately:

a)

3 μm

b)

5 μm

c)

7.5 μm

d)

10 μm

e)

15 μm

48.

The percentage of blood volume occupied by red cells is termed the:

a)

Hemoglobin index

b)

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

c)

Hematocrit

d)

Packed cell ratio

e)

Mean corpuscular volume

49.

The average concentration of hemoglobin in adult male blood is approximately:

a)

8 g/dL

b)

10 g/dL

c)

13–16 g/dL

d)

18–20 g/dL

e)

25 g/dL

50.

The white blood cell that increases during allergic reactions and helps control inflammation is the:

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Lymphocyte

51.

The anticoagulant naturally present in basophil granules is:

a)

Fibrin

b)

Heparin

c)

Albumin

d)

Globulin

e)

Prothrombin

52.

Vitamin K is essential for:

a)

Platelet adhesion

b)

Synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X in the liver

c)

RBC membrane stability

d)

Iron absorption

e)

Fibrin degradation

53.

A person with type AB blood can receive blood from all ABO groups because:

a)

Plasma contains anti-A and anti-B antibodies

b)

RBCs lack both A and B antigens

c)

Plasma lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies

d)

RBCs contain Rh antigen only

e)

Their immune response is absent

54.

The term “agglutination” refers to:

a)

The rupture of red cells in hypotonic solution

b)

Clumping of red cells due to antigen–antibody reaction

c)

Formation of platelet plug

d)

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

e)

Deposition of calcium in plasma

55.

The first step of hemostasis following vascular injury is:

a)

Coagulation cascade

b)

Platelet aggregation

c)

Vascular spasm

d)

Fibrinolysis

e)

Release of clotting factors

56.

The specific defense system that targets particular pathogens and provides long-term protection is termed:

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Passive immunity

c)

Adaptive immunity

d)

Artificial immunity

e)

Temporary immunity

57.

The principal lipid component forming the structural framework of the plasma membrane is:

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Phospholipid

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Glycolipid

e)

Sphingomyelin

58.

The organelle involved in the synthesis of membrane lipids and detoxification of harmful substances is the:

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Lysosome

e)

Peroxisome

59.

The cytoplasmic structure responsible for formation of spindle fibers during cell division is the:

a)

Centriole

b)

Ribosome

c)

Golgi body

d)

Peroxisome

e)

Microvillus

60.

The osmotic pressure of a solution is determined primarily by the:

a)

Size of solute particles

b)

Number of solute particles per unit volume

c)

Color of the solution

d)

Volume of solvent

e)

Viscosity of the solution

61.

Facilitated diffusion reaches a maximum rate (Vmax) when:

a)

All carrier proteins are saturated

b)

ATP supply is exhausted

c)

Solute concentration becomes zero

d)

Ion channels are closed

e)

Osmotic balance is achieved

62.

The connective tissue cell that secretes histamine and participates in allergic reactions is the:

a)

Fibroblast

b)

Mast cell

c)

Macrophage

d)

Adipocyte

e)

Plasma cell

63.

The connective tissue that resists stress applied from many directions is:

a)

Dense regular connective tissue

b)

Dense irregular connective tissue

c)

Reticular connective tissue

d)

Areolar connective tissue

e)

Elastic connective tissue

64.

The extracellular component of cartilage that provides firm but flexible support is composed mainly of:

a)

Collagen fibers and proteoglycans

b)

Elastic fibers and reticulin

c)

Calcium phosphate and carbonate salts

d)

Plasma proteins

e)

Actin and myosin filaments

65.

The type of cartilage forming the embryonic skeleton and articular surfaces is:

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Elastic cartilage

c)

Hyaline cartilage

d)

Calcified cartilage

e)

Reticular cartilage

66.

The process by which bone is formed directly from mesenchymal tissue without a cartilage stage is called:

a)

Endochondral ossification

b)

Intramembranous ossification

c)

Secondary ossification

d)

Fibrocartilaginous ossification

e)

Appositional growth

67.

The component of blood responsible for initiating the coagulation cascade is the:

a)

Platelet membrane phospholipid

b)

Plasma fibrinogen

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Albumin molecule

e)

Lymphocyte

68.

The plasma protein that transports thyroid hormones and fatty acids is:

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

Albumin

c)

Globulin

d)

Hemoglobin

e)

Prothrombin

69.

Erythropoiesis in adults occurs primarily in the:

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Yellow bone marrow

e)

Thymus

70.

Anemia due to iron deficiency is characterized by red cells that are:

a)

Large and hyperchromic

b)

Small and pale (microcytic hypochromic)

c)

Normal-sized and normochromic

d)

Irregularly shaped and dark

e)

Fragmented and dense

71.

The leukocyte that differentiates into plasma cells during an immune response is the:

a)

Monocyte

b)

B lymphocyte

c)

T lymphocyte

d)

Neutrophil

e)

Basophil

72.

The lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature and become immunocompetent is the:

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Thymus

d)

Lymph node

e)

Tonsil

73.

The principal immunoglobulin responsible for long-term immunity after infection is:

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgG

e)

IgD

74.

The enzyme responsible for dissolving the fibrin clot during tissue repair is:

a)

Thrombin

b)

Plasmin

c)

Pepsin

d)

Trypsin

e)

Fibrinogenase

75.

The process of engulfing and digesting microorganisms by white blood cells is termed:

a)

Pinocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Endocytosis

e)

Hemolysis

76.

The cells that recognize and destroy virus-infected or tumor cells without prior sensitization are:

a)

Helper T cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

Natural killer (NK) cells

d)

Plasma cells

e)

Neutrophils

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