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[LRH] CC Primer Part 1

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

10^-12

a)

milli

b)

pico

c)

kilo

d)

tera

2.

10^-9

a)

pico

b)

micro

c)

giga

d)

nano

3.

project team members

a)

purple belters

b)

blue belters

c)

black belters

d)

green belters

4.

mid to senior level sponsors who review projet, remove organizational barriers

a)

green belters

b)

black belters

c)

blue belters

d)

purple belters

5.

leaders of small scale projects

a)

green belters

b)

black belters

c)

blue belters

d)

purple belters

6.

green belters contribute ___ of their time to improvement

a)

20%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

7.

conversion factor of glucose

a)

0.026

b)

17.1

c)

0.0555

d)

12.9

8.

conversion factor of thyroxine

a)

0.026

b)

17.1

c)

0.0555

d)

12.9

9.

suitable for most analytic laboratory procedures

a)

analytical reagent

b)

ultrapure

c)

chemically pure

d)

technical grade

10.

not recommended that clinical laboratories used these chemicals for reagent preparation

a)

analytical reagent

b)

ultrapure

c)

chemically pure

d)

technical grade

11.

10^4

a)

deci

b)

centi

c)

milli

d)

mega

12.

10^-1

a)

deci

b)

centi

c)

milli

d)

mega

13.

conversion factor of bilirubin

(a)  

14.

conversion factor of cholesterol

(a)  

15.

conversion factor of triglyceride

(a)  

16.

most commonly used measures of central tendency

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

standard deviation

17.

used usually in skewed data; the middle point of data set

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

standard deviation

18.

used to describe data with 2 centers or bimodal

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

standard deviation

19.

measures of central tendency except;

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

standard deviation

20.

easiest measure of spread

a)

range

b)

standard deviation

c)

coefficient of variation

d)

standard deviation index

21.

index of precision

a)

range

b)

standard deviation

c)

coefficient of variation

d)

standard deviation index

22.

True about the Gaussian distribution

a)

mean = mode = median

b)

symmetric

c)

peak represents the average

d)

1SD = 68%

2SD = 95%

3SD = 99.7%

23.

Sample and reagent mixing

a)

pre analytical

b)

analytical

c)

post analytical

24.

calibration

a)

pre analytical

b)

analytical

c)

post analytical

25.

analyses of control samples together with the patient samples

a)

Intralab Quality Control

b)

Interlab Quality Control

26.

involves proficiency testing programs that periodically provide samples of unknown concentrations; for long term accuracy

a)

Intralab Quality Control

b)

Interlab Quality Control

27.

material that resembles the test specimen and containing preanalyzed concentrations of the substances being measured.

a)

Control

b)

Standard

28.

material of known composition available in a highly purified form

a)

Control

b)

Standard

29.

easy to read visual representation of quality control generated over time

a)

gaussian chart

b)

levey jennings

30.

1 2s rule violation

a)

exceeds either -2s/+2s

b)

warning rule

c)

rejection rule

31.

1 3s rule violation except;

a)

exceeds either -3s/+3s

b)

warning rule

c)

rejection rule

d)

random error

32.

R4S rule violation except;

a)

exceeds either -3s/+3s

b)

warning rule

c)

rejection rule

d)

random error

33.

4 - Health Hazard

(a)  

34.

3 - reactivity diamond

(a)  

35.

4 - fire hazard

a)

will not burn

b)

above 200F

c)

Above 100F but not exceeding to 200F

d)

Below 75F

e)

Below 73F

36.

3 - Health hazard

a)

normal material

b)

very hazardous

c)

extreme danger

d)

slightly hazardous

e)

Below 73F

37.

formed by control values that distribute themselves on one side of the mean for six consecutive days

a)

shift

b)

trend

38.

gradual change

a)

shift

b)

trend

39.

deterioration of reagent

a)

shift

b)

trend

40.

improper calibration of instrument

a)

shift

b)

trend

41.

improper mixing of sample and reagent

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

42.

recurring error in a test procedure

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

43.

sample instability

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

44.

changes in standard materials

a)

random error

b)

systematic error

45.

exist when there is a continual difference between test method and comparative method values, regardless of concentration

a)

constant systematic error

b)

proportional systematic error

46.

slope = 0.99

y intercept = 110%

a)

constant systematic error

b)

proportional systematic error

47.

determined by slope

a)

constant systematic error

b)

proportional systematic error

48.

checking the difference between a patient's present lab result to the his previous lab results

(a)  

49.

ability of a method to detect small quantities of an analyte

a)

analytical sensitivity

b)

diagnostic sensitivity

c)

analytical specificity

d)

diagnostic specificity

50.

ability of a test to detect a given disease or condition

a)

analytical sensitivity

b)

diagnostic sensitivity

c)

analytical specificity

d)

diagnostic specificity

51.

ability of a method to detect only the analyte it is designed to determine

a)

analytical sensitivity

b)

diagnostic sensitivity

c)

analytical specificity

d)

diagnostic specificity

52.

ability of a test to correctly identify the absence of a given disease or condition

a)

analytical sensitivity

b)

diagnostic sensitivity

c)

analytical specificity

d)

diagnostic specificity

53.

probability of an individual having the disease if the result is abnormal

a)

positive predictive value

b)

Negative predictive value

54.

probability that a patient does not have a disease if a result is within the reference range

a)

positive predictive value

b)

Negative predictive value

55.

establishing reference intervals

a)

120 healthy individuals need

b)

200 healthy individuals need

c)

150 healthy individuals need

56.

validating reference intervals from books

a)

40 healthy individuals need

b)

80 healthy individuals need

c)

100 healthy individuals need

57.

all true except

a)

the most common needle size for adult venipuncture is 21 gauge with a length of 1 inch; venipuncture uses 15-30 angle

b)

butterfly collection uses 23 gauge needle

c)

temperature and amount of blood draw is inversely related

d)

higher altitude, draw volume is higher

e)

light sensitive additive includes citrate, theophylline, adenosine, and dipyridamole

58.

most evacuated tubes on the market have atleast how many months of shelf life

a)

8

b)

12

c)

14

d)

4

59.

White stopper tube is for

a)

EDTA; Blood banking

b)

EDTA; Molecular

c)

EDTA; Hematology

d)

EDTA; Trace elements

e)

EDTA; Lead

60.

Tan stopper tube is for

a)

EDTA; Blood banking

b)

EDTA; Molecular

c)

EDTA; Hematology

d)

EDTA; Trace elements

e)

EDTA; Lead

61.

Royal blue stopper tube is for

a)

EDTA; Blood banking

b)

EDTA; Molecular

c)

EDTA; Hematology

d)

EDTA; Trace elements

e)

EDTA; Lead

62.

green stopper tube is for

a)

sodium citrate; coagulation

b)

sodium heparin; coagulation

c)

lithium heparin; chemistry

d)

clot activator; chemistry

63.

orange stopper tube is for

a)

sodium citrate; coagulation

b)

sodium heparin; coagulation

c)

thrombin; chemistry

d)

clot activator; chemistry

64.

correct order of tube

a)

light blue - yellow - red - green - blue - gray

b)

gray - yellow - tan - pink - lavender - blue

c)

yellow - blue - red - green - lavender - gray

d)

blue - red - green - pink - yellow - gray

65.

correct order of tube

a)

SPS - Sodium citrate - non-additive - lithium heparin - EDTA - sodium fluoride

b)

SPS - Sodium fluoride - sodium citrate - clot activator - heparin - EDTA - Trace elements

c)

yellcoagulation tubes - microbiology - chemistry - hematology - chemistry

66.

increase analytes when standing

a)

cholesterol, albumin, calcium, aldosterone

b)

cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines

c)

lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas, ionized calcium

d)

ACTH, Cortisol, aldosterone, iron

e)

parathyroid hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, acid phosphatase, growth hormone

67.

increase analytes when stress

a)

cholesterol, albumin, calcium, aldosterone

b)

cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines

c)

lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas, ionized calcium

d)

ACTH, Cortisol, aldosterone, iron

e)

parathyroid hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, acid phosphatase, growth hormone

68.

analytes that require ice slurry/chilled

a)

cholesterol, albumin, calcium, aldosterone

b)

cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines

c)

lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas, ionized calcium

d)

ACTH, Cortisol, aldosterone, iron

e)

parathyroid hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, acid phosphatase, growth hormone

69.

increased analytes in AM

a)

cholesterol, albumin, calcium, aldosterone

b)

cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines

c)

lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas, ionized calcium

d)

ACTH, Cortisol, aldosterone, iron

e)

parathyroid hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, acid phosphatase, growth hormone

70.

increased analytes in PM

a)

cholesterol, albumin, calcium, aldosterone

b)

cortisol, ACTH, catecholamines

c)

lactic acid, ammonia, blood gas, ionized calcium

d)

ACTH, Cortisol, aldosterone, iron

e)

parathyroid hormone, thyroid stimulating hormone, acid phosphatase, growth hormone

71.

Pipet that holds a volume but does not dispense the exact volume

a)

to contain

b)

to deliver

72.

with etched ring

a)

blowout

b)

tself-draining

73.

serologic and ostwald-folin

a)

blowout

b)

tself-draining

74.

measuring/graduated

a)

mohr and serologic

b)

ostwald folin and volumetric

75.

self draining graduated pipet

a)

mohr

b)

ostwald folin

c)

serologic

d)

volumetric

76.

transfer and blowout pipet

a)

mohr

b)

ostwald folin

c)

serologic

d)

volumetric

77.

graduated and blowout pipet

a)

mohr

b)

ostwald folin

c)

serologic

d)

volumetric

78.

transfer and self draining pipet, oval bulb is in the center of the pipet

a)

mohr

b)

ostwald folin

c)

serologic

d)

volumetric

79.

piston and sample is not in contact to avoid contamination

a)

air displacement pipette

b)

positive displacement pipette

80.

recommended for problem samples and has a disposable piston

a)

air displacement pipette

b)

positive displacement pipette

81.

the cups holding the tubes occupy in a vertical position but when it revolves, the tubes assume horizontal position

a)

horizontal head centrifuge

b)

fixed angle centrifuge

c)

ultracentrifuge

d)

cytocentrifuge

82.

high speed centrifuge

a)

horizontal head centrifuge

b)

fixed angle centrifuge

c)

ultracentrifuge

d)

cytocentrifuge

83.

purpose is to spread monolayer of cells rapidly across a special slide

a)

horizontal head centrifuge

b)

fixed angle centrifuge

c)

ultracentrifuge

d)

cytocentrifuge

84.

measuring its absorption of light at a particular wavelength and comparing it with the absorption of light by known standard solutions measured at the same time and at the same wavelength

a)

absorbance spectrophotometry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

densitometry

d)

potentiometry

85.

measurement of the light transmitted by a solution to determine the concentration of light-absorbing substances in the solution

a)

absorbance spectrophotometry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

densitometry

d)

potentiometry

86.

quantitative profile of the separated protein fractions

a)

absorbance spectrophotometry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

densitometry

d)

electrochemistry

87.

measurement of current or voltage generated by the activity of specific ion

a)

absorbance spectrophotometry

b)

spectrophotometry

c)

densitometry

d)

electrochemistry

88.

<380 nm

a)

ultraviolet; very short wavelength

b)

violet

c)

blue

d)

green

e)

orange

89.

380-440 nm

a)

ultraviolet; very short wavelength

b)

violet

c)

blue

d)

green

e)

orange

90.

Infrared regions

a)

incandescent tungsten

b)

tungsten iodide

c)

deuterium discharge lamp

d)

mercury arc lamp

91.

All true except;

a)

entrance slit: minimizes unwanted light; prevents the entrance of scattered light

b)

monochromator: isolates individual wavelength of light

c)

spectrophotometer uses glass filters

d)

exit slit: controls the bandpass

e)

photodetector: converts the electromagnetic radiation transmitted by a solution into an electrical energy

92.

measures light absorbed by ground state

a)

atomic absorption spectrophotometer

b)

fluorometry

c)

turbidimetry

d)

nephelometry

93.

atoms absorb light of specific wavelength and emit light of longer wavelength

a)

atomic absorption spectrophotometer

b)

fluorometry

c)

turbidimetry

d)

nephelometry

94.

determines the amount of light blocked by a matter in a turbid solution

a)

atomic absorption spectrophotometer

b)

fluorometry

c)

turbidimetry

d)

nephelometry

95.

determines the amount of scattered light by a particulate matter suspended in a turbid solution

a)

atomic absorption spectrophotometer

b)

fluorometry

c)

turbidimetry

d)

nephelometry

96.

dyes for lipoproteins except

a)

coomassie brilliant blue

b)

amido black

c)

oil red o

d)

sudan black

97.

dyes for proteins except

a)

coomassie brilliant blue

b)

amido black

c)

oil red o

d)

ponceau S

98.

system that measures change in electrical potential between a detecting electrode and a standard referece electrode in which current is kept constant

a)

potentiometry

b)

coulometry

c)

amperometry

d)

voltammetry

99.

measurement of the amount of electricity in cuolombs at fixed potential; can be used to measure chloride

a)

potentiometry

b)

coulometry

c)

amperometry

d)

voltammetry

100.

measurement of current flow; clarke electrode

a)

potentiometry

b)

coulometry

c)

amperometry

d)

voltammetry

101.

measurement of current after a potential is applied

a)

potentiometry

b)

coulometry

c)

amperometry

d)

voltammetry

102.

electrode to measure potassium

(a)  

103.

most common electrode used and a reference electrode

(a)  

104.

metabolism of glucose molecule to pyruvate or lactate for production of energy

a)

glycolysis

b)

gluconeogenesis

c)

glycogenolysis

d)

glycogenesis

105.

formation of glucose 6 phosphate from noncarbohydrate sources

a)

glycolysis

b)

gluconeogenesis

c)

glycogenolysis

d)

glycogenesis

106.

breakdown of glycogen to glucose

a)

glycolysis

b)

gluconeogenesis

c)

glycogenolysis

d)

glycogenesis

107.

conversion of glucose to glycogen for storage

a)

glycolysis

b)

gluconeogenesis

c)

glycogenolysis

d)

glycogenesis

108.

where does human body store glucose as glycogen

a)

liver

b)

kidney

c)

cardiac muscle

d)

skeletal muscle

109.

conversion of carbohydrates to fatty acid

(a)  

110.

decomposition of fat for energy

(a)  

111.

true about insulin except

a)

only hypoglycemic hormone

b)

produced by the alpha cells

c)

stimulate glycolysis, glycogenolysis, and lipogenesis

d)

promote the conversion of glucose into pyruvate

112.

true about glucagon except

a)

secondary hyperglycemic hormone

b)

produced in alpha cells

c)

promotes glycogenolysis

d)

promotes conversion of glycogen to glucose

113.

Whipples triad in hypoglycemic

a)

typical symptoms seen

b)

blood glucose levels

c)

symptoms not alleviated after medication

d)

symptoms alleviated after medication

114.

true about diabetes mellitus except

a)

increased glucose in urine if exceeds 160-180 mg/dl renal threshold

b)

ketones in urine

c)

3 P's

d)

increased sodium, decreased potassium

115.

insulin resistant

a)

type I DM

b)

Type II DM

116.

resting plasma glucose: 138 mg/dL

2hr OGTT: 128 MG/dL

Fasting plasma glucose: 78 mg/dL

HBA1C: 3.6%

a)

Normal blood glucose

b)

Impaired blood glucose

c)

diagnostic for DM

117.

Diagnostic value of DM in 2HR OGTT

a)

MORE THAN 200 MG/DL

b)

MORE THAN 126 MG/DL

c)

MORE THAN 6.5%

118.

choose the incorrect math

a)

folin wu method: phosphomolybdic acid: greenish blue

b)

nelson somogy method: arsenomolybdic: blue

c)

neocuproine method: neocuproine: colorless

d)

hagedorn jensen method: colorless

119.

reference method for glucose

(a)  

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