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INTRO TO POLYSOMN & CHANELS

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient on PSG shows frequent arousals but no oxygen desaturation. What channel should the technologist check next?

a)

Oxygen saturation

b)

EEG

c)

Nasal airflow

2.

A patient undergoing Level III sleep study must have at least which parameters?

a)

EEG and video

b)

Airflow, oximetry, chest effort

c)

Leg EMG

3.

A technologist notes paradoxical chest and abdominal movement during apnea. What is this?

a)

Central apnea

b)

Obstructive apnea

c)

Complex apnea

4.

During PSG, the technologist increases low-frequency filter to 1 Hz. Why?

a)

To reduce sweating artifacts

b)

To detect apnea better

c)

To amplify K-complexes

5.

A patient’s EEG shows K-complexes with spindles. Which stage of sleep is this?

a)

N1

b)

N2

c)

N3

6.

A patient with obesity hypoventilation syndrome is suspected. Which channel provides best supporting data?

a)

Body position

b)

Capnography

c)

ECG

7.

A PSG shows apnea without thoracic effort. What type of apnea is this?

a)

Central

b)

Obstructive

c)

Mixed

8.

During HST, nasal airflow sensor detaches. Which parameter becomes unreliable?

a)

Oximetry

b)

Airflow

c)

ECG

9.

A PSG shows bursts in anterior tibialis EMG during sleep. What condition is likely?

a)

REM behavior disorder

b)

Periodic limb movement disorder

c)

Central apnea

10.

A patient with suspected nocturnal GERD requires which additional channel?

a)

Esophageal pH monitoring

b)

Chin EMG

c)

Nasal airflow

11.

A technologist observes artifacts caused by impedance difference between electrodes. What should be done?

a)

Reapply electrode paste

b)

Increase sampling rate

c)

Switch to chest leads

12.

A PSG shows apnea events only in REM sleep. What does this suggest?

a)

Central apnea

b)

REM-related OSA

c)

PLMS

13.

A patient with seizures is referred for PSG. Which setup is most important?

a)

Extended EEG montage

b)

Video infrared camera

c)

Chin EMG only

14.

A patient shows improved oxygenation after PAP titration but continues to arouse. What is the next adjustment?

a)

Increase PAP pressure

b)

Decrease PAP pressure

c)

End titration early

15.

Which parameter distinguishes PLMS from EEG arousal?

a)

Chin EMG

b)

Leg EMG

c)

EOG

16.

A technologist sees downward deflections on EEG. Conventionally, this indicates:

a)

Negative polarity

b)

Positive polarity

c)

Artifact

17.

A patient’s ECG shows distortion from muscle activity. What adjustment reduces this?

a)

Use differential amplifier

b)

Increase gain

c)

Remove airflow sensors

18.

A patient with apnea events but stable SpO₂ most likely has:

a)

Central apnea with preserved oxygenation

b)

Severe OSA

c)

PLMS disorder

19.

A PSG shows mixed apnea. Which feature defines this?

a)

Starts as central, ends obstructive

b)

Both apnea and hypopnea

c)

Always occurs in REM

20.

A technologist suspects nocturnal parasomnia. Which recording is most valuable?

a)

Nasal airflow

b)

Infrared video

c)

Chin EMG

21.

A patient’s EEG shows high-amplitude slow waves and low EMG tone. What sleep stage is this?

a)

N2

b)

N3

c)

REM

22.

A PSG shows REM without atonia in chin EMG. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

REM behavior disorder

c)

PLMS

23.

A PSG reveals stable EEG but frequent desaturations. What should be checked next?

a)

ECG

b)

Thoracic and abdominal belts

c)

Chin EMG

24.

A PSG technologist finds frequent power line interference at 60 Hz. Which filter corrects this?

a)

Low-frequency

b)

Notch filter

c)

High-frequency

25.

A patient undergoing HST fails due to frequent sensor detachment. What is the best prevention?

a)

Increase sampling rate

b)

Patient education on sensor placement

c)

Use extended EEG montage

26.

A PSG shows airflow reduction with oxygen desaturation and increased respiratory effort. What type of event is this?

a)

Central hypopnea

b)

Obstructive hypopnea

c)

Mixed apnea

27.

A patient’s EOG electrodes detect corneal-positive deflections. What does this signify?

a)

Sleep spindles

b)

Eye movements

c)

PLMS bursts

28.

A technologist increases high-frequency filter on EEG channels. What is the purpose?

a)

Reduce sweat artifact

b)

Reduce muscle artifact

c)

Enhance slow waves

29.

A PSG shows chin EMG bursts during REM sleep. What condition is indicated?

a)

Narcolepsy

b)

REM behavior disorder

c)

Central apnea

30.

During titration, CPAP causes new-onset central apneas. What is this called?

a)

Mixed apnea

b)

Complex sleep apnea

c)

PLMS disorder

31.

A patient’s ECG shows arrhythmia during desaturation. Which channel combination is most useful?

a)

EEG + EMG

b)

ECG + SpO₂

c)

EOG + airflow

32.

A PSG shows apnea events with paradoxical thoracic and abdominal movements. This indicates:

a)

Central apnea

b)

Obstructive apnea

c)

Seizure activity

33.

A patient with suspected seizures needs which additional monitoring during PSG?

a)

Leg EMG

b)

Extended EEG

c)

Capnography

34.

A home sleep test report is negative, but patient remains highly symptomatic. What should be done?

a)

Prescribe CPAP immediately

b)

Repeat in-lab PSG

c)

Use video recording only

35.

A PSG shows high-amplitude slow waves and spindles are absent. Which stage is this?

a)

N2

b)

N3

c)

REM

36.

A patient’s airflow sensor fails. What alternative should be used?

a)

Pressure transducer

b)

Video infrared camera

c)

Body position sensor

37.

A PSG shows apnea with no airflow or chest effort. What type of apnea is this?

a)

Obstructive

b)

Central

c)

Mixed

38.

A patient has recurrent desaturations only during REM sleep. This suggests:

a)

PLMS disorder

b)

REM-related OSA

c)

Central apnea

39.

A PSG technologist applies skin prep before electrode placement. What is the main reason?

a)

To reduce sweating

b)

To lower impedance

c)

To amplify EEG

40.

A patient’s PSG shows frequent leg EMG bursts every 25 seconds. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

REM behavior disorder

b)

Periodic limb movement disorder

c)

Narcolepsy

41.

A technologist notes that both EEG inputs show equal potentials. What will the amplifier output be?

a)

Positive deflection

b)

Zero signal

c)

Negative deflection

42.

A PSG reveals sleep onset in 3 minutes and multiple SOREMPs. What is the likely diagnosis?

a)

OSA

b)

Narcolepsy

c)

Insomnia

43.

A patient with severe OSA cannot tolerate high CPAP pressures. What adjustment is best?

a)

Reduce pressure permanently

b)

Switch to BiPAP

c)

Stop PAP therapy

44.

A PSG technologist identifies movement artifacts contaminating EEG. Which step helps most?

a)

Tighten headgear

b)

Reapply electrode gel

c)

Increase sampling rate

45.

A PSG reveals abnormal movements with normal EEG and airflow. Which disorder is likely?

a)

Parasomnia

b)

OSA

c)

PLMS

46.

A PSG shows apnea beginning as central then progressing to obstruction. What type is this?

a)

Mixed apnea

b)

Complex apnea

c)

Central apnea

47.

A patient suspected of OSA undergoes PSG with PAP titration. Which channel confirms therapeutic pressure adequacy?

a)

Nasal airflow

b)

Chin EMG

c)

EOG

48.

A PSG technologist detects continuous 60 Hz artifact. Which filter should be applied?

a)

Notch filter

b)

High-frequency filter

c)

Low-frequency filter

49.

A patient has stable EEG but frequent arousals with PLMS. Which finding confirms diagnosis?

a)

Nasal airflow reduction

b)

Repetitive leg EMG bursts

c)

EOG spikes

50.

A PSG shows stable sleep but rising transcutaneous CO₂ levels. What condition is suggested?

a)

PLMS disorder

b)

Hypoventilation

c)

Narcolepsy