WorksheetsFE TEO 200
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which probability distribution is appropriate for modeling the number of successes in a fixed number of trials?
a)
Binomial distribution
b)
Normal distribution
c)
Poisson distribution
d)
Exponential distribution
2.
A data set has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5. If a value of 60 is added to the data set, what happens to the mean?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
d)
Cannot be determined
3.
Which of the following societies is known for its focus on civil engineering and its standards for professional practice?
a)
IEEE
b)
ASCE
c)
NSPE
d)
AIChE
4.
Which document contains the NCEES Rules of Professional Conduct?
a)
The Engineering Standards Manual.
b)
The Model Rules.
c)
The National Ethics Guide.
d)
The Professional Conduct Manual.
5.
Which statement correctly describes a similarity between the ASCE and NSPE codes of ethics?
a)
Both emphasize the importance of financial gain in engineering decisions.
b)
Both stress the need for public welfare and safety in engineering practice.
c)
Both prioritize the interests of private corporations over public interests.
d)
Both codes do not address issues of environmental impact.
6.
What type of issues arise when terms in the code of ethics are not clearly defined?
a)
Ethical dilemmas.
b)
Conceptual issues.
c)
Technical issues.
d)
Regulatory issues.
7.
What should an engineer do if they discover a potential hazard in a project they are working on?
a)
Keep it confidential to avoid panic
b)
Report the hazard to their supervisor and take steps to mitigate it
c)
Follow the overruling instructions without question
d)
Seek advice from colleagues
8.
Which term describes a professional’s failure to meet the standard of care, resulting in harm or damage?
a)
Risk assessment
b)
Negligence
c)
Risk management
d)
Liability
9.
What is professional liability insurance primarily used for in engineering practice?
a)
To cover personal health expenses
b)
To protect against claims of negligence or errors in professional services
c)
To ensure engineering projects against natural disasters
d)
To cover the costs of engineering software
10.
If an engineer makes an error in their design that leads to a building collapse, what type of liability are they most likely facing?
a)
Criminal liability
b)
Strict liability
c)
Professional liability
d)
Vicarious liability
11.
In the context of professional liability, what does the term “standard of care” refer to?
a)
The highest level of care possible
b)
The ordinary level of skill and care commonly used by competent practitioners in the field
c)
The minimal acceptable level of service
d)
The care level stipulated by the client
12.
Which of the following is an example of a professional liability issue?
a)
An engineer failing to renew their professional license
b)
An engineer being late to a project meeting
c)
An engineer’s design error causing structural failure
d)
An engineer accepting a new job offer
13.
What is the primary purpose of having a professional liability clause in an engineering contract?
a)
To outline project timelines
b)
To specify payment terms
c)
To allocate responsibility for errors and omissions
d)
To describe project deliverables
14.
An engineer can reduce their professional liability risk by:
a)
Avoiding all high-profile projects
b)
Maintaining thorough and accurate documentation
c)
Delegating all tasks to subordinates
d)
Working without professional liability insurance
15.
In a professional liability claim, what is the role of expert witnesses?
a)
To provide financial compensation
b)
To offer technical expertise and opinions
c)
To draft the initial contract
d)
To represent the parties in court
16.
Which of the following actions could lead to a professional liability claim against an engineer?
a)
Volunteering for a community project
b)
Publishing a technical paper
c)
Ignoring safety standards in a project design
d)
Attending a professional conference
17.
How does a professional engineer qualify for licensure by comity?
a)
By passing a jurisdiction-specific engineering examination
b)
By holding an active NCEES Council Record or a license from another jurisdiction with comparable standards
c)
By working in the jurisdiction for at least five years
d)
By submitting additional educational qualifications beyond a bachelor's degree
18.
Who sets the education, experience, and examination requirements for licensure as a professional engineer or surveyor?
a)
The National Society of Professional Engineers (NSPE)
b)
The jurisdiction’s licensing board
c)
The American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE)
d)
The U.S. Department of Education
19.
What must a licensed engineer do if they discover a safety issue in a project they are working on?
a)
Ignore it if it is not within their direct responsibility.
b)
Attempt to fix it themselves without informing anyone
c)
Wait until the project is completed before addressing it
d)
Notify their employer or client and, if necessary, the appropriate authorities.
20.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding licensure by comity for a professional engineer?
a)
Comity licensure allows an engineer to practice in any jurisdiction without board approval
b)
Comity licensure requires an additional PE exam in all cases
c)
An individual with an active NCEES Council Record may be licensed without further examination, except for knowledge of jurisdiction-specific laws
d)
Comity licensure is granted only to engineers with over 10 years of experience
21.
What is required for licensure as a professional engineer if an applicant holds a certificate of licensure from another jurisdiction?
a)
The applicant must retake all engineering exams
b)
The applicant may be licensed without further examination, except for jurisdiction-specific laws
c)
The applicant must complete an additional 2 years of experience
d)
The applicant must enroll in a new EAC/ABET-accredited engineering program
22.
What accreditation body must approve an engineering program for it to be considered for licensure eligibility?
a)
National Society of Professional Engineers (NSPE)
b)
Engineering Accreditation Commission of ABET (EAC/ABET)
c)
American Society of Civil Engineers (ASCE)
d)
Institution of Mechanical Engineers (IMechE)
23.
What is the primary purpose of the Principles and Practice of Engineering (PE) examination?
a)
To test the applicant's understanding of engineering ethics
b)
To assess the applicant’s fundamental engineering knowledge
c)
To evaluate an applicant’s ability to practice engineering at a professional level
d)
To determine an applicant's managerial and leadership skills
24.
Which of the following statements about experience requirements for licensure is FALSE?
a)
An individual with a master's degree in engineering may need only three years of experience.
b)
An individual with a doctoral degree in engineering and who has passed the FE exam may need only two years of experience.
c)
Experience credit can be earned while simultaneously completing a graduate degree.
d)
A doctoral degree in engineering may reduce the experience requirement but does not eliminate it entirely.
25.
What is the primary purpose of requiring references for licensure?
a)
To verify the applicant’s financial stability
b)
To ensure the applicant has a good reputation and character
c)
To confirm the applicant’s academic qualifications
d)
To assess the applicant’s leadership skills
26.
Which of the following is a condition under which an applicant may be licensed as a Professional Engineer without taking the PE exam?
a)
If they have over 15 years of experience in engineering
b)
If they hold an active Council Record with NCEES and meet all jurisdictional requirements
c)
If they have earned a PhD in engineering
d)
If they have completed a training program with a professional engineering firm
27.
Why is licensure by comity important for engineers?
a)
It allows engineers to practice internationally
b)
It simplifies the process of obtaining a license in multiple states
c)
It provides financial benefits
d)
It is required for federal projects
28.
What is the role of the NCEES in the licensure process?
a)
NCEES directly licenses all professional engineers.
b)
NCEES develops and administers the FE and PE examinations.
c)
NCEES sets the specific experience requirements for each state.
d)
NCEES investigates complaints against licensed engineers.
29.
What is a common remedy for a breach of contract?
a)
Awarding damages to the injured party
b)
Ignoring the breach if it is minor
c)
Allowing the breaching party to continue without penalty
d)
Terminating the contract without any compensation
30.
What does the term “offer” mean in the context of contract law?
a)
A general proposal for a project
b)
A manifestation of willingness to enter into a bargain
c)
An informal discussion about potential work
d)
A final agreement between parties
31.
What does “consideration” mean in a contract?
a)
A promise to do something in the future
b)
A review of the contract terms by a lawyer
c)
Something of value exchanged between parties
d)
A non-binding suggestion
32.
A construction contract specifies that disputes will be resolved through arbitration. Which of the following is true about arbitration in this context?
a)
The decision is generally non-binding and easily appealable.
b)
Arbitration is often faster and less costly than traditional litigation.
c)
Arbitration proceedings are public records accessible to the media.
d)
Legal counsel is usually prohibited in arbitration proceedings.
33.
What is the primary purpose of a liquidated damages clause in a contract?
a)
To waive the right to sue for specific performance
b)
To compensate the non-breaching party for specific damages
c)
To outline payment schedules
d)
To describe project deliverable
34.
Which of the following actions constitutes a breach of contract?
a)
Completing a project ahead of schedule
b)
Modifying the project scope with mutual agreement
c)
Failing to perform contractual duties without a valid reason
d)
Voluntarily attending a training session
35.
What does the term “specific performance” refer to in contract law?
a)
The requirement for a party to fulfill their contractual obligations as agreed
b)
The cancellation of a contract due to non-performance
c)
The negotiation process for contract terms
d)
The introduction of new project tasks
36.
In contract law, what is meant by “mitigation of damages”?
a)
The requirement to reduce the severity of damages after a breach occurs
b)
The cancellation of a contract
c)
The process of negotiating new contract terms
d)
The enhancement of project scope
37.
What type of cost remains constant regardless of the production level?
a)
Variable cost
b)
Fixed cost
c)
Opportunity cost
d)
Marginal cost
38.
Which of the following is considered an intangible cost in an engineering project?
a)
Equipment rental fees
b)
Labor wages
c)
Loss of public trust
d)
Future raw material costs
39.
Which of the following is an example of a sunk cost in a project evaluation?
a)
Initial investment for a feasibility study
b)
Expected revenue from the project
c)
Upcoming utility bills
d)
Future raw material costs
40.
What type of cost is incurred only if a particular decision is made?
a)
Fixed cost
b)
Avoidable cost
c)
Opportunity cost
d)
Sunk cost
41.
At what point does breakeven occur in breakeven analysis?
a)
When total revenue equals total cost
b)
When fixed costs equal variable costs
c)
When marginal cost equals marginal revenue
d)
When profit is maximized
42.
What is the term for an analysis that evaluates the total cost of ownership of a project, including all phases from inception to disposal?
a)
Cost/Benefit Analysis
b)
Breakeven Analysis
c)
Life Cycle Cost Analysis
d)
Sensitivity Analysis
43.
Which analysis method considers the time value of money when evaluating project alternatives?
a)
Payback period
b)
Internal rate of return
c)
Average rate of return
d)
Net present value
44.
A renewable energy project has a benefit-cost ratio of 1.5. What does this imply about the project’s feasibility?
a)
The project is not feasible
b)
The project is marginally feasible
c)
The project is feasible
d)
The project has a net loss
45.
Which of the following is considered when performing a life-cycle cost analysis?
a)
Initial costs only
b)
Operating costs only
c)
Maintenance costs only
d)
All of the above
46.
Which analysis method is primarily used to assess the impact of varying key input parameters on the project outcome?
a)
Expected value analysis
b)
Sensitivity analysis
c)
Risk analysis
d)
Cost/Benefit analysis
47.
If a civil engineer uses a decision tree to evaluate project risks, which of the following is NOT a typical component of a decision tree?
a)
Decision nodes
b)
Chance nodes
c)
Branches representing possible outcomes
d)
A cost-benefit analysis chart
48.
A civil engineer is considering a project with uncertain future cash flows. To account for the uncertainty, the engineer uses a range of discount rates to calculate a range of NPVs. This approach is known as:
a)
Scenario analysis
b)
Monte Carlo simulation
c)
Sensitivity analysis
d)
Break-even analysis
49.
A structure is in equilibrium under the action of four coplanar forces. The forces form a closed polygon when represented in a vector diagram. Which of the following is true?
a)
The resultant of the four forces must be zero.
b)
The sum of the moments about any point is non-zero.
c)
The forces must be perpendicular.
d)
The forces must be collinear.
50.
Which of the following is true about an area's centroid?
a)
The middle of a shape is always where the area’s centroid is.
b)
The area’s center is the point where a thin, even layer of material would make the area exactly balanced.
c)
This means that the center of an area is always on the shape's edge.
d)
The highest point of a shape is always where the center of an area is.
51.
Which option best describes a stiff body in motion around a fixed axis?
a)
A body's mass is the sole determinant of its mass moment of inertia.
b)
The moment of inertia of a mass is proportional to its distribution with respect to the rotational axis.
c)
Every direction of rotation has the same mass moment of inertia.
d)
Body form is irrelevant to the mass moment of inertia.
52.
A steel beam having a cross section of T-shape. The symmetrical applied moment is applied on the center of a beam. What will be the flexural stress at the neutral axis of the T-Shape beam?
a)
Maximum
b)
Zero
c)
The stress in uncertain
d)
None of the above
53.
In an oxidation-reduction reaction, if zinc is oxidized and copper is reduced, what is the oxidation state change of zinc?
a)
From 0 to +2
b)
From +1 to +2 C
c)
From +2 to 0
d)
From 0 to +1
54.
Which of the following is a primary advantage of using the State Plane Coordinate System (SPCS) over geographic coordinates (latitude and longitude) for surveying purposes?
a)
SPCS provides global coverage.
b)
SPCS simplifies calculations by using a Cartesian grid system.
c)
SPCS is based on a spherical Earth model.
d)
SPCS is universally used for all international projects.
55.
In differential leveling, which action is performed to minimize the effect of collimation error?
a)
Using long sight lengths for both backsight and foresight readings.
b)
Using shorter sight lengths for both backsight and foresight readings.
c)
Setting up the leveling instrument equidistant from the backsight and foresight points.
d)
Taking multiple readings from different instrument setups and averaging the results.
56.
Which of the following best describes the principle of the hydrologic cycle?
a)
The continuous movement of water between the atmosphere, land, and oceans.
b)
The process by which water is purified and made safe for drinking.
c)
The method used to calculate the discharge in rivers and streams.
d)
The technique for determining the groundwater recharge rate.
57.
In the context of precipitation measurement, what is the significance of the Thiessen polygon method?
a)
It is used to determine the average depth of rainfall over a watershed by dividing the area into sub-regions based on the proximity of rainfall gauges.
b)
It calculates the evaporation rate from open water surfaces.
c)
It estimates the groundwater flow into rivers and streams.
d)
It measures the intensity and duration of a rainfall event.
58.
What is the primary purpose of a hydrograph in hydrology?
a)
To show the relationship between precipitation and evaporation.
b)
To illustrate the variation of streamflow or river discharge over time.
c)
To measure the depth of groundwater.
d)
To calculate the infiltration rate of soil.
59.
In hydrology, what is the primary factor that affects the infiltration capacity of soil?
a)
The mineral content of the soil.
b)
The temperature of the soil surface.
c)
The initial moisture content of the soil.
d)
The pH level of the soil.
60.
What is the primary purpose of using a rating curve in hydrology?
a)
To determine the relationship between streamflow and groundwater levels.
b)
To establish a relationship between the stage (water level) of a river and its discharge.
c)
To calculate the evaporation rate from a water body.
d)
To measure the infiltration capacity of different soil types.
61.
Which of the following best describes the principle of operation of a centrifugal pump?
a)
It uses positive displacement to move fluids.
b)
It converts kinetic energy to pressure energy using a rotating impeller.
c)
It moves fluids by trapping a fixed amount and forcing it through the pump’s discharge.
d)
It utilizes a piston to create suction and discharge actions.
62.
What is the primary purpose of a pump curve in the selection and operation of a pump?
a)
To calculate the exact flow rate for any pipe diameter.
b)
To determine the maximum efficiency point for a given head and flow.
c)
To estimate the total power consumption of the entire system.
d)
To standardize pump models across different manufacturers.
63.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a water distribution system in urban areas?
a)
To provide irrigation for agricultural lands.
b)
To transport potable water from treatment plants to consumers efficiently and reliably.
c)
To manage stormwater runoff and prevent flooding.
d)
To facilitate wastewater treatment and disposal.
64.
In the context of water distribution systems, what is the primary function of a hydraulic grade line (HGL)?
a)
To indicate the velocity of water in the pipes.
b)
To measure the amount of water consumed by end users.
c)
To represent the energy available to move water through the system
d)
To control the chemical composition of the water.
65.
In the design of water distribution systems, why is it important to consider the peak demand factor?
a)
To ensure that the system can handle the maximum possible water demand at any given time.
b)
To minimize the cost of water treatment.
c)
To calculate the average daily water usage.
d)
To control the chemical treatment process for water purification.
66.
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a detention basin in flood control?
a)
To permanently store excess floodwater.
b)
To temporarily store stormwater runoff and release it at a controlled rate.
c)
To increase the infiltration of stormwater into the groundwater
d)
To prevent all sediment runoff from entering natural waterways.
67.
What is the primary function of a levee in flood management?
a)
To facilitate groundwater recharge.
b)
To contain or redirect floodwater and protect adjacent land.
c)
To increase the capacity of rivers to carry flow.
d)
To measure flood intensity.
68.
What does the term "return period" refer to in flood control?
a)
The time required for stormwater to reach a river.
b)
The duration of the flooding event from start to finish.
c)
The average interval of time between floods of a certain intensity or size.
d)
The time required to evacuate an area before a flood.
69.
Which of the following flood control methods is most effective for reducing peak discharge in urban areas?
a)
Constructing high dams.
b)
Implementing green roofs and permeable pavements.
c)
Deepening and widening river channels.
d)
Building concrete floodwalls.
70.
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a stormwater detention basin?
a)
To permanently store stormwater runoff.
b)
To reduce the peak discharge rate by temporarily holding stormwater and releasing it slowly.
c)
To increase the infiltration of stormwater into the groundwater system.
d)
To divert stormwater away from urban areas.
71.
What is the primary function of a stormwater infiltration trench?
a)
To reduce the peak flow velocity of stormwater runoff.
b)
To prevent soil erosion and stabilize slopes.
c)
To promote the infiltration of stormwater into the subsoil.
d)
To measure the total volume of stormwater runoff over a given period.
72.
Which of the following best explains the purpose of a sediment trap?
a)
It increases the velocity of stormwater runoff.
b)
It permanently stores hazardous materials from stormwater runoff.
c)
It removes coarse sediment from stormwater runoff before it enters the drainage system.
d)
It determines the infiltration capacity of different soil types.
73.
Which of the following best explains the purpose of green infrastructure in stormwater management?
a)
To increase the structural strength of urban buildings.
b)
To prevent groundwater contamination by eliminating infiltration
c)
To enhance the visual appeal of urban areas.
d)
To utilize natural processes to manage stormwater and improve
74.
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a combined sewer system?
a)
To transport only stormwater runoff to treatment facilities.
b)
To convey both sanitary sewage and stormwater runoff through a single pipe system.
c)
To separate industrial wastewater from residential sewage.
d)
To prevent groundwater infiltration into sewer pipes.
75.
What is the main purpose of an inverted siphon in a sewer collection system?
a)
To allow the sewer to pass under obstacles such as rivers or roads without the need for pumping.
b)
To increase the velocity of flow in sewer pipes.
c)
To separate solid and liquid components of the sewage.
d)
To aerate the sewage as it flows through the pipes.
76.
Which of the following is a primary consideration in the design of sewer pipes to prevent excessive sediment deposition?
a)
The color of the pipe material.
b)
The slope or gradient of the sewer pipe.
c)
The temperature of the sewage.
d)
The depth at which the sewer pipe is buried.
77.
In a sanitary sewer system, what is the primary reason for including manholes at regular intervals?
a)
To provide access for maintenance and inspection of the sewer pipes.
b)
To increase the flow velocity of sewage.
c)
To serve as storage points for excess sewage during peak flows.
d)
To reduce the overall cost of the sewer construction.
78.
Which of the following best describes the concept of an aquifer?
a)
A layer of impermeable rock that prevents the movement of groundwater.
b)
A geological formation that can store and transmit significant quantities of groundwater.
c)
A surface water body that recharges the groundwater system.
d)
A man-made structure designed to collect and store rainwater.
79.
What is the primary function of a piezometer in groundwater hydrology?
a)
To measure the chemical composition of groundwater.
b)
To recharge the groundwater system with treated wastewater.
c)
To extract groundwater for agricultural irrigation.
d)
To determine the hydraulic head at a specific point in an aquifer.
80.
In groundwater hydrology, what is meant by the term ”specific yield”?
a)
The total amount of water an aquifer can hold.
b)
The ratio of the volume of water that drains from a saturated rock due to gravity to the total volume of the rock.
c)
The rate at which groundwater is recharged from surface water
d)
The hydraulic conductivity of the saturated zone.
81.
In a drinking water treatment system, nitrification is a biological process where:
a)
Ammonia ($\text{NH}_3$) is converted to nitrate ($\text{NO}_3^-$)
b)
Organic matter is oxidized to carbon dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$)
c)
Pathogenic bacteria are neutralized by chlorination
d)
Heavy metals are removed by coagulation and flocculation
82.
What is the primary purpose of performing a Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) test on a water sample?
a)
To determine the concentration of dissolved oxygen in the water.
b)
To indicate the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water.
c)
To measure the acidity or alkalinity of the water sample.
d)
To evaluate the concentration of organic pollutants.
83.
What is the main objective of measuring turbidity in water quality analysis?
a)
To determine the concentration of dissolved oxygen.
b)
To assess the clarity of water by measuring the amount of suspended particles.
c)
To measure the water's color.
d)
To analyze the water's chemical composition.
84.
In the context of water quality testing, what is the primary purpose of using a control sample?
a)
To calibrate testing equipment.
b)
To provide a baseline for comparing test results and ensuring accuracy.
c)
To measure the temperature of the water sample.
d)
To determine the color of the water sample.
85.
What is the impact of increasing the span length of the pedestrian bridge on its maximum deflection?
a)
Increasing the span length decreases the maximum deflection.
b)
Increasing the span length has no effect on the maximum deflection.
c)
Increasing the span length increases the maximum deflection.
d)
Increasing the span length doesn’t change the deflection significantly.
86.
What is the effect of varying the central point load on the deflection of the warehouse beam?
a)
Varying the central point load decreases the deflection proportionally.
b)
Varying the central point load has no effect on the deflection.
c)
Varying the central point load increases the deflection proportionally.
d)
Varying the central point load slightly affects the deflection.
87.
What is the main drawback of using the graphical integration method?
a)
The calculations are tedious and prone to human error.
b)
This method is most applicable for cantilevers with varying loads
c)
The method is difficult to visualize and interpret.
d)
This method is most applicable for single-span beams.
88.
The Virtual Work Method is particularly useful in structural analysis for determining:
a)
The maximum load a structure can carry before failure.
b)
The stress distribution within complex materials.
c)
The deflections in a structure subjected to various loads.
d)
The natural frequencies of vibration of a structure.
89.
In the Virtual Work Method, which of the following statements is true?
a)
Virtual work is the product of virtual forces and real displacements.
b)
Virtual work is the product of real forces and real displacements.
c)
Virtual work is the product of real forces and virtual displacements.
d)
Virtual work is the sum of all external forces acting on the structure.
90.
How is the displacement determined using the Unit Load Method?
a)
Applying a unit load at the point where displacement is desired and calculating internal forces.
b)
Calculating the slope deflection equations and solving them simultaneously for all joints.
c)
Applying multiple loads simultaneously to all joints and measuring their combined effect.
d)
Using the stiffness matrix to solve for displacements directly
91.
Which of the following is a key advantage of using the Unit Load Method in structural analysis?
a)
It simplifies the calculation of internal forces by ignoring the effects of external loads.
b)
It allows for the determination of displacements in both statically determinate and indeterminate structures.
c)
It requires less computational power compared to the Finite Element Method.
d)
It provides exact solutions only for statically determinate structures.
92.
Which of the following best describes the Slope Deflection Method in structural analysis?
a)
It is a method used to calculate the shear forces and bending moments in statically determinate structures.
b)
It is a displacement method used to determine the moments and rotations at the ends of members in statically indeterminate structures.
c)
It is a force method used to find the internal forces and reactions in a structure subjected to dynamic loads.
d)
It is an approximate method used for analyzing complex 3D structures.
93.
In the Slope Deflection Method, which of the following assumptions is typically made?
a)
Axial deformations in the members are considered significant and are included in the analysis.
b)
Rotations at the supports are zero for all types of loading.
c)
Members are assumed to be rigid except at their ends where rotations occur.
d)
The method can only be applied to structures with uniform cross-sectional properties.
94.
Which of the following best describes Euler’s Critical Load for a column?
a)
The maximum load a column can support without any deformation.
b)
The load at which a column will fail due to material yield.
c)
The axial load at which a column becomes unstable and buckles.
d)
The maximum load a column can support with zero lateral displacement.
95.
What is the significance of the Effective Length Factor (K) in column analysis?
a)
It accounts for the material strength variability in the column.
b)
It modifies the physical length of the column to account for end support conditions.
c)
It determines the cross-sectional area required for compression members.
d)
It is used to calculate the moment of inertia of the column.
96.
In the context of column buckling, which of the following statements is true?
a)
Buckling occurs only in short columns with low slenderness ratios.
b)
The critical load for buckling is independent of the column’s length.
c)
Buckling is a failure mode that occurs due to compressive stresses causing lateral deflection.
d)
Buckling occurs only in columns made of brittle materials.
97.
In the context of structural stability, what is the primary characteristic of a stable structure?
a)
It is easily deformable under small loads.
b)
It maintains its geometry and does not collapse under a given set of loads.
c)
It requires few reaction components to maintain equilibrium.
d)
It is statically determinate.
98.
Which of the following conditions characterizes a statically indeterminate beam?
a)
The number of reaction components equals the number of equilibrium equations.
b)
The number of reaction components is greater than the number of equilibrium equations.
c)
The number of reaction components is less than the number of equilibrium equations.
d)
The beam has no external loads applied to it.
99.
What is the key difference between a statically determinate and a statically indeterminate frame?
a)
Determinate frames have only axial forces while indeterminate frames have bending moments.
b)
Determinate frames can be solved using only equilibrium equations, while indeterminate frames require additional compatibility conditions.
c)
Determinate frames are always stable, while indeterminate frames are always unstable.
d)
Determinate frames do not deform under load, while indeterminate frames do.
100.
Which of the following conditions indicates that a truss is unstable?
a)
$\text{m}+\text{r} = 2\text{j}$
b)
$\text{m}+\text{r} < 2\text{j}$
c)
$\text{m}+\text{r} > 2\text{j}$
d)
$\text{r} = 3$
101.
In the analysis of beams, what is the significance of the bending moment diagram?
a)
It shows the variation of shear force along the length of the beam.
b)
It indicates the internal moment distribution that helps in designing the beam for bending resistance.
c)
It provides the axial force distribution in the beam.
d)
It is used to calculate the deflection of the beam under load.
102.
Which of the following best describes a statically indeterminate truss?
a)
A truss with exactly the right number of members to maintain its shape.
b)
A truss that can be analyzed using only the method of sections.
c)
A truss with more members than necessary for maintaining its shape, requiring additional analysis for internal forces.
d)
A truss that is inherently unstable and will collapse under load.
103.
In the Moment Distribution Method, what is the significance of the distribution factor?
a)
It represents the proportion of an unbalanced moment that is distributed to a member at a joint.
b)
It determines the maximum moment that a beam can support.
c)
It defines the relationship between the applied load and the resulting deflection.
d)
It is used to calculate the fixed-end moments of a member.
104.
In the Stiffness Method, what do the elements of the stiffness matrix represent?
a)
The relationship between nodal displacements and applied loads.
b)
The relationship between internal forces and external reactions.
c)
The relationship between internal forces and moments in the frame.
d)
The deformation characteristics of the supports.
105.
Which of the following best describes the Stiffness Method in structural analysis?
a)
A method that uses compatibility conditions and internal flexibility to solve for unknowns.
b)
A method that directly relates applied forces to displacements using stiffness matrices.
c)
A method that uses the principle of virtual work to determine deflections.
d)
A method that simplifies the analysis by considering only axial forces.
106.
In the Moment Distribution Method, what is meant by the term ”carry-over moment”?
a)
A moment transferred to an adjacent member after a load is applied.
b)
The moment that remains in a member after redistribution.
c)
The portion of the moment at one end of a member that is carried over to the other end.
d)
The moment applied to the supports to maintain equilibrium.
107.
When applying the Superposition Method, why is it important to ensure that the structure remains elastic?
a)
To simplify the calculations by using linear equations.
b)
To ensure the validity of superimposing individual responses.
c)
To avoid permanent deformations that would invalidate the results.
d)
To ensure that the structure can carry the applied loads safely.
108.
What is the primary advantage of using the Flexibility Method for analyzing indeterminate structures?
a)
It simplifies the analysis by reducing the number of equations.
b)
It is well-suited for structures with a large number of members.
c)
It provides a direct solution for the internal forces and moments.
d)
It allows for easy incorporation of support settlements and member deformations.
109.
When using the Superposition Method, how are the effects of temperature changes typically accounted for?
a)
By including the thermal expansion coefficient in the material properties.
b)
By superimposing the deformations due to temperature changes with those due to mechanical loads.
c)
By modifying the load-carrying capacity of the structure.
d)
By adjusting the stiffness of the members.
110.
Which of the following best describes the importance of considering load combinations in structural design?
a)
To determine the maximum load a structure can support without failure.
b)
To ensure that the structure can safely resist various combinations of loads that may occur during its lifetime.
c)
To simplify the design process by reducing the number of load cases to be considered.
d)
To ensure that only the dead load is considered in the design.
111.
In a load path analysis, what is the primary role of a diaphragm in a building structure?
a)
To support vertical loads directly from the roof.
b)
To act as a primary structural element for resisting gravity loads.
c)
To increase the thermal efficiency of the building.
d)
To distribute lateral loads to the vertical resisting elements.
112.
Which of the following best describes the Load and Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) method?
a)
A design methodology that uses safety factors to account for uncertainties in load and material properties.
b)
A design approach that ensures structures are designed with a uniform level of reliability by using load and resistance factors.
c)
A traditional design method that relies solely on the allowable stress of materials.
d)
A method that only applies to the design of concrete structures.
113.
When considering the effective area of a bolted tension member, which of the following statements is true?
a)
The effective area is always equal to the gross area of the member.
b)
The effective area accounts for the reduction in area due to bolt holes.
c)
The effective area is determined by the yield strength of the steel.
d)
The effective area does not consider the type of bolts used.
114.
Which of the following factors does NOT directly influence the design tensile strength of a steel tension member?
a)
Yield strength of the steel.
b)
Gross and effective area of the member.
c)
Bolt hole size and spacing.
d)
Lateral-torsional buckling of the member.
115.
When analyzing block shear strength for a tension member, which of the following best describes the failure mechanism?
a)
Tearing of the member along the bolt line.
b)
Shearing and tensile rupture along a failure path involving both shear and tension.
c)
Crushing of the member under compressive loads.
d)
Buckling of the member under axial tension.
116.
In the context of designing steel components, what is the primary purpose of calculating the design strength?
a)
To ensure the structure can safely support the applied loads with an appropriate factor of safety.
b)
To determine the maximum load that can be applied to a structure without causing deformation.
c)
To minimize the weight of the steel components.
d)
To calculate the allowable deflection of structural members.
117.
What is the primary purpose of providing compression reinforcement in a reinforced concrete beam?
a)
To increase the beam's overall shear strength.
b)
To decrease the total cost of construction.
c)
To enhance the ductility and reduce long-term deflections.
d)
To prevent longitudinal cracking in the tension zone.
118.
What is the primary consideration in the shear design of reinforced concrete beams?
a)
The ratio of steel to concrete modulus of elasticity.
b)
The width-to-depth ratio of the beam cross-section.
c)
The design of stirrups or shear reinforcement to resist diagonal tensile stresses
d)
The ultimate compressive strain of the concrete.
119.
Why is the slenderness ratio an important parameter in the design of reinforced concrete columns?
a)
To simplify the calculation of the shear capacity.
b)
To account for the potential buckling of the column under axial loads.
c)
To determine the required cover depth for the reinforcement.
d)
To calculate the ultimate compressive strength of the concrete.
120.
Which test determines the optimal moisture content and maximum dry density of soil?
a)
Triaxial shear test
b)
Proctor compaction test
c)
Atterberg limits test
d)
Plate load test
121.
What is the primary cause of effective stress in soil mechanics?
a)
Capillary action
b)
Seepage forces
c)
Overburden pressure
d)
Soil particle interactions
122.
In a soil with capillary rise, how does the effective stress change above the water table?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Remains constant
d)
Initially decreases, then increases
123.
What factor primarily influences the factor of safety against liquefaction in a saturated sandy soil?
a)
Soil permeability
b)
Overburden stress
c)
Seismic loading
d)
Grain size distribution
124.
For a cantilever retaining wall, which type of failure is generally more critical?
a)
Sliding
b)
Overturning
c)
Both are equally critical
d)
Depends on soil properties
125.
In designing a retaining wall, which of the following is NOT typically considered in the stability analysis?
a)
Earthquake forces
b)
Water table fluctuations
c)
Soil color
d)
Overturning moments
126.
In the context of Critical State Soil Mechanics, which of the following statements is true?
a)
The shear strength is independent of the normal stress at critical state.
b)
At critical state, the soil deforms at constant volume and constant shear stress.
c)
The critical state line is irrelevant to the behavior of clay soils.
d)
The effective cohesion is zero at the critical state for all soils.
127.
How does the presence of groundwater at the base of a footing affect the bearing capacity of the soil?
a)
Increases it
b)
Decreases it
c)
Has no effect
d)
Depends on soil type
128.
Which of the following factors does NOT affect the bearing capacity of shallow foundations?
a)
Footing shape
b)
Depth of water table
c)
Type of soil
d)
Ambient temperature
129.
For a square footing of width B, the ultimate bearing capacity (qu) is given as $400 \text{ kPa}$. If the footing width is doubled, how does the ultimate bearing capacity change?
a)
Remains the same
b)
Doubles
c)
Quadruples
d)
Halves
130.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a shallow foundation?
a)
Typically used for low to moderate loads
b)
Includes spread footings and mat foundations
c)
Transfers load to deeper, more stable soil layers
d)
Generally has a depth-to-width ratio less than
131.
For a mat foundation, which of the following statements is true?
a)
It is used where soil bearing capacity is high
b)
It is suitable for light loads over large areas
c)
It distributes loads over a large area to reduce pressure on soil
d)
It is rarely used in soft or compressible soils
132.
What is the primary difference between driven piles and bored piles?
a)
Driven piles are placed by drilling a hole first
b)
Bored piles are installed by driving into the ground
c)
Driven piles cause more displacement of soil
d)
Bored piles are typically used in high-rise buildings
133.
Which of the following factors affects the settlement of a foundation?
a)
Type of soil
b)
Footing shape
c)
Groundwater conditions
d)
All of the above
134.
For a pile foundation, what is the load transfer mechanism in end-bearing piles?
a)
Load is transferred through skin friction only
b)
Load is transferred through end bearing only
c)
Load is transferred through a combination of skin friction and end bearing
d)
Load is transferred through soil displacement
135.
What is the primary purpose of using a mat foundation for a structure?
a)
To reduce the amount of concrete used
b)
To increase the bearing capacity of the soil
c)
To provide a uniform distribution of loads over a large area
d)
To minimize the total construction time
136.
What is the fundamental mechanism of primary consolidation in soil?
a)
The rearrangement of soil particles due to long-term stress
b)
The instantaneous elastic compression of the soil mass
c)
The reduction of soil volume due to expulsion ofwater from the pores
d)
The settlement caused by immediate shear deformation
137.
What is the primary difference between primary consolidation and secondary compression in soils?
a)
Primary consolidation occurs due to expulsion of water, while secondary compression occurs due to creep
b)
Primary consolidation is time-dependent, while secondary compression is instantaneous
c)
Secondary compression results from elastic deformation, while primary consolidation is plastic
d)
Primary consolidation only occurs in sands, while secondary compression only occurs in clays
138.
In the context of limit equilibrium methods, which of the following is NOT an assumption commonly made?
a)
The slope is in a state of impending failure
b)
The shear strength parameters are known
c)
The slip surface is a circular arc
d)
The soil is homogeneous and isotropic
139.
Which stabilization technique involves the use of geotextiles or geogrids to reinforce a slope?
a)
Drainage control
b)
Soil nailing
c)
Reinforced earth
d)
Grouting
140.
Which method is commonly used to reduce pore water pressure in slopes to improve stability?
a)
Soil nailing
b)
Grouting
c)
Drainage control
d)
Retaining walls
141.
In the context of slope stability, what does the factor of safety (FOS) represent?
a)
The ratio of the driving forces to resisting forces
b)
The ratio of the resisting forces to driving forces
c)
The ratio of shear strength to normal stress
d)
The ratio of pore water pressure to normal stress
142.
Which of the following is NOT a primary benefit of lime stabilization in soils?
a)
Increases soil strength
b)
Reduces soil plasticity
c)
Decreases soil permeability
d)
Increases soil swell potential
143.
Which type of compaction equipment is most suitable for compacting cohesive soils?
a)
Smooth-wheel roller
b)
Sheepsfoot roller
c)
Vibratory roller
d)
Pneumatic-tired roller
144.
What is the primary purpose of using geotextiles in soil stabilization?
a)
To increase the thermal conductivity of the soil.
b)
To improve the durability of construction equipment.
c)
To separate, filter, reinforce, or drain the soil.
d)
To accelerate the consolidation of clay layers.
145.
What is the primary effect of compaction on soil properties?
a)
Increases soil permeability
b)
Decreases soil density
c)
Increases soil strength
d)
Increases soil plasticity
146.
What should be the minimum lane width for a highway with a design speed of $100 \text{ km}/\text{h}$?
a)
$3.0 \text{ m}$
b)
$3.5 \text{ m}$
c)
$3.6 \text{ m}$
d)
$3.8 \text{ m}$
147.
Determine the appropriate shoulder width for a rural highway with an annual average daily traffic (AADT) of $5000 \text{ vehicles}$.
a)
$2.0 \text{ m}$
b)
$2.5 \text{ m}$
c)
$3.0 \text{ m}$
d)
$3.5 \text{ m}$
148.
Which of the following is a primary characteristic of flexible pavements?
a)
High modulus of elasticity
b)
Rigid structure
c)
Load distribution through layers
d)
Reinforced with steel
149.
The mechanistic-empirical pavement design method primarily relies on which two types of analysis?
a)
Statistical and probabilistic
b)
Empirical and mechanistic
c)
Deterministic and stochastic
d)
Analytical and numerical
150.
Which layer in a flexible pavement system is designed to provide structural support and distribute loads?
a)
Subgrade
b)
Subbase
c)
Base course
d)
Surface course
151.
What is the primary purpose of the surface course in a flexible pavement?
a)
Drainage
b)
Load distribution
c)
Smooth driving surface
d)
Structural support
152.
For a flexible pavement overlay design, the required thickness of the asphalt overlay is determined based on which of the following factors?
a)
Subgrade strength
b)
Existing pavement condition
c)
Traffic volume
d)
All of the above
153.
Which of the following is a common pavement maintenance strategy?
a)
Full-depth reclamation
b)
Milling and resurfacing
c)
Crack sealing
d)
All of the above
154.
Which of the following is the most effective way to remove water from pavement surface?
a)
Longitudinal slope
b)
Cross slope
c)
Permeable pavement
d)
Subsurface drainage
155.
For subsurface drainage, which of the following materials is most commonly used as a filter to prevent soil from entering the drainage system?
a)
Geotextile fabric
b)
Sand
c)
Gravel
d)
Crushed stone
156.
Flexible pavements primarily derive their strength from which component?
a)
Reinforcement bars
b)
Compacted layers
c)
Chemical additives
d)
Geotextile fabric
157.
What is the primary purpose of the reliability factor in the AASHTO pavement design method?
a)
To account for material variability
b)
To account for traffic load variations
c)
To ensure pavement performance meets design expectations
d)
To adjust for environmental conditions
158.
In the mechanistic-empirical pavement design method, what does the term”mechanistic” refer to?
a)
Use of empirical data
b)
Structural analysis of pavement layers
c)
Pavement performance predictions
d)
Traffic volume estimation
159.
For an actuated signal control system, what factor determines the duration of the green interval?
a)
Fixed time cycle
b)
Traffic demand
c)
Weather conditions
d)
Time of day
160.
Determine the appropriate color for warning signs according to the MUTCD (Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices).
a)
Red
b)
Blue
c)
Yellow
d)
Green
161.
Which type of pavement marking is used to indicate a no-passing zone on a two-lane road?
a)
Single dashed yellow line
b)
Single solid yellow line
c)
Double solid yellow lines
d)
Single solid white line
162.
Which phasing type is typically used at intersections with heavy left-turn volumes to accommodate the left-turn movements safely and efficiently?
a)
Simple two-phase signal
b)
Split-phase signal
c)
Protected-permissive left-turn phasing
d)
Pedestrian signal phase
163.
What is the primary function of a solid white line at an intersection?
a)
To delineate the center of the road.
b)
To indicate a no-passing zone.
c)
To define the boundary of the vehicular travel lane.
d)
To indicate a stop line or pedestrian crossing.
164.
In the context of transportation planning, what does the logit model estimate?
a)
Travel time
b)
Mode choice probabilities
c)
Trip generation rates
d)
Vehicle occupancy rates
165.
Transit priority measures in TSM aim to achieve which of the following objectives?
a)
Increase roadway capacity
b)
Improve transit service reliability
c)
Reduce vehicle emissions
d)
Enhance pedestrian safety
166.
Which of the following is an example of a demand management strategy?
a)
Implementing congestion pricing
b)
Adding new traffic lanes
c)
Installing traffic signals
d)
Enhancing pavement markings
167.
What is the primary goal of road safety audits?
a)
Increase roadway capacity
b)
Reduce traffic congestion
c)
Identify and mitigate safety risks
d)
Improve travel time reliability
168.
In crash data analysis, what does the term ”crash severity” refer to?
a)
Frequency of crashes
b)
Type of crashes
c)
Impact of crashes on traffic flow
d)
Degree of injury and damage
169.
Safety Performance Functions (SPFs) are used to predict which of the following?
a)
Traffic volumes
b)
Travel times
c)
Crash frequencies
d)
Vehicle emissions
170.
Which of the following is a primary objective of sustainable transportation planning?
a)
Maximize single-occupancy vehicle use.
b)
Reduce vehicle emissions.
c)
Increase fuel consumption efficiency.
d)
Prioritize highway construction over public transit.
171.
Which of the following is a common method used to manage stormwater runoff in transportation projects?
a)
Installing solar panels
b)
Constructing retention ponds
c)
Adding traffic signals
d)
Building pedestrian bridges
172.
What is the primary purpose of trip distribution in travel demand modeling?
a)
Estimate trip generation
b)
Predict mode choices
c)
Distribute trips between origins and destinations
d)
Determine travel times
173.
Which TSM strategy is aimed at reducing peak-hour traffic demand?
a)
Adding new traffic lanes
b)
Implementing congestion pricing
c)
Enhancing pavement markings
d)
Installing traffic signals
174.
Which project delivery method gives the owner separate contracts with the designer and contractor, where the construction manager serves as a consultant during design and the builder during construction?
a)
Design-Bid-Build
b)
Construction Management at Risk
c)
Design-Build
d)
Integrated Project Delivery
175.
Which of the following is a common method used to improve labor productivity on a construction site?
a)
Increasing material stockpiles near the work area.
b)
Reducing safety requirements to speed up tasks.
c)
Implementing better project management techniques.
d)
Reducing the training level of workers to save costs.
176.
What is the primary function of a silt fence on a construction site?
a)
To define the boundary of the construction zone.
b)
To prevent vehicles from entering restricted areas.
c)
To filter sediment from runoff water.
d)
To compact soil in preparation for construction.
177.
In resource allocation, which method aims to minimize the fluctuation of resource usage over the project duration?
a)
Resource Allocation
b)
Resource Leveling
c)
Resource Scheduling
d)
Resource Optimization
178.
Which project delivery method is characterized by the owner having separate contracts with the designer and contractor, and the construction manager acts as a consultant?
a)
Design-Bid-Build
b)
Construction Management at Risk
c)
Design-Build
d)
Integrated Project Delivery
179.
Which of the following methods is commonly used to improve labor productivity on a construction site?
a)
Increasing the number of breaks
b)
Reducing the number of workers
c)
Implementing better project management techniques
d)
Using outdated equipment
180.
What is the main purpose of a sediment trap on a construction site?
a)
To provide a water supply for dust control
b)
To stabilize slopes and prevent erosion
c)
To filter sediment from runoff water
d)
To compact soil in preparation for construction
181.
In resource allocation, which method aims to minimize the fluctuation of resource usage over the project duration?
a)
Resource Allocation
b)
Resource Leveling
c)
Resource Loading
d)
Resource Scheduling
182.
Which of the following is an example of a lag in project scheduling?
a)
Task B starts 2 days after Task A starts
b)
Task B starts 2 days after Task A finishes
c)
Task B starts immediately after Task A starts
d)
Task B starts immediately after Task A finishes
183.
What is the principle of transmissibility of a force, and how does it relate to the concept of a resultant force?
a)
The principle that a force can be applied anywhere on its line of action without changing the external effect on the body.
b)
The principle that forces in a system must be parallel to have a resultant.
c)
The principle that the sum of forces must always be 0 for equilibrium.
d)
The principle that the magnitude of the resultant force is the sum of the magnitudes of the individual forces.
184.
A system of forces is equivalent to a single force if:
a)
The forces are concurrent.
b)
The resultant moment is non-zero.
c)
The forces are parallel but not collinear.
d)
The resultant force and moment are zero.
185.
To replace a force at a point with an equivalent system at another point, you need:
a)
The same force and a couple are equal to the moment of the force about the new point.
b)
The same force and a perpendicular distance between the points.
c)
A force and a moment equal to the product of the force and the distance.
d)
The sum of the forces at both points.
186.
In the context of equilibrium of rigid bodies, what is the principle of superposition?
a)
Forces can be replaced by their components.
b)
Moments can be calculated about any point.
c)
The effect of multiple forces can be considered separately and then summed.
d)
Only vertical forces are considered
187.
A beam is in equilibrium under the action of three forces. The line of action of these forces must:
a)
Be parallel
b)
Be concurrent
c)
Be perpendicular
d)
Form a triangle
188.
Which of the following equations is a fundamental part of the Slope Deflection Method?
a)
$\Delta = \frac{PL^3}{3EI}$
b)
$M_{AB} = \frac{EI}{L} (2\theta_A + \theta_B) + M_f$
c)
$V = \frac{wL}{2}$
d)
$F = k \cdot x$
189.
When analyzing block shear strength for a tension member, which of the following best describes the failure mechanism?
a)
Tearing of the member along the bolt line.
b)
Shearing and tensile rupture along a failure path involving both shear and tension.
c)
Crushing of the member under compressive loads.
d)
Buckling of the member under axial tension.
190.
When designing reinforced concrete beams for flexure, what is the significance of the balanced condition?
a)
It represents the condition where the beam has reached its maximum shear capacity.
b)
It indicates that the tensile reinforcement has yielded and the concrete has reached its compressive strength simultaneously.
c)
It ensures that the beam is designed with the minimum amount of reinforcement.
d)
It signifies that the beam has adequate deflection control.
191.
Which of the following factors most significantly affects the shear capacity of a reinforced concrete beam?
a)
The size and spacing of stirrups or shear reinforcement.
b)
The amount and distribution of longitudinal reinforcement.
c)
The depth of the neutral axis.
d)
The modulus of elasticity of the concrete.
192.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a shallow foundation?
a)
Typically used for low to moderate loads
b)
Includes spread footings and mat foundations
c)
Transfers load to deeper, more stable soil layers
d)
Generally has a depth-to-width ratio less than
193.
For a mat foundation, which of the following statements is true?
a)
It is used where soil bearing capacity is high
b)
It is suitable for light loads over large areas
c)
It distributes loads over a large area to reduce pressure on soil
d)
It is rarely used in soft or compressible soils
194.
For a pile foundation, what is the load transfer mechanism in end-bearing piles?
a)
Load is transferred through skin friction only
b)
Load is transferred through end bearing only
c)
Load is transferred through a combination of skin friction and end bearing
d)
Load is transferred through soil displacement
195.
What is the primary purpose of using a mat foundation for a structure?
a)
To reduce the amount of concrete used
b)
To increase the bearing capacity of the soil
c)
To provide a uniform distribution of loads over a large area
d)
To minimize the total construction time
196.
In the context of limit equilibrium methods, which of the following is NOT an assumption commonly made?
a)
The slope is in a state of impending failure
b)
The shear strength parameters are known
c)
The slip surface is a circular arc
d)
The soil is homogeneous and isotropic
197.
In the context of slope stability, what does the factor of safety (FOS) represent?
a)
The ratio of the driving forces to resisting forces
b)
The ratio of the resisting forces to driving forces
c)
The ratio of shear strength to normal stress
d)
The ratio of pore water pressure to normal stress
198.
Which of the following is NOT a primary benefit of lime stabilization in soils?
a)
Increases soil strength
b)
Reduces soil plasticity
c)
Decreases soil permeability
d)
Increases soil swell potential
199.
What is the primary purpose of using geotextiles in soil stabilization?
a)
To increase soil density
b)
To provide tensile strength to the soil
c)
To reduce soil plasticity
d)
To increase soil permeability
200.
Which of the following is a common method used to manage stormwater runoff in transportation projects?
a)
Installing solar panels
b)
Constructing retention ponds
c)
Adding traffic signals
d)
Building pedestrian bridges
100 %
