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General Antibiotic Concepts and Penicillins

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The nurse is caring for a client prescribed antibiotics for pneumonia. Which statement by the client requires further teaching?

a)

I’ll finish all of my medication, even if I feel better.

b)

I’ll call the doctor if I get severe diarrhea.

c)

I’ll save any leftover antibiotics in case I get sick again.

d)

This medication only works on bacteria, not viruses.

2.

The nurse monitors for which sign of a superinfection related to antibiotic use?

a)

Oral thrush

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Muscle weakness

d)

Constipation

3.

What is the most important reason to teach clients to complete the entire course of antibiotics?

a)

To prevent antibiotic resistance

b)

To reduce nausea

c)

To prevent allergic reactions

d)

To avoid superinfection

4.

Before giving amoxicillin, the nurse asks about allergies. The client reports a previous reaction to penicillin that caused hives and wheezing. What is the priority action?

a)

Administer diphenhydramine before giving the dose

b)

Notify the provider and withhold the medication

c)

Give the medication slowly over 60 minutes

d)

Document and continue monitoring

5.

Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention after administration of penicillin G?

a)

Rash on the chest

b)

Wheezing and shortness of breath

c)

Nausea

d)

Mild diarrhea

6.

When documenting a client’s allergy to penicillin, the nurse should include which information?

a)

The name of the provider who prescribed it

b)

The specific type of reaction experienced

c)

The date of the last antibiotic use

d)

The reason the antibiotic was prescribed

7.

The nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin before surgery. The client reports an allergy to penicillin that caused anaphylaxis. What should the nurse do?

a)

Give the cefazolin as ordered

b)

Notify the provider before giving the medication

c)

Administer an antihistamine first

d)

Reduce the dose by half

8.

Which statement indicates correct understanding of ceftriaxone teaching?

a)

I’ll stop taking this drug if I feel better.

b)

I should take the full course even if my symptoms go away.

c)

I can drink alcohol while taking this.

d)

If I get diarrhea, it’s not a concern.

9.

Which lab values are most important to monitor while a client is taking cephalosporins?

a)

BUN and creatinine

b)

Platelet count

c)

Blood glucose

d)

Potassium and sodium

10.

Which potential side effect is unique to cephalosporins compared with penicillins?

a)

Bleeding due to vitamin K interference

b)

Red man syndrome

c)

Tendon rupture

d)

Tooth discoloration

11.

The nurse plans to administer vancomycin IV to a client with MRSA. What is the correct nursing action?

a)

Infuse over 15–30 minutes

b)

Infuse over at least 60 minutes

c)

Give IV push slowly

d)

Mix with dextrose 50%

12.

During a vancomycin infusion, the client develops flushing and redness of the face and chest. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Stop the infusion immediately

b)

Increase the infusion rate

c)

Administer an additional dose of vancomycin

d)

Ignore the symptoms and continue the infusion

13.

Which nursing intervention helps prevent nephrotoxicity during vancomycin therapy?

a)

Monitor BUN and creatinine

b)

Administer with dairy products

c)

Encourage exercise

d)

Check liver enzymes daily

14.

Which symptom indicates possible ototoxicity from vancomycin?

a)

Tinnitus and dizziness

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Abdominal cramping

d)

Constipation

15.

What is the appropriate time to draw a vancomycin trough level?

a)

2 hours after administration

b)

Immediately before the next dose

c)

4 hours after administration

d)

At bedtime

16.

A client receiving gentamicin reports ringing in the ears. What should the nurse do?

a)

Document the finding and continue therapy

b)

Notify the provider immediately

c)

Administer diphenhydramine

d)

Encourage hydration

17.

The nurse monitors which labs to detect gentamicin toxicity?

a)

Trough levels, BUN, and creatinine

b)

Sodium and potassium

c)

AST and ALT

d)

White blood cell count

18.

A client on tobramycin develops decreased urine output and rising creatinine. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Ototoxicity

d)

Neurotoxicity

19.

What is the best time to obtain a trough level for gentamicin?

a)

Before the next scheduled dose

b)

One hour after administration

c)

At the midpoint of infusion

d)

Immediately after the first dose

20.

Aminoglycosides are most often prescribed for:

a)

Mild skin infections

b)

Viral infections

c)

Severe infections like sepsis or hospital-acquired infections

d)

Fungal infections

21.

Which teaching should the nurse include for a client prescribed ciprofloxacin?

a)

Report any tendon pain or swelling

b)

Avoid taking with fluids

c)

Expect harmless tooth discoloration

d)

Take with milk to decrease stomach upset

22.

Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for:

a)

QT prolongation

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Tendon rupture and tendonitis

d)

Nephrotoxicity

23.

What teaching is important for a client on levofloxacin?

a)

Avoid sunlight and wear sunscreen

b)

Avoid potassium-rich foods

c)

Limit water intake

d)

Report tooth discoloration

24.

A client on ciprofloxacin complains of sudden Achilles tendon pain. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Continue the medication and monitor

b)

Stop the drug and notify the provider

c)

Massage the tendon

d)

Apply heat to the site

25.

Fluoroquinolones are often prescribed for:

a)

fungal infections

b)

MRSA

c)

UTIs and pneumonia

d)

VRE

26.

The nurse knows azithromycin is most commonly used for which condition?

a)

Fungal infections

b)

STIs such as chlamydia

c)

Hypertension

d)

Heart failure

27.

Which adverse effect is associated with macrolides such as erythromycin?

a)

QT prolongation

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Tooth discoloration

28.

Which client requires the most careful monitoring during azithromycin therapy?

a)

A client on antidysrhythmic medication

b)

A client with seasonal allergies

c)

A client with arthritis

d)

A client taking iron supplements

29.

What should the nurse teach the client about erythromycin?

a)

Report palpitations or irregular heartbeat

b)

Avoid dairy products

c)

Take with milk

d)

Expect photosensitivity

30.

The nurse knows azithromycin is contraindicated in clients with:

a)

History of long QT syndrome

b)

Allergy to sulfa drugs

c)

Allergy to penicillin

d)

Hypertension

31.

Which statement by a client on doxycycline requires further teaching?

a)

I’ll wear sunscreen when I go outside.

b)

I’ll avoid taking this with milk.

c)

I can give this to my 7-year-old if they get an ear infection.

32.

Tetracyclines should be avoided in pregnancy because they can cause:

a)

Fetal bleeding

b)

Permanent tooth discoloration

c)

Liver damage

d)

Neural tube defects

33.

Which foods or substances reduce tetracycline absorption?

a)

Milk and iron supplements

b)

Bananas and citrus

c)

Leafy greens

d)

Caffeine

34.

What is the best time to take doxycycline?

a)

With a full glass of water, separate from dairy and iron

b)

With milk and food

c)

Before bedtime

d)

With calcium supplements

35.

Which condition is doxycycline commonly prescribed for?

a)

A. Acne

b)

B. Heart failure

c)

C. Hypertension

d)

D. Fungal infections

36.

Which drug is a sulfonamide combination?

a)

Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

b)

Ciprofloxacin-levofloxacin

c)

Azithromycin-clavulanate

d)

Piperacillin-tazobactam

37.

What instruction is most important for a client taking sulfonamides?

a)

Drink plenty of fluids

b)

Limit water intake

c)

Avoid all dairy

d)

Report constipation

38.

A client develops a widespread rash and blisters after taking sulfadiazine. What should the nurse suspect?

a)

SJS

b)

Phototoxicity

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Red man syndrome

39.

What is a key preventive teaching point for clients on sulfonamides?

a)

Wear sunscreen and avoid sun exposure

b)

Take with antacids

c)

Avoid dairy products

d)

Reduce water intake

40.

Which condition is sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim most often used to treat?

a)

Viral infections

b)

UTIs

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Ear wax buildup

41.

Which antibiotics are nephrotoxic and ototoxic?

a)

Vancomycin and gentamicin

b)

Doxycycline and azithromycin

c)

Ciprofloxacin and sulfamethoxazole

d)

Penicillin and ceftriaxone

42.

Which antibiotics require trough level monitoring?

a)

Vancomycin and aminoglycosides

b)

Fluoroquinolones and macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines and sulfonamides

d)

Penicillins and cephalosporins

43.

Which antibiotics cause photosensitivity? select all that apply

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Fluoroquinolones

c)

Sulfonamides

d)

Penicillins

e)

Macrolides

44.

Which antibiotics carry a risk of cross-reactivity with penicillins?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Sulfonamides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Fluoroquinolones

45.

A client taking erythromycin reports palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Check the client's ECG

b)

Hold the next dose

c)

Document as expected

d)

Encourage hydration

46.

A client on vancomycin develops flushing and hypotension. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Red man syndrome

b)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Superinfection

47.

Which teaching applies to both sulfonamides and fluoroquinolones?

a)

Avoid sun exposure and use sunscreen

b)

Limit fluid intake

c)

Take with dairy to reduce GI upset

d)

Avoid potassium-rich foods

48.

Which antibiotics are contraindicated in children under 8 years old?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Penicillins

c)

Sulfonamides

d)

Cephalosporins

49.

Which nursing instruction helps prevent crystalluria in a client taking sulfonamides?

a)

Increase daily fluid intake

b)

Limit salt intake

c)

Take with milk

d)

Avoid vitamin C

50.

A client prescribed gentamicin asks why blood will be drawn before the next dose. What is the nurse’s best response?

a)

“It helps ensure the medication level stays in a safe range.”

b)

“It checks if you’re dehydrated.”

c)

“It’s to test your immune response.”

d)

“It confirms your infection is improving.”