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Surgical Procedures Midterm Review

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following choices may be considered as an absolute indication for OLV?

a)

Infectious contamination

b)

Bronchopleural fistula

c)

Mediastinoscopy

d)

Emergent esophageal resection

e)

Aortic valve replacement

2.

What is the maximum amount of air you can place in the bronchial cuff?

a)

3 mL

b)

1-2 mL

c)

5 mL

d)

2 mL

e)

5-10 mL

3.

A 62-year-old man with moderate COPD is undergoing a right thoracotomy with OLV. The anesthesia team is using a left-sided DLT. During VCV of the dependent lung, the patient’s PIP rises to 42, plateau pressure is 24, and SpO2 is 92% on FiO2 50%. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

a)

Increase tidal volume to improve oxygenation

b)

Decrease PEEP to zero

c)

Check for malposition of the DLT or endobronchial blocker

d)

Increase FiO2 to 100%

4.

A patient with pulmonary hypertension is undergoing thoracic surgery. The anesthesiologist administers a CCB to control systemic hypertension. Soon after, the patient’s oxygenation decreases despite appropriate ventilatory settings. Which of the following mechanisms explains this change?

a)

The CCB reduces myocardial contractility, decreasing oxygen delivery

b)

The drug inhibits HPV, increasing shunt fraction

c)

The drug increases airway resistance, causing alveolar hypoventilation

d)

The drug causes systemic hypotension, reducing perfusion to ventilated alveoli

5.

A 25-year-old patient with a history of cystic fibrosis presents for video-assisted thoracoscopy surgery to drain a localized abscess in the right lung. The anesthesiologist plans for OLV. Which of the following best explains the primary purpose of OLV in this patient?

a)

To increase tidal volume to the operative lung

b)

To reduce the risk of postop bronchospasm

c)

To allow high-frequency ventilation of both lungs simultaneously

d)

To prevent contamination of the healthy left lung for infected secretions

6.

In the lateral decubitus position during anesthesia, which of the following best describes the changes in V/Q relationship?

a)

The non-dependent lung is better ventilated but poorly perfused

b)

The dependent lung is better perfused but poorly ventilated

c)

Both lungs receive equal ventilation and perfusion

d)

The dependent lung is better ventilated and perfused

7.

During OLV for a right thoracotomy, a patient develops significant hypoxemia (SpO2 85%). The ventilated lung is adequately oxygenated, tidal volume is low, PEEP is 5, and the Volatile concentration is 2 MAC. ABG shows mild hypocapnia. Which of the following could be contributing to impaired hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction in this scenario?

a)

Low tidal volume

b)

Volatile concentration of 2 MAC

c)

Peep 5

d)

Adequate oxygenation of ventilated lung

8.

Which preop test is the most reliable predictor of postop pulmonary complications after lobectomy?

a)

Chest x-ray

b)

FEV1 or predicted postop FEV1

c)

Resting PaO2

d)

Peak flow rate

9.

Why is RSI often performed for esophagectomy patients?

a)

Poor pulmonary reserve

b)

Increased ICP risk

c)

Poor LES tone and aspiration risk

d)

To facilitate DLT placement

10.

A 65-year-old male with COPD is scheduled for a right upper lobectomy. His spirometry shows FEV1 55% of predicted and his predicted postop DLCO is 28%. He walks one block before becoming dyspneic. Which of the following best describes his surgical risk?

a)

Low risk, acceptable candidate for lobectomy

b)

Moderate risk, predicted DLCO is reassuring

c)

High risk, increased chance of postop respiratory failure

d)

Contraindication to surgery regardless of comorbidities

11.

A 72-year-old man with severe aortic stenosis (valve area 0.6, EF 55%) is scheduled for aortic valve replacement. Which intraoperative hemodynamic event is most dangerous for this patient?

a)

Developing AFib with RVR

b)

Increase in SVR due to phenylephrine

c)

Mild fluid administration to augment preload

d)

Maintenance of NSR at 60-70 bpm

12.

During preop planning for cardiac surgery, you review a patient’s history of valve disease. Which valve lesion is MOST dependent on maintaining NSR for atrial kick to preserve CO?

a)

Aortic stenosis

b)

Aortic regurg

c)

Mitral regurg

d)

Mitral stenosis

13.

Optimal HR in aortic regurg?

a)

Show HR

b)

Increase afterload

c)

Mildly increased HR

d)

Maintain bradycardia

14.

A 68-year-old man with CAD, hypertension, and T2DM is scheduled for CABG. His home meds include metoprolol, amlodipine, isosorbide, lisinopril, HCTZ, aspirin, and clopidogrel. Which of the following is the best preop medication management strategy?

a)

Hold all medications the morning of surgery to avoid intraop hypotension

b)

Continue BB, CCB, and nitrate; hold ACEi and diuretic; continue aspirin but stop clopidogrel 5 days before surgery

c)

Discontinue aspirin and clopidogrel 24 hours before surgery to minimize bleeding risk

d)

Continue lisinopril and HCTZ to prevent rebound hypertension

15.

During CABG, a BIS monitor is used to assess anesthetic depth. Which of the following BIS values is most consistent with adequate general anesthesia for surgery?

a)

95

b)

80

c)

50

d)

20

16.

Which leads best detect intraop ischemia?

a)

I and aVL

b)

II and v5

c)

III and v1

d)

V2 and V3

17.

Which occurs first in acute ischemia?

a)

St depression

b)

T-wave inversion

c)

Loss of contraction on echo

d)

Chest pain

18.

A 72-year-old man is scheduled for CABG. During the preop evaluation, he reports chronic regurg of undigested food and halitosis. A barium swallow study shows a posterior outpouching of the esophageal mucosa at the level of the cricopharyngeal muscle. Which of the following best describes the significance of this finding for intraoperative management?

a)

It represents a relative contraindication to TEE probe placement because of C-spine immobility

b)

It increases the risk of aspiration, but does not affect TEE probe placement

c)

It represents an absolute contraindication to TEE probe placement due to risk of perforation

d)

It is unrelated to TEE probe placement and is managed with periop antibiotics

19.

The mid-esophageal four-chamber view on the TEE primarily allows assessment of which of the following?

a)

LA, RA, LV, RV

b)

Aortic valve cusps in short axis

c)

Descending thoracic aorta

d)

Pulmonary artery bifurcation

20.

To obtain the transgastric midpapillary short-axis view, the probe is typically:

a)

Withdrawn to the upper esophagus

b)

Advanced into the stomach and anteflexed

c)

Rotated to the patient's right at mid-esophageal level

d)

Rotated 120-135 degrees at mid-esophageal level

21.

Which of the following is the most sensitive indicator of intraoperative MI during TEE?

a)

ST segment changes on ECG

b)

PCWP elevation

c)

New regional wall motion abnormality

d)

Appearance of a new murmur

22.

The upper esophageal aortic arch short-axis view is primarily used to:

a)

Evaluate aortic valve stenosis

b)

Assess tricuspid valve regurg

c)

Detect pathology of the aortic arch

d)

Evaluate LV systolic function

23.

Protamine reverses heparin anticoagulation primarily by:

a)

Enhancing hepatic metabolism

b)

Neutralizing heparin via ionic binding

c)

Increasing platelet count

d)

Stimulating fibrinogen synthesis

24.

A 72 year-old man with severe AS (valve area 0.6, EF 55%) is scheduled for AVR.  Which intraoperative event is most dangerous?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Mild tachycardia

25.

During induction, a patient with acute aortic regurg is unstable. Which hemodynamic goal is best?

a)

Slow heart rate

b)

Increase afterload

c)

Maintain forward flow with higher HR

d)

Reduce contractility

26.

A patient undergoes TAVR with conscious sedation rather than GA. Which anesthesia advantage does this confer?

a)

Reduced risk for perivalvular leak

b)

Elimination of need for anticoagulation

c)

Elimination of need for imaging guidance

d)

Faster recovery and earlier mobilization

27.

Which complication is more common in TAVR compared to surgical AVR?

a)

Stroke

b)

Severe bleeding

c)

Paravalvular leak

d)

MI

28.

Which beta-blocker strategy is most evidence-based for vascular surgery patients?

a)

Start high-dose metoprolol the morning of surgery

b)

Start low-dose atenolol 3 days preop in all patients

c)

Continue chronic therapy; avoid same-day initiation

d)

Withhold beta-blockers in all cases to avoid hypotension

e)

Switch all patients to esmolol infusion preop

29.

A 76-year-old undergoing CEA under GA becomes hypertensive/tachycardic during laryngoscopy. What is the most appropriate strategy?

a)

Allow hypertension to improve cerebral perfusion

b)

Treat with phenylephrine bolus

c)

Hyperventilate to PaCO2 25

d)

Nitroglycerin gt to SBP < 90

e)

Treat with esmolol and deepen anesthetic

30.

After CEA, the patient has tongue deviation toward the operative side and dysarthria. Which nerve is injured?

a)

Vagus (CN X)

b)

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

c)

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

d)

Ansa Cervalis

e)

Phrenic

31.

During cross-clamp with GA and NIRS monitoring, rSO2 drops 22% from baseline. Best immediate action?

a)

Lower MAP to reduce bleeding

b)

Increase MAP by 10-20% with phenylephrine

c)

Hyperventilate to PaCO2 30

d)

Give mannitol 0.5 g/kg immediately

e)

Give protamine

32.

In a center favoring SACP with moderate hypothermia (26 C), left-sided NIRS falls 25% during unilateral ACP despite MAP 60 and Hct 24%. Best next step?

a)

Hyperventilate to PaCO2 30

b)

Add left carotid cannula to convert to bilateral ACP

c)

Reduce ACP flow to avoid edema

d)

Do nothing:  expect spontaneous improvement

33.

Open descending thoracic repair. Just prior to declamp, which is best?

a)

Increase nitroprusside to prevent hypertension

b)

Hyperventilate and give HCO3 pre-emptively

c)

Start esmolol to blunt tachycardia only

d)

Volume load, discontinue vasodilators, prepare norepi, give calcium release clamp gradually

34.

Post-EVAR CT shows sac enlargement with contrast filling from lumbar arteries into the sac; graft seals are intact. Which endoleak is this?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

e)

Type V

35.

Immediately after successful synchronized cardioversion, a patient in the EP lab becomes hypotensive with sinus rhythm on ECG. Which mechanism best explains this finding?

a)

Sudden decrease in SVR

b)

Myocardial stunning with reduced contractility

c)

Hypovolemia from diuretics

d)

Bradycardia from vagal stimulation

36.

During a diagnostic EP study, arrhythmia induction fails repeatedly. The patient is deeply sedated on propofol 100 mcg/kg/min. Which change best facilitates arrhythmia induction?

a)

Switch to volatile

b)

Give lidocaine bolus

c)

Reduce propofol infusion

d)

Add remifentanil

37.

During Watchman deployment, the patient becomes hypotensive with rising CVP. ECG unchanged. What is the next step?

a)

Give phenylephrine

b)

Increase PEEP

c)

Obtain echo view for tamponade

d)

Remove the device

38.

During EBUS under GA, SpO2 drops from 98% to 84%. EtCO2 waveform dampens. The bronchoscopist is suctioning. First action?

a)

Administer albuterol

b)

Withdraw the scope and ventilate

c)

Increase FiO2 to 1.0

d)

Give propofol bolus

39.

A 62-year-old woman undergoing ION robotic bronchoscopy for a peripheral lung nodule is under GA with rocuronium paralysis. During mapping, the pulmonologist reports “registration drift” and asks if anything has changed. You note the anesthesia resident performed a recruitment maneuver and increased PEEP from 12 to 18 to treat desaturation. What is the best next step?

a)

Maintain new PEEP and continue

b)

Switch to PSV

c)

Increase FiO2 to 10 and repeat recruitment

d)

Return PEEP to baseline and allow re-registration