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8th sem theory assessment

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sequestrum is defined as which of the following?

a)

Reactive bone in acute osteomyelitis

b)

Reactive bone in chronic osteomyelitis

c)

Necrotic bone providing a nidus for infection in chronic osteomyelitis

d)

Healthy bone adjacent to chronic osteomyelitis

2.

Cloaca in chronic osteomyelitis refers to:

a)

Dead bone

b)

Opening in involucrum draining pus

c)

Periosteal new bone formation

d)

Chronic sinus tract

3.

Primary osteoarthritis of the knee most commonly affects which compartment?

a)

Lateral tibiofemoral

b)

Medial tibiofemoral

c)

Patellofemoral

d)

All equally

4.

Classical deformity seen in advanced osteoarthritis knee is:

a)

Valgus deformity

b)

Varus deformity

c)

Flexion deformity

d)

Recurvatum

5.

Radiographic hallmark of osteoarthritis is:

a)

Osteopenia

b)

Periosteal reaction

c)

Joint space narrowing with osteophytes

d)

Erosions

6.

The most definitive treatment for end-stage osteoarthritis knee is:

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Physiotherapy

c)

Arthroscopic lavage

d)

Total knee replacement

7.

The most common causative organism of acute osteomyelitis in adults is:

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

E. coli

8.

The most common site of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis in children is:

a)

Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Metaphysis

d)

Apophysis

9.

The involucrum in chronic osteomyelitis is:

a)

New bone enclosing sequestrum

b)

Dead bone fragment

c)

Pus-filled cavity

d)

Sinus tract

10.

The diagnostic imaging modality for early osteomyelitis:

a)

X-ray

b)

MRI

c)

CT

d)

Bone scan

11.

Which joint is most commonly affected by septic arthritis in adults?

a)

Hip

b)

Shoulder

c)

Knee

d)

Elbow

12.

Gold standard for diagnosis of septic arthritis:

a)

X-ray

b)

MRI

c)

Synovial fluid aspiration and culture

d)

CRP and ESR

13.

During examination of swelling, fluctuation test is used to detect:

a)

Solid content

b)

Fluid content

c)

Pulsatility

d)

Tenderness

14.

Transillumination test is positive in:

a)

Lipoma

b)

Ganglion cyst

c)

Fibroma

d)

Neuroma

15.

The most reliable method to assess temperature over a swelling is:

a)

Back of fingers

b)

Palm

c)

Thermometer

d)

Fingertips

16.

Sinus examination should include assessment of:

a)

Number, site, discharge

b)

Shape and tenderness only

c)

Discharge alone

d)

Depth only

17.

The presence of multiple openings with bluish discoloration suggests:

a)

Tuberculous sinus

b)

Pyogenic sinus

c)

Fungal infection

d)

Venous ulcer

18.

In tuberculous sinus, discharge is typically:

a)

Serous

b)

Serosanguinous

c)

Purulent and foul-smelling

d)

Thin watery with caseous material

19.

Mobility of swelling in relation to underlying structures is tested to determine:

a)

Consistency

b)

Origin

c)

Temperature

d)

Tenderness

20.

Fluctuation test is performed by:

a)

Compressing swelling with one finger

b)

Compressing with both hands and feeling impulse on opposite side

c)

Pressing base of swelling

d)

Observing pulsation

21.

A sinus that discharges rice bodies suggests infection by:

a)

Actinomyces

b)

Mycobacterium

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Nocardia

22.

Colles’ fracture typically results from:

a)

Fall on flexed wrist

b)

Fall on outstretched hand

c)

Direct blow

d)

Twisting injury

23.

Most common complication of Colles’ fracture:

a)

Non-union

b)

Malunion

c)

Infection

d)

Compartment syndrome

24.

The main deforming force in Colles’ fracture is:

a)

Biceps

b)

Pronator quadratus

c)

Brachioradialis

d)

Extensor carpi radialis longus

25.

Smith’s fracture differs from Colles’ by:

a)

Volar displacement of distal fragment

b)

Dorsal displacement of distal fragment

c)

Lateral displacement

d)

No displacement

26.

The most common site of radial nerve injury is:

a)

Spiral groove of humerus

b)

Cubital fossa

c)

Axilla

d)

Forearm

27.

Wrist drop occurs due to paralysis of:

a)

Flexor carpi radialis

b)

Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis

c)

Pronator teres

d)

Brachialis

28.

The branch of radial nerve that is purely sensory:

a)

Posterior interosseous nerve

b)

Superficial radial nerve

c)

Deep branch of radial nerve

d)

Muscular branch

29.

A patient with fever, bone pain, and raised ESR, with MRI showing marrow edema likely has:

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Osteomyelitis

c)

Septic arthritis

d)

Bone tumor

30.

In chronic osteomyelitis, which surgical procedure removes sequestrum and dead tissue?

a)

Arthroplasty

b)

Sequestrectomy

c)

Synovectomy

d)

Osteotomy

31.

A 2 year old child was brought with complaints of generalised weakness, irritability, retarded bone growth. Based on the x ray given below, what is your diagnosis?

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Rickets

c)

Renal osteodystrophy

d)

None of the above

32.

A 20-year-old female presents following a motor vehicle collision with the injuries seen in Figures A and B. She was initially hypotensive and tachycardic however she now has stable vital signs following a 2 liter bolus of saline and 2 units of packed red blood cells. Which of the following would indicate that this patient has occult end-organ hypoperfusion and should be further resuscitated prior to definitive fixation?

a)

Heart rate of 80 beats per minute

b)

Systolic blood pressure of 120 mmHg

c)

Serum lactate of 5 mmol/Liter

d)

Urine output of 40 ml/hour

33.

This finding is characteristic of:

a)

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition (pseudogout)

b)

Monosodium urate crystals (gout)

c)

Septic arthritis organism

d)

Oxalate crystals

34.

This test is used to diagnose injury of

a)

PCL

b)

Medial meniscus

c)

ACL

d)

MCL

35.

Based on the images what is the most likely diagnosis

a)

Achondroplasia

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Child abuse

d)

Osteogenesis imperfecta