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WorksheetsKnowledge Fitness Oct-25 Professional
Total questions: 58
Worksheet time: 36mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Immobilization is one of the most important aspects of orthopedic treatments.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
Medical professionals tend to use Plaster of Paris because they assume a better moldability.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
What are osteoblasts responsible for?
a)
Resorbing bone through the normal bone metabolism cycle
b)
Producing bone marrow
c)
Maintaining bone growth density
d)
Building bone through the normal bone metabolism cycle
4.
What are osteocytes responsible for?
a)
Maintaining bone growth density
b)
Produce bone marrow
c)
Facilitating calcium production
d)
Reducing the weight of the bone with its sponge like structure
5.
What chemicals are contained in gypsum?
a)
Calcium sulphate
b)
Sodium sulphate
c)
Sodium chloride
d)
Calcium chloride
6.
What are the two most common clinical conditions related to bones? (select more than one option)
a)
Fractures
b)
Scoliosis
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Bone Tumor
7.
Leukomed IV classic is elastic adhesive IV dressing
a)
True
b)
False
8.
How are the dressings packed within the packaging of Cuticell® Classic Paraffin Gauze?
a)
Rolled in a tube
b)
Packed between 2 release liner sheets
c)
Folded in a box
d)
Stacked in a tray
9.
For which types of wounds is Cuticell® Classic Paraffin Gauze primarily positioned?
a)
Surgical wounds only
b)
Wounds with high exudate levels only
c)
Wounds of all exudate levels, such as burns and skin loss wounds
d)
Dry wounds only
10.
Which component of the Antiseptic Paraffin Gauze Dressing acts as an antimicrobial agent in Cuticell® C?
a)
Leno Weave Gauze
b)
White Soft Paraffin BP
c)
Chlorhexidine Acetate 0.5% BP
d)
Normal saline
11.
What is the definition of a sprain?
a)
A sprain is a soft tissue injury that affects the ligaments around a joint.
b)
A sprain is a break in the bone.
c)
A sprain is an injury that affects the tendons around a joint
d)
A sprain is a congenital abnormality
12.
Choose the correct statement
a)
A fracture generally has more severe swelling but less pain than a sprain
b)
A sprain generally causes more severe swelling but less pain than a fracture
c)
A fracture generally causes less pain and less deformity than a sprain
d)
A sprain typically causes less pain and less visible deformity than a fracture
13.
What is the 'initial' set time for plaster of paris (prior to patient release)?
a)
5 mins
b)
10 mins
c)
15 mins
d)
20 mins
14.
Which layer of skin consists of loose connective and fatty tissue that sits between the skin and structures be
a)
Dermis
b)
Sub cutaneous layer
c)
Epidermis
d)
None of the above
15.
What are the two acute wound types ? (select more than one option)
a)
Iatrogenic wounds
b)
Lethal wounds
c)
Traumatic wounds
d)
Complex wounds
16.
The 4th and final stage of wound healing is commonly referred to as the ‘maturation phase’
a)
The wound appears to be healed to the naked eye, however the collagen in the scar continues to undergo changes for some months afterwards, to gain more tensile strength.
b)
The wound appears to be healed and the scar tissue is a pale cream colour.
c)
The scar tissue is hypertrophic and painful.
d)
The wound appears to be healed and the scar tissue becomes paler and flatter within two (2) weeks.
17.
What are 3 common signs and symptoms of a fracture? (select more than one option)
a)
High temperature
b)
Limited movement
c)
Pain
d)
Infection
e)
Swelling
18.
What are the 3 main functions of the bone? (select more than one option)
a)
Fight infection
b)
Protect internal organs
c)
Thermoregulation
d)
Create blood cells
e)
Provide rigidity
19.
What is a key benefit of interlocked Leno weave gauze in terms of plaster loss?
a)
Provides stronger finished cast
b)
Minimizes plaster loss
c)
Provides excellent stability
d)
Enhances moulding characteristics
20.
What is the primary benefit of the nicked bandage edge design during application?
a)
Provides stronger finished cast
b)
Ensures minimal fraying and loose threads
c)
Enhances moulding characteristics
d)
Minimizes plaster loss
21.
Leukocrepe does not retains elasticity after several washes
a)
True
b)
False
22.
Cuticell Classic is…...
a)
Antiseptic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
b)
Triple Antibiotic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
c)
Plain Paraffin Gauze Dressing
d)
None
23.
Cuticell C is…...
a)
Antiseptic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
b)
Triple Antibiotic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
c)
Plain Paraffin Gauze Dressing
d)
None
24.
Cuticell Plus is…...
a)
Antiseptic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
b)
Triple Antibiotic Paraffin Gauze Dressing
c)
Plain Paraffin Gauze Dressing
d)
None
25.
When treating a sprain the RICE method is often used. What does R.I.C.E stand for?
a)
Radiography, Ice, Compression and Elevation
b)
Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation
c)
Rest, Ibuprofen, Compression and Elevation
d)
Rest, Ibuprofen, Compression, ECG
26.
What is the largest bone in the body?
a)
Humorous
b)
Fibula
c)
Femur
d)
Tibia
27.
What are the parts called that need extra padding before casting?
a)
Pressure points
b)
Functional positions
c)
Ends
d)
Hills
28.
Name 2 benefits of using POP instead of synthetic casting material
a)
Long working time
b)
High conformability
c)
Long initial setting time
d)
Long final setting time
e)
Heavier weight
29.
What are the 3 main functions of the bone?
a)
Fight infection
b)
Protect internal organs
c)
Thermoregulation
d)
Create blood cells
e)
Provide rigidity
30.
Gypsona is 1st Gen POP & Rapidur is 2nd Gen POP
a)
True
b)
False
31.
What is the benefit of a highly breathable cast material?
a)
Allows patient to have a bath or shower
b)
Reduced risk of swelling and oedema
c)
Improves pain management
d)
Reduced risk of skin maceration
32.
What do you need to apply as protective layers before the cast itself? (Select more than one option)
a)
Leukomed dressing
b)
Padding
c)
Stockinette
d)
Hydrophilic cotton
33.
Classic plaster of Paris cast are made of Gypsum
a)
True
b)
False
34.
why to put padding and stockinette under the cast?
a)
to protect skin and bony prominences
b)
to protect from risk of burn when removing with a cast saw
c)
to prevent hair to stick to casting material
d)
for patient comfort
35.
Leukomed IV classic is coated with ________ based adhesive mass
a)
Zinc Dioxide
b)
Zinc Trioxide
c)
Zinc Oxide
d)
None of the above
36.
Leukofix is hand tearable and perforated
a)
Yes
b)
No
37.
Name the main functions of the skin. (select more than one option)
a)
Protection
b)
Isolation
c)
Regulation
d)
Sensation
38.
Working time is the length of time that a material remains of moldable consistency.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
How should you prepare the patients limb before casting?
a)
Check final position
b)
Apply moisturizing cream
c)
Remove jewelry
d)
Treat wounds
40.
What are joints?
a)
The connection between bones in the body
b)
The connection between bones and organs
c)
The connection between bones and nerves
d)
The connection between bones and ligaments
41.
Tricofix can be stretched _______ times its width
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
3
42.
What type of gauze is used in Gypsona?
a)
Simple weave
b)
Leno weave
c)
Basket weave
d)
Knitted
43.
What is the exothermic reaction?
a)
The heat generated when removing a cast
b)
The heat generated by the material used during the setting process
c)
The heat generated when molding the cast
d)
The heat generated when the material is activated with water
44.
What is the 'working time' of a splinting or casting material?
a)
The length of time from activation until a degree of hardening occurs
b)
The time taken for a material to reach full, weight bearing strength
c)
The length of time that a material remains of moldable consistency.
d)
The length of time it takes for the material to set up, and then clean up afterwards - used for estimating the cost efficiency of the product.
45.
Choose the correct 3 layers of traditional cast construction
a)
Stockinette
b)
Waterproof liner
c)
Padding
d)
Cast material
46.
What are 3 common signs and symptoms of a fracture?
a)
High temperature
b)
Limited movement
c)
Pain
d)
Infection
e)
Swelling
47.
What is the primary purpose of Cuticell® Classic Paraffin Gauze in wound care?
a)
To provide medication to the wound
b)
To act as a secondary dressing
c)
To serve as a low adherent primary wound contact layer
d)
To absorb exudate from the wound
48.
What is the primary benefit of alpha crystals in the cast?
a)
Provides high strength and durability
b)
Ensures minimal fraying and loose threads
c)
Allows Quick Set Time
d)
Minimizes plaster loss
49.
What is crucial in a Level 2 – Application Value Proposition?
a)
Calculating value potential from customers situation and complications
b)
To use the best features in the calculation
c)
Assuming the value we can provide
d)
Inflating the potential value so it sounds like a strong value proposition
50.
How do you select what winning move to take?
a)
Align with right stage in buying journey and the probability of winning
b)
By analyzing what makes most sense in my schedule and with my interest
c)
By presenting the product I think the customer need
d)
By taking the same action that have worked with other customers
51.
How many actively engaged stakeholders are typically involved in an extended B2B buying decision?
a)
45660
b)
45753
c)
45850
d)
13-15
52.
What role does 'The Ambassador' play in stakeholder management?
a)
Makes the final purchase decision
b)
Advocates for the solution within the organization
c)
Directly uses the product
d)
Evaluates alternative solutions
53.
Which stakeholder is not considered an influencer?
a)
The Gatekeeper
b)
The Decision Maker
c)
The Ambassador
d)
The User
54.
In the SCAR model, what does the 'Situation' mean?
a)
The similar situation another customer found themselves in
b)
The situation we are currently exploring
c)
The complicated solution used to solve a situation
d)
The situation we would like to end up in with a sales
55.
When using the SCAR model in a meeting, what is a crucial criteria to ensure the relevance of the reference case?
a)
Select a reference case from a different industry demonstrating versatility
b)
Choose a reference case relevant to the customer's current challenge
c)
Use the most recent reference case, regardless of its relevance
d)
Always use the reference case with the highest financial impact
56.
What are the three steps to effectively challenge customers’ status quo with insights?
a)
Make up an insight, invent the source, skip engaging questions
b)
Explain the situation and complication, explore the action and result
c)
Use the 3 levels of the value proposition
d)
Select the insight, document the source, prepare engaging questions
57.
What are the four steps of the Objection-handling method?
a)
Acknowledge, Understand, Translate, Respond
b)
Argue, Understand, Trade, Respond
c)
Acknowledge, Understand, Translate, Resonate
d)
Alleviate, Uncover, Task, Ridicule
58.
When a stakeholder objects, what is important to keep in mind?
a)
They don’t understand what we mean
b)
To answer and convince the stakeholder about our value
c)
To explain the details of our products to bring clarity
d)
There are underlying reasons to the objection to uncover
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