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MCQs: Isolation Definition & Precautions (Q1-20)

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Isolation in healthcare is primarily used to:

a)

Provide privacy to the patient

b)

Prevent or reduce the transmission of infectious agents

c)

Restrict patient mobility only

d)

Reduce hospital costs

2.

One of the main purposes of isolation is to:

a)

Protect hospital staff only

b)

Ensure patients stay in bed rest

c)

Protect vulnerable patients from pathogens

d)

Replace antibiotic therapy

3.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for placing a patient in isolation?

a)

Preventing the spread of pathogens

b)

Protecting immunocompromised patients

c)

Increasing the length of hospital stay

d)

Reducing risk of hospital-acquired infections

4.

Protecting a very susceptible patient from exposure to pathogens is an example of:

a)

Source isolation

b)

Reverse isolation

c)

Contact precaution

d)

Droplet precaution

5.

Which component of the infection cycle is most directly targeted by isolation?

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Mode of transmission

d)

Pathogen virulence

6.

If the chain of infection is interrupted at the "portal of exit," the nurse should:

a)

Use protective immunizations

b)

Provide hand hygiene and covering of wounds

c)

Increase patient nutrition

d)

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics

7.

A nurse placing a mask on a patient with TB is breaking the chain at the level of:

a)

Reservoir

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Portal of exit

d)

Susceptible host

8.

Reverse isolation is designed to protect:

a)

Nurses from infected patients

b)

Visitors from nosocomial infection

c)

Immunocompromised patients

d)

Patients with highly contagious disease

9.

Which condition would most likely require reverse isolation?

a)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

b)

Hepatitis B

c)

Leukemia under chemotherapy

d)

MRSA wound infection

10.

Before admitting a patient under reverse isolation, the nurse should ensure:

a)

The room is disinfected thoroughly

b)

All windows remain open

c)

Patient remains in negative pressure room

d)

No protective equipment is used

11.

In reverse isolation, staff entering the room must wear:

a)

Only gloves

b)

Sterile gowns and masks

c)

Apron without gloves

d)

Shoe covers only

12.

Source isolation is primarily intended to:

a)

Limit spread of pathogens from infected patient

b)

Protect immunocompromised patients

c)

Reduce hospital cleaning costs

d)

Enhance medication effectiveness

13.

Determination of isolation procedure in source isolation depends on all EXCEPT:

a)

Mode of transmission

b)

Location of pathogen

c)

Patient’s economic status

d)

Virulence and susceptibility of pathogen

14.

Contact precautions are mainly used for pathogens transmitted by:

a)

Airborne particles

b)

Direct and indirect touch

c)

Large droplets

d)

Vector-borne insects

15.

A patient with Clostridium difficile should be placed under:

a)

Airborne precautions

b)

Droplet precautions

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Reverse isolation

16.

Droplet precautions are required for:

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Measles

c)

Influenza

d)

Chickenpox

17.

Which PPE is mandatory when caring for a patient on droplet precautions?

a)

N95 mask

b)

Surgical mask

c)

Sterile gown

d)

Face shield only

18.

Airborne precautions should be instituted for:

a)

MRSA wound infection

b)

Pertussis

c)

Pulmonary tuberculosis

d)

Hepatitis A

19.

The type of room required for airborne precautions is:

a)

Positive pressure room

b)

Negative pressure room

c)

Single bed only

d)

Shared ward with curtains

20.

Which sign should be placed outside the room of a patient under strict isolation?

a)

"Visitors Welcome"

b)

"No Food Inside"

c)

"Infection Control Precautions – See Nurse Before Entry"

d)

"Private Room" only

21.

A nurse’s first responsibility when entering an isolation room is:

a)

Provide medication

b)

Perform hand hygiene

c)

Adjust patient’s bed

d)

Check vital signs

22.

Which is a correct principle of gown use in isolation?

a)

Gown may be reused if not visibly soiled

b)

Gown should be removed before leaving the room

c)

Gown must be worn outside the room

d)

No gown required if gloves are used

23.

When removing PPE after isolation care, the first item to be removed is:

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

Cap

24.

When transporting a patient on airborne precautions, the nurse should ensure:

a)

Patient wears a surgical mask

b)

No protective equipment is required

c)

Patient remains in wheelchair without mask

d)

Staff wears N95, patient unprotected

25.

Which nursing action helps prevent psychological effects of isolation?

a)

Limit patient contact

b)

Provide health teaching and emotional support

c)

Reduce nurse-patient communication

d)

Keep patient uninformed

26.

A patient with neutropenia after chemotherapy develops a fever. Which isolation is appropriate?

a)

Source isolation

b)

Reverse isolation

c)

Contact precautions

d)

Droplet precautions

27.

If a patient is placed on source isolation for MRSA, which measure is most important?

a)

Use sterile gloves only

b)

Use PPE according to contact transmission precautions

c)

Ensure patient receives vitamin supplements

d)

Restrict visitors completely

28.

Which combination of precautions is correct for a patient with chickenpox?

a)

Contact + Droplet

b)

Airborne + Contact

c)

Reverse isolation

d)

Standard precautions only

29.

Which infection requires strict isolation due to multiple transmission routes (airborne and contact)?

a)

Hepatitis B

b)

Varicella (chickenpox)

c)

Influenza

d)

Shigella dysentery

30.

A nurse suspects a breach in isolation practice when a colleague:

a)

Uses alcohol rub before entering room

b)

Wears N95 mask for TB patient

c)

Takes stethoscope from one isolation room to another without disinfection

d)

Removes gloves before gown

31.

Which statement about standard precautions is TRUE?

a)

They apply only to patients with confirmed infection

b)

They are required for all patients, regardless of infection status

c)

They replace the need for isolation precautions

d)

They apply only in surgical wards

32.

Gloves should be changed:

a)

Only when visibly soiled

b)

Between care of different patients

c)

At end of shift only

d)

Only for surgical procedures

33.

Which patient requires droplet precautions rather than airborne?

a)

Pertussis

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Measles

d)

SARS-CoV-2 (COVID-19, aerosol procedures)

34.

A nurse must place a sign outside the room indicating:

a)

Patient’s diagnosis

b)

Type of isolation required

c)

Patient’s immune status

d)

Nurse’s name

35.

Which action is essential after leaving an isolation room?

a)

Immediately document care

b)

Wash hands thoroughly

c)

Remove hospital ID

d)

Change footwear

36.

A nurse educating visitors about contact isolation should emphasize:

a)

Wearing a gown and gloves when entering the room

b)

Visiting only during morning hours

c)

Wearing a surgical mask at all times

d)

Sitting 3 feet away from the patient

37.

Which infection requires contact precautions?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Varicella

c)

MRSA

d)

Measles

38.

When caring for a patient under multiple isolation types (airborne + contact), the nurse should:

a)

Apply the highest level of protection required

b)

Only use gloves if touching secretions

c)

Prioritize contact precautions over airborne

d)

Discontinue airborne if contact is in place

39.

Which scenario demonstrates a break in reverse isolation protocol?

a)

Staff wears sterile gown and mask before entry

b)

Room disinfected before admission

c)

Nurse enters after handwashing

d)

Visitor enters without mask after touching other patients

40.

Isolation practices are most effective when:

a)

Implemented selectively based on staff convenience

b)

Strictly followed according to infection control guidelines

c)

Only applied for airborne diseases

d)

Left to patient’s preference