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Worksheets

Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one of the following is TRUE regarding viral structure?

a)

All viruses contain both DNA and RNA

b)

All viruses contain a nucleocapsid

c)

Only DNA viruses have an envelope

d)

Only RNA viruses contain capsomeres

e)

Enveloped viruses are resistant to drying

2.

The viral envelope is derived primarily from which host cell component?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Ribosomes

e)

Mitochondria

3.

Negative-polarity RNA viruses must carry which enzyme inside the virion?

a)

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

b)

RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

DNA polymerase

e)

Integrase

4.

Which step in viral replication involves uncoating?

a)

Release of new virions

b)

Binding of virus to host cell receptors

c)

Penetration and loss of capsid

d)

Assembly of viral proteins

e)

Replication of nucleic acid

5.

Reassortment can occur only in which type of viruses?

a)

Segmented RNA viruses

b)

Nonsegmented RNA viruses

c)

DNA viruses

d)

Enveloped DNA viruses

e)

Retroviruses

6.

A 22-year-old medical student is examining a pus sample from a suspected Staphylococcus wound infection. Under the microscope, she notes purple cocci arranged in clusters. Which step in Gram staining is primarily responsible for fixing the crystal violet–iodine complex inside these Gram-positive organisms?

a)

Application of safranin

b)

Application of Lugol’s iodine

c)

Decolorization with acetone-alcohol

d)

Heating the slide during fixation

e)

Washing with tap water

7.

A 30-year-old lab technician is asked to culture a sputum sample suspected for Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which culture medium will best support the growth of this fastidious organism?

a)

MacConkey agar

b)

Sabouraud agar

c)

Blood agar

d)

Nutrient agar

e)

TCBS agar

8.

A child presents with chronic cough and the physician suspects tuberculosis. A sputum sample is sent for culture. On which medium will Mycobacterium tuberculosis grow as rough, buff-colored colonies after 14–21 days?

a)

CLED

b)

Nutrient agar

c)

Lowenstein-Jensen medium

d)

SS agar

e)

MacConkey agar

9.

A 56-year-old diabetic patient is suspected of having Candida infection. Which culture medium is most suitable to isolate fungal pathogens?

a)

Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

b)

Blood agar

c)

CLED agar

d)

TCBS agar

e)

Nutrient agar

10.

A microbiology student is performing Gram staining but leaves acetone-alcohol on the slide too long. What is the MOST likely outcome?

a)

Gram-positive bacteria appear purple

b)

Gram-negative bacteria appear purple

c)

Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative appear pink

d)

Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative appear purple

e)

Gram-negative bacteria lose the counterstain

11.

A culture plate of Pseudomonas aeruginosa is grown on MacConkey agar. It produces pale colonies. What conclusion can be drawn?

a)

It ferments lactose

b)

It does not ferment lactose

c)

It is Gram-positive

d)

It is inhibited by bile salts

e)

It produces H2S

12.

A medical intern is inoculating a plate using a wire loop. What is the correct method to sterilize the loop before and after use?

a)

Wash with spirit

b)

Dip in bleach

c)

Heat until red-hot in Bunsen flame

d)

Rinse with hot water

e)

Expose to UV radiation

13.

A sputum sample contains Gram-negative diplococci. The student wants to ensure the Gram stain accuracy. Which organism should be used as a Gram-negative control?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Bacillus species

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

14.

A specimen must be sterilized but contains oily substances incompatible with moist heat. Which method is most appropriate?

a)

Autoclaving at 121°C

b)

Boiling at 100°C

c)

Hot air oven at 160°C for 2 hours

d)

Pasteurization

e)

Flaming

15.

During sterilization quality control, a biological indicator is used for autoclaves. Which organism is commonly used?

a)

E. coli

b)

Bacillus stearothermophilus spores

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

e)

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

16.

A urine sample is sent to identify bacteria while preventing swarming of Proteus species. Which medium should the lab use?

a)

CLED medium

b)

Blood agar

c)

Sabouraud agar

d)

MacConkey agar

e)

TCBS agar

17.

A resident needs to determine antibiotic susceptibility of a bacterial isolate. Which medium is required for Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion?

a)

Blood agar

b)

Nutrient agar

c)

Mueller-Hinton agar

d)

Chocolate agar

e)

Sabouraud agar

18.

A medical student must sterilize forceps used during flaming. The suitable method is:

a)

Red heat

b)

Hot air oven

c)

UV radiation

d)

Ionizing radiation

e)

Pasteurization

19.

A suspected case of Haemophilus influenzae requires special growth factors. Which medium provides X and V factors?

a)

Blood agar

b)

Nutrient agar

c)

Chocolate agar

d)

CLED

e)

TCBS

20.

A lab technician notes that Gram staining of Mycobacterium failed. Which is the correct alternative?

a)

Giemsa stain

b)

Acid-fast stain

c)

Albert stain

d)

Negative staining

e)

Indian ink

21.

An incubator malfunction results in temperatures at 25°C instead of 37°C. What is the most likely effect on routine bacterial cultures?

a)

Enhanced growth

b)

Inhibited growth

c)

No effect

d)

Gram-negative organisms only grow

e)

Gram-positive organisms only grow

22.

A lab worker needs to separate plasma from whole blood. Which instrument should be used?

a)

Incubator

b)

Centrifuge

c)

Hot air oven

d)

Autoclave

e)

Bunsen burner

23.

A microbiology student prepares nutrient agar but observes no bacterial growth. Which organism is LEAST likely to grow on simple media?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Bacillus subtilis

e)

E. coli

24.

A patient sample shows mixed flora with Gram-negative rods, some intracellular. Which reporting element is essential for Gram smear interpretation?

a)

Hemolysis pattern

b)

Bacterial colony color

c)

Number of pus cells

d)

Growth rate

e)

Oxygen requirement

25.

A 22-year-old man presents with abdominal cramps and intermittent diarrhea after returning from a camping trip where he drank unfiltered lake water. Stool microscopy shows motile trophozoites with "falling leaf" motility. Which form of the parasite was MOST likely responsible for initiating his infection?

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Cyst

c)

Oocyst

d)

Sporozoite

e)

Merozoite

26.

A 45-year-old patient undergoing chemotherapy develops severe neutropenia with a polymorphonuclear leukocyte count of 300μL300\mu L . He presents with pneumonia and is unable to mount an effective phagocytic response. Which class of antimicrobial agents is MOST appropriate for this patient's condition?

a)

Bacteriostatic drugs, because they prevent bacterial replication

b)

Bacteriostatic drugs, because their effect is reversible

c)

Bactericidal drugs, because they kill bacteria without host defenses

d)

Any drug, because host immunity is not relevant

e)

Bacteriostatic drugs, because they enhance neutrophil function

27.

A 34-year-old woman presents with recurrent nasal colonization by Staphylococcus aureus. Research studies show that the organism attaches strongly to mucosal epithelial cells. Which bacterial cell wall structure MOST directly facilitates this attachment?

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Teichoic acids

c)

Lipopolysaccharide

d)

Capsule

e)

Flagellar proteins

28.

A 67-year-old man with diabetes is admitted with a severe skin and soft tissue infection. Wound culture grows methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). The patient is started on IV vancomycin. Which mechanism BEST explains how vancomycin inhibits cell wall synthesis in this organism?

a)

Binding directly to transpeptidase, preventing cross-linking

b)

Blocking β-lactamase enzymes from degrading penicillins

c)

Binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine, preventing transpeptidation

d)

Disrupting outer membrane porins of Gram-negative bacteria

e)

Inhibiting DNA gyrase, preventing replication

29.

A 26-year-old woman presents with dysuria and increased urinary frequency. Urine culture grows E. coli. She is prescribed a sulfonamide. Which mechanism BEST explains how sulfonamides inhibit bacterial growth?

a)

Inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase, preventing folate recycling

b)

Competing with PABA and blocking dihydropteroate synthetase

c)

Binding directly to bacterial ribosomes to inhibit translation

d)

Inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase, preventing replication

e)

Destroying bacterial cell walls through pore formation

30.

During an outbreak investigation, several gram-negative isolates from different patients show identical patterns of multidrug resistance to β-lactams, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines. Genetic analysis reveals that all isolates share the same circular, double-stranded DNA element encoding multiple resistance enzymes and altered transport systems. Which feature MOST strongly suggests plasmid-mediated resistance in this scenario?

a)

Resistance confined only to a single bacterial species

b)

Resistance lost when the organism is cultured on simple media

c)

Presence of extrachromosomal DNA transferable between bacteria

d)

Resistance due to decreased affinity of ribosomes

e)

Resistance caused by mutations in chromosomal topoisomerase genes

31.

A 7-year-old child develops bloody diarrhea after eating undercooked hamburger meat at a family picnic. Two days later, she becomes pale and oliguric. Labs show anemia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated creatinine, suggesting hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS). Which mechanism BEST explains the toxin responsible for this condition?

a)

Activation of adenylate cyclase causing massive chloride secretion

b)

Activation of guanylate cyclase increasing cGMP levels

c)

ADP-ribosylation of Gs protein leading to increased cAMP

d)

Removal of adenine from 28S rRNA, inhibiting protein synthesis

e)

Formation of pores in cell membranes leading to cell lysis

32.

Which best describes phenotypic mixing?

a)

Exchange of genome segments

b)

Incorporation of host cell proteins into virion

c)

Capsid proteins of one virus surrounding genome of another

d)

Mutation in viral polymerase

e)

Integration of viral DNA into host genome

33.

Which statement best describes viral pathogenesis?

a)

Only cytolytic viruses cause disease

b)

Viral spread is limited exclusively to bloodstream

c)

Cytotoxic T cells can cause tissue damage while clearing virus

d)

Viruses never suppress host immunity

e)

All viruses cause persistent infection

34.

The most important early nonspecific defense against viruses is:

a)

Antibody

b)

Complement

c)

Interferons α and β

d)

Cytotoxic T cells

e)

Neutrophils

35.

Viral diagnosis by PCR is based on detection of:

a)

Cytopathic effect

b)

Viral antigens

c)

Viral genome sequences

d)

Antibodies in serum

e)

Viral enzymes