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2.1 Perception Vocabulary

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term refers to a binocular cue for perceiving depth by comparing images from the retinas in the two eyes, where greater difference between the two images indicates a closer object?

a)

Convergence

b)

Retinal disparity

c)

Linear perspective

d)

Interposition

e)

Relative size

2.

Depth cues that depend on the use of two eyes are called what?

a)

Monocular cues

b)

Gestalt principles

c)

Binocular depth cues

d)

Texture gradients

e)

Perceptual set

3.

A mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another is known as what?

a)

Perceptual set

b)

Schema

c)

Top-down processing

d)

Selective attention

e)

Expectancy

4.

Which term describes the organization of the visual field into objects that stand out from their surroundings?

a)

Similarity

b)

Figure and ground

c)

Closure

d)

Proximity

e)

Continuity

5.

Which depth cues, such as interposition and linear perspective, are available to either eye alone?

a)

Binocular depth cues

b)

Relative clarity cues

c)

Monocular cues

d)

Retinal disparity cues

e)

Convergence cues

6.

Which school emphasized our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes?

a)

Behaviorism

b)

Psychoanalysis

c)

Gestalt psychology

d)

Humanism

e)

Structuralism

7.

Which analysis begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain’s integration of sensory information?

a)

Top-down processing

b)

Bottom-up processing

c)

Selective attention

d)

Perceptual constancy

e)

Schema-driven processing

8.

Failing to see visible objects when attention is directed elsewhere is called what?

a)

Change blindness

b)

Inattentional blindness

c)

Cocktail party effect

d)

Illusion

e)

Selective attention

9.

Perceptions that begin with the most general and move toward the more specific, guided by higher-level mental processes and expectations, are called what?

a)

Bottom-up processing

b)

Top-down processing

c)

Divided attention

d)

Perceptual constancy

e)

Expectancy

10.

What term describes the processes that allow an individual to select and focus on particular input for further processing while suppressing irrelevant information?

a)

Divided attention

b)

Selective attention

c)

Perceptual set

d)

Schema

e)

Expectancy

11.

The ability to focus one’s attention on a particular stimulus while filtering out a range of other stimuli is called what?

a)

Change blindness

b)

Cocktail party effect

c)

Inattentional blindness

d)

Relative clarity

e)

Apparent movement

12.

An illusion of motion or change in size of a visual stimulus is referred to as what?

a)

Apparent movement

b)

Closure

c)

Similarity

d)

Texture gradient

e)

Relative size

13.

A state in which cognitive resources are focused on certain aspects of the environment, ready to respond to stimuli, is best described by which term?

a)

Expectancy

b)

Schema

c)

Perceptual set

d)

Attention

e)

Perceptual constancy

14.

Failure to notice changes in the visual array appearing in two successive scenes is known as what?

a)

Change blindness

b)

Divided attention

c)

Relative clarity

d)

Continuity

e)

Proximity

15.

Which Gestalt principle states that people perceive incomplete forms as complete by synthesizing missing parts?

a)

Similarity

b)

Closure

c)

Proximity

d)

Figure and ground

e)

Continuation

16.

The rotation of the two eyes inward toward a light source so that the image falls on corresponding points on the foveas is called what?

a)

Interposition

b)

Convergence

c)

Retinal disparity

d)

Linear perspective

e)

Relative size

17.

A monocular depth cue in which the closer object partly conceals the farther object is called what?

a)

Relative clarity

b)

Interposition

c)

Texture gradient

d)

Retinal disparity

e)

Convergence

18.

Parallel lines that converge appear far away. Which cue does this describe?

a)

Relative size

b)

Linear perspective

c)

Proximity

d)

Similarity

e)

Figure and ground

19.

Which Gestalt principle states that people tend to organize objects close to each other into a perceptual group and interpret them as a single entity?

a)

Similarity

b)

Proximity

c)

Continuation

d)

Figure and ground

e)

Closure

20.

Objects that appear sharp, clear, and detailed are seen as closer than more hazy objects. Which cue is this?

a)

Relative size

b)

Relative clarity

c)

Texture gradient

d)

Expectancy

e)

Schema

21.

Which term refers to how large something is compared to another object?

a)

Relative size

b)

Retinal disparity

c)

Closure

d)

Proximity

e)

Similarity

22.

What is a collection of basic knowledge about a concept that serves as a guide to perception and interpretation?

a)

Perceptual set

b)

Schema

c)

Expectancy

d)

Attention

e)

Perceptual constancy

23.

In classification tasks, grouping items based on shared function or category membership is called what?

a)

Similarity

b)

Figure and ground

c)

Schema formation

d)

Categorization by similarity

e)

Gestalt organization

24.

Which cue describes the decline in resolution of textures as the viewer moves away from them?

a)

Relative clarity

b)

Texture gradient

c)

Relative size

d)

Linear perspective

e)

Proximity

25.

What term refers to mental focus on multiple tasks or ideas at once?

a)

Selective attention

b)

Divided attention

c)

Expectancy

d)

Top-down processing

e)

Bottom-up processing

26.

Which term refers to the internal state resulting from experience with predictable relationships between stimuli or responses and stimuli, and in motivation, a belief that actions can produce a particular outcome?

a)

Perceptual set

b)

Expectancy

c)

Schema

d)

Attention

e)

Perceptual constancy

27.

What is a false sensory percept, most commonly affecting the senses due to misinterpretation of sensory stimuli?

a)

Illusion

b)

Change blindness

c)

Apparent movement

d)

Closure

e)

Similarity

28.

Awareness of three-dimensionality, solidity, and the distance between the observer and the object is called what?

a)

Depth perception

b)

Binocular disparity

c)

Monocular cues

d)

Perceptual constancy

e)

Figure and ground

29.

Which phenomenon describes objects or properties appearing unchanged despite variations in stimulus or observation conditions (e.g., brightness, color, size)?

a)

Top-down processing

b)

Perceptual constancy

c)

Relative clarity

d)

Texture gradient

e)

Schema

30.

Which term refers to a methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem?

a)

Heuristic

b)

Algorithm

c)

Prototype

d)

Priming

31.

Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory best defines which heuristic?

a)

Anchoring bias

b)

Representativeness heuristic

c)

Availability heuristic

d)

Sunk-cost fallacy

32.

Judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes describes which concept?

a)

Representativeness heuristic

b)

Functional fixedness

c)

Framing

d)

Divergent thinking

33.

Which concept explains how the way an issue is posed can significantly affect decisions and judgments?

a)

Priming

b)

Framing

c)

Assimilation

d)

Concept

34.

What is the tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions, which impedes creativity and problem solving?

a)

Mental set

b)

Functional fixedness

c)

Executive functions

d)

Convergent thinking

35.

Approaching a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past, is known as:

a)

Creativity

b)

Priming

c)

Mental set

d)

Divergent thinking

36.

The activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations that predisposes one’s perception, memory, or response is called:

a)

Priming

b)

Concept formation

c)

Accommodation

d)

Gambler’s fallacy

37.

A mental image or best example of a category is called a:

a)

Prototype

b)

Schema

c)

Algorithm

d)

Bias

38.

Failing to recognize the independence of chance events, leading to the mistaken belief that one can predict outcomes based on past chance events, is the:

a)

Optimism bias

b)

Gambler’s fallacy

c)

Peak-end rule

d)

Anchoring bias

39.

The tendency to continue a course of action in which one has already invested money, time, or effort is the:

a)

Sunk-cost fallacy

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Choice-supportive bias

d)

Halo effect

40.

Which term describes all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating?

a)

Cognition

b)

Executive functions

c)

Creativity

d)

Concept

41.

Which process involves generating, organizing, planning, and carrying out goal-directed behaviors and critical thinking?

a)

Executive functions

b)

Convergent thinking

c)

Assimilation

d)

Anchoring

42.

When already existing structures are changed to accommodate new information, this is called:

a)

Assimilation

b)

Accommodation

c)

Priming

d)

Framing

43.

When new information is incorporated into an already existing cognitive structure, this is called:

a)

Assimilation

b)

Accommodation

c)

Convergent thinking

d)

Divergent thinking

44.

Which type of thinking uses linear, logical steps to analyze already formulated solutions to find the most likely correct one?

a)

Divergent thinking

b)

Convergent thinking

c)

Creative thinking

d)

Heuristics

45.

Creative thinking in which an individual solves a problem using strategies that deviate from commonly used or previously taught strategies—where quantity is more important than quality—is called:

a)

Convergent thinking

b)

Divergent thinking

c)

Functional fixedness

d)

Mental set

46.

Which term refers to a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently, though not guaranteed to be correct?

a)

Algorithm

b)

Heuristic

c)

Prototype

d)

Priming

47.

Which bias category includes anchoring bias, confirmation bias, availability heuristic, and choice-supportive bias?

a)

Social biases

b)

Memory biases

c)

Decision-making biases

d)

Probability and belief biases

48.

Which term describes a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence?

a)

overconfidence

b)

confirmation bias

c)

anchoring bias

d)

self-serving bias

e)

belief perseverance

49.

The tendency to be more confident than correct—to overestimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments—is known as:

a)

overconfidence

b)

hindsight bias

c)

anchoring bias

d)

intrinsic motivation

e)

divergent thinking

50.

Clinging to one’s initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited is called:

a)

self-serving bias

b)

belief perseverance

c)

confirmation bias

d)

divergent thinking

e)

anchoring bias

51.

A great boost to creativity; doing something for its own reward refers to:

a)

intrinsic motivation

b)

overconfidence

c)

self-serving bias

d)

hindsight bias

e)

anchoring bias

52.

After an event has occurred, overestimating the extent to which the outcome could have been foreseen is known as:

a)

confirmation bias

b)

hindsight bias

c)

anchoring bias

d)

belief perseverance

e)

divergent thinking

53.

Giving excessive weight to the starting value when making quantitative judgments under uncertainty best defines:

a)

self-serving bias

b)

anchoring bias

c)

confirmation bias

d)

overconfidence

e)

intrinsic motivation

54.

Creative or “sideways” thinking that deliberately attempts to reexamine basic assumptions and change perspective to provide a fresh approach to solving a problem is:

a)

divergent thinking

b)

intrinsic motivation

c)

belief perseverance

d)

confirmation bias

e)

hindsight bias

55.

Interpreting events in a way that assigns credit for success to oneself but blames failure on external factors is called:

a)

self-serving bias

b)

overconfidence

c)

confirmation bias

d)

anchoring bias

e)

belief perseverance

56.

Which component in the Working Memory Model is responsible for coordinating the subsystems?

a)

phonological loop

b)

central executive

c)

episodic buffer

d)

visuo-spatial sketchpad

e)

long-term storage memory

57.

A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli, like a photographic memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second, is called:

a)

echoic memory

b)

iconic memory

c)

short-term memory

d)

working memory

e)

procedural memory

58.

A momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli, where sounds and words can still be recalled within 3 or 4 seconds, is known as:

a)

iconic memory

b)

echoic memory

c)

semantic memory

d)

episodic memory

e)

procedural memory

59.

The process of getting information out of memory storage is called:

a)

encoding

b)

storage

c)

retrieval

d)

rehearsal

e)

long-term potentiation

60.

Which term refers to memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and declare?

a)

Implicit memory

b)

Explicit memory

c)

Procedural memory

d)

Iconic memory

e)

Episodic buffer

61.

What type of encoding requires attention and conscious effort?

a)

Automatic processing

b)

Shallow processing

c)

Effortful processing

d)

Echoic processing

e)

Iconic processing

62.

The memory for intentions—remembering to do something ahead of time—is known as which type of memory?

a)

Prospective memory

b)

Episodic memory

c)

Semantic memory

d)

Working memory

e)

Flashbulb memory

63.

Processing at a semantic level, usually involving a degree of elaboration and producing stronger, longer-lasting memories, is called what?

a)

Shallow processing

b)

Phonemic processing

c)

Iconic processing

d)

Deep processing

e)

Echoic processing

64.

Which term describes the relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system that includes knowledge, skills, and experiences?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Working memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Sensory memory

e)

Episodic memory

65.

An increase in a synapse’s firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation—believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory—is called what?

a)

Neural priming

b)

Long-term potentiation

c)

Consolidation

d)

Reconsolidation

e)

Myelination

66.

Which processing type involves the processing of encoding sounds, actual words, and other auditory input for storage and retrieval?

a)

Semantic processing

b)

Phonemic processing (auditory analysis)

c)

Perceptual (visual) analysis

d)

Motor encoding

e)

Iconic processing

67.

According to the model developed by Craik and Lockhart, what determines the level of recall?

a)

The duration of rehearsal time only

b)

The depth/level of encoding

c)

The total number of repetitions

d)

The novelty of the stimulus

e)

The time of day during study

68.

Which theory, developed by Atkinson and Shiffrin, hypothesizes that information can move through and be retained in any of several memory storage systems, usually a short-term and a long-term variety?

a)

Levels of processing theory

b)

Dual-coding theory

c)

Modal model of memory (multi-store model)

d)

Connectionist model

e)

Working memory model

69.

What is the ability to remember personally experienced events associated with a particular time and place called?

a)

Semantic memory

b)

Episodic memory

c)

Prospective memory

d)

Procedural memory

e)

Iconic memory

70.

Cognitive encoding of new information that focuses on its meaningful aspects, especially the meaning of words, is known as what?

a)

Shallow processing

b)

Deep processing (semantic analysis)

c)

Phonemic processing

d)

Iconic processing

e)

Maintenance rehearsal

71.

What term describes the quality of a behavior or mental process that can be carried out rapidly and without effort or explicit intention, including the unconscious encoding of incidental information and well-learned information such as word meanings?

a)

Effortful processing

b)

Implicit processing (automatic processing)

c)

Controlled processing

d)

Elaborative rehearsal

e)

Metacognition

72.

What term refers to the brief retention of information in a highly accessible state and a newer understanding that focuses on conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory?

a)

Sensory memory

b)

Short-term/working memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Implicit memory

e)

Procedural memory

73.

Within working memory, which component holds and manipulates auditory information over short intervals of time?

a)

Visuospatial sketchpad

b)

Central executive

c)

Phonological loop

d)

Episodic buffer

e)

Iconic store

74.

Which memory model, proposed by Baddeley and Hitch, describes the short-term maintenance and manipulation of information necessary for performing complex cognitive tasks such as learning, reasoning, and comprehension?

a)

Levels of processing model

b)

Modal (multi-store) model

c)

Working memory model

d)

Connectionist network model

e)

Dual-process model

75.

In the working memory model, which component briefly holds and manipulates information about the appearance of objects and their location in space?

a)

Phonological loop

b)

Central executive

c)

Visuospatial sketchpad

d)

Episodic buffer

e)

Long-term store

76.

According to the Multi-Store Model by Atkinson & Shiffrin, which memory store immediately receives sensory input like sights and sounds before attention filters it?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Long-term memory

c)

Sensory memory

d)

Working memory

77.

Which term refers to memory that retains a few items only for several seconds, introduced by William James in dual-store models?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Primary memory

c)

Procedural memory

d)

Iconic memory

78.

Which term is defined as the immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system?

a)

Sensory memory

b)

Echoic memory

c)

Iconic memory

d)

Primary memory

79.

The reproduction, recognition, or recall of a limited amount of material after about 10 to 30 seconds best defines which concept?

a)

Long-term memory

b)

Short-term memory

c)

Sensory registry

d)

Working memory span

80.

Which encoding strategy involves organizing items into familiar, manageable units to aid short-term memory retention?

a)

Method of loci

b)

Chunking

c)

Mnemonics

d)

Classification

81.

Distributing to-be-learned information across short, interrupted study sessions to improve long-term retention is called what?

a)

Massed practice

b)

Distributed practice

c)

Primacy effect

d)

Recency effect

82.

Which item names the first stage of memory processing that converts sensory input into a form capable of being processed and deposited in memory?

a)

Encoding

b)

Retention

c)

Retrieval

d)

Consolidation

83.

A learning procedure where practice periods for a task are separated by lengthy rest periods or different activities, found to be more effective than cramming, is known as what?

a)

Massed practice

b)

Distributed practice

c)

Overlearning

d)

Maintenance rehearsal

84.

Which concept contends that long-term memory is organized through hierarchical arrangements of concepts?

a)

Chunking

b)

Hierarchies

c)

Method of loci

d)

Serial position effect

85.

In classification tasks, grouping items based on shared function or category (e.g., cow, dog, horse; tractor, bus, motorcycle) exemplifies which process?

a)

Encoding

b)

Classification

c)

Grouping

d)

Method of loci

86.

Which term best fits the definition: the loss of memory?

a)

Amnesia

b)

Long-term memory

c)

Elaborative rehearsal

d)

Working memory

e)

Sensory memory

87.

Which term describes the relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system, including knowledge, skills, and experiences?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Working memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Sensory memory

e)

Memory retention

88.

Repeating items over and over (out loud or silently) to keep them in short-term memory is known as what?

a)

Elaborative rehearsal

b)

Maintenance rehearsal

c)

Distributed practice

d)

Chunking

e)

Self-reference effect

89.

Linking new information to what one already knows to form richer associations is called what?

a)

Sensory memory

b)

Maintenance rehearsal

c)

Elaborative rehearsal

d)

Autobiographical memory

e)

Rehearsal

90.

Which type of amnesia is marked by an inability to form new memories due to a disturbance in memory required to learn new information?

a)

Retrograde amnesia

b)

Anterograde amnesia

c)

Infantile amnesia

d)

Alzheimer’s disease

e)

Working memory loss

91.

The commonly experienced inability to recall events from early childhood due to immature encoding and retrieval systems is known as what?

a)

Anterograde amnesia

b)

Infantile amnesia

c)

Retrograde amnesia

d)

Working memory loss

e)

Sensory memory decay

92.

A person’s memory for episodes or experiences that occurred in their own life is called what?

a)

Procedural memory

b)

Autobiographical memory

c)

Semantic memory

d)

Episodic rehearsal

e)

Memory retention

93.

Which term refers to the persistence of learned behavior or experience over time as indicated by the ability to recall, recognize, reproduce, or relearn it—the second stage of memory after encoding and before retrieval?

a)

Rehearsal

b)

Memory retention

c)

Working memory

d)

Sensory memory

e)

Long-term memory

94.

Which disorder is a progressive neurodegenerative disease characterized by synapse loss, dementia, and a significant decline in functioning, including rapid forgetting of new information and impaired recall and recognition?

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

Anterograde amnesia

c)

Retrograde amnesia

d)

Infantile amnesia

e)

Short-term memory decay

95.

Which term best describes the finding that memory for a past event is improved when a person is in the same biological or psychological state as when the memory was formed?

a)

Context-dependent memory

b)

State-dependent memory

c)

Mood-congruent memory

d)

Recognition

96.

A person recalls more details of a happy event when they are currently in a happy mood. Which concept explains this effect?

a)

Testing effect

b)

Mood-congruent memory

c)

Metacognition

d)

Retrieval

97.

Learning that is displayed only when the same place, circumstance, or state is present as during learning is most closely associated with which idea?

a)

Context-specific learning

b)

Recall

c)

Recognition

d)

Metacognition

98.

On a fill-in-the-blank test, a person must retrieve information learned earlier. This is an example of:

a)

Recognition

b)

Recall

c)

Retrieval cues

d)

Testing effect

99.

Identifying previously learned items on a multiple-choice test is an example of:

a)

Recall

b)

Recognition

c)

Retrieval

d)

Repression

100.

What term refers to the process of getting information out of memory storage?

a)

Encoding

b)

Retrieval

c)

Consolidation

d)

Interference

101.

A prompt or stimulus used to guide memory recall is called a:

a)

Retrieval cue

b)

Schema

c)

Prototype

d)

Memory trace

102.

Research shows that enhanced memory after retrieving information, rather than simply rereading it, leads to better retention. This finding is known as the:

a)

Spacing effect

b)

Testing effect

c)

Forgetting curve

d)

Encoding specificity

103.

A breakdown in the process of getting information into the cognitive system refers to:

a)

Encoding failure

b)

Memory consolidation

c)

Interference

d)

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

104.

Which concept is most directly illustrated by the observation that forgetting occurs rapidly at first and then levels off over time?

a)

Forgetting curve

b)

Proactive interference

c)

Retroactive interference

d)

Testing effect

105.

You learn new material for a test, which then makes it harder to remember previously learned information. This best illustrates:

a)

Retroactive interference

b)

Proactive interference

c)

Repression

d)

Memory consolidation

106.

After reading misleading details about an event, a person’s memory of that event becomes distorted. This is known as the:

a)

Source amnesia

b)

Misinformation effect

c)

Imagination inflation

d)

Constructive memory

107.

Momentarily knowing a word but being unable to produce it is an example of the:

a)

Encoding failure

b)

Tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon

c)

Recognition

d)

Recall

108.

Which concept refers to the disruptive effect of old learning on the recall of new information?

a)

Proactive interference

b)

Retroactive interference

c)

Source amnesia

d)

Repression

109.

A person misattributes a memory to the wrong source, recalling misleading information from an experiment instead of the original event. What is this error called?

a)

Encoding failure

b)

Source amnesia

c)

Retroactive interference

d)

Anterograde amnesia

110.

Hermann Ebbinghaus’s early forgetting research showed a sharp initial drop in retention followed by a gradual decline. What term best labels a graph of forgetting over time after learning has occurred?

a)

Learning curve

b)

Forgetting curve

c)

Acquisition curve

d)

Retention plateau

111.

Which term names the neurobiological processes by which a permanent memory is formed following a learning experience?

a)

Consolidation

b)

Rehearsal

c)

Priming

d)

Chunking

112.

What defense mechanism banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness, according to psychoanalytic theory?

a)

Suppression

b)

Repression

c)

Denial

d)

Projection

113.

The tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) experience is best described as:

a)

Complete forgetting of a learned item

b)

A failure of encoding into long-term memory

c)

Temporary inability to retrieve a known word or name

d)

Permanent loss of semantic memory

114.

Blocking of learning or memory retrieval by other conflicting material is broadly called:

a)

Amnesia

b)

Interference

c)

Decay

d)

Cue-dependent forgetting

115.

In the diagram comparing retrograde and anterograde amnesia, which type shows memory loss for events before the onset of amnesia?

a)

Anterograde amnesia

b)

Retrograde amnesia

c)

Source amnesia

d)

Infantile amnesia

116.

Which test type is specifically designed to assess what a person has learned?

a)

Aptitude test

b)

Achievement test

c)

Intelligence test

d)

Predictive validity test

117.

Tests intended to predict a person’s future performance are called:

a)

Achievement tests

b)

Aptitude tests

c)

Reliability tests

d)

Cultural test bias

118.

What term refers to the amount of time elapsed since an individual’s birth, expressed in months and years?

a)

Mental age

b)

Chronological age

c)

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

d)

Predictive validity

119.

The degree to which a test measures a concept, trait, or theoretical construct is known as:

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Standardization

d)

Split-half reliability

120.

Which term refers to the general intelligence factor believed to underlie specific mental abilities?

a)

g

b)

IQ

c)

Mental age

d)

Growth mindset

121.

Which concept focuses on the belief that abilities can be developed through dedication and effort, contrasting with a fixed mindset?

a)

Reliability

b)

Growth mindset

c)

Stereotype threat

d)

Construct validity

122.

Which phrase best describes the main difference between achievement and aptitude tests?

a)

Achievement tests assess learned knowledge; aptitude tests predict future performance

b)

Achievement tests predict future performance; aptitude tests assess learned knowledge

c)

Both measure g exclusively

d)

Both are measures of reliability

123.

Which term refers to evidence that a test score correlates with a variable measured at some point after the test has been administered?

a)

Concurrent validity

b)

Predictive validity

c)

Face validity

d)

Content validity

e)

Ecological validity

124.

Which concept is the degree to which empirical evidence and theoretical rationale support the appropriateness of conclusions drawn from an assessment—i.e., the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to measure or predict?

a)

Reliability

b)

Standardization

c)

Validity

d)

Normalization

e)

Objectivity

125.

According to Spearman, what is the general intelligence factor that underlies specific mental abilities and is measured by every task on an intelligence test?

a)

Fluid intelligence

b)

Crystallized intelligence

c)

g factor

d)

Triarchic intelligence

e)

Multiple intelligences

126.

What term describes the gradual cross-cultural rise in raw scores on measures of general intelligence?

a)

Stereotype threat

b)

The Flynn effect

c)

Overjustification effect

d)

Pygmalion effect

e)

Hawthorne effect

127.

Which mindset is characterized by beliefs such as “something you’re born with,” “avoid challenges,” and “get defensive when receiving feedback”?

a)

Growth mindset

b)

Fixed mindset

c)

Collective mindset

d)

Incremental mindset

e)

Entity-growth hybrid mindset

128.

Which mindset includes beliefs like “comes from hard work,” “challenges are opportunities to grow,” and “setbacks are wake-up calls to work harder next time”?

a)

Fixed mindset

b)

Growth mindset

c)

Trait mindset

d)

Static mindset

e)

Performance mindset

129.

Which item best matches the belief that your intelligence, talents, and other abilities are set in stone?

a)

Growth mindset

b)

Incremental theory

c)

Fixed mindset

d)

Triarchic view

e)

Process orientation

130.

Which statement reflects the belief that a person’s intelligence and abilities can grow and improve with practice?

a)

Fixed mindset

b)

Entity theory

c)

Innate ability view

d)

Growth mindset

e)

Static trait model

131.

What is a method for assessing an individual’s mental aptitudes and comparing them with those of others, using numerical scores?

a)

Standardization

b)

Achievement motivation

c)

Intelligence test

d)

Norm-referenced grading

e)

Operationalization

132.

Defined originally as the ratio of mental age to chronological age multiplied by 100, which measure is being described?

a)

Standard score (z-score)

b)

Intelligence quotient (IQ)

c)

Stanine

d)

Percentile rank

e)

Deviation IQ only

133.

Which term refers to the trustworthiness or consistency of a measure—yielding the same results across multiple applications to the same sample when free of random error?

a)

Validity

b)

Reliability

c)

Standard error

d)

Normalization

e)

Objectivity

134.

Which measure of intelligence test performance, devised by Binet, corresponds to a given level of performance and is compared to chronological age?

a)

Deviation IQ

b)

Mental age

c)

Grade-equivalent score

d)

Aptitude index

e)

Standard age score

135.

What term describes the internal consistency of surveys or tests assessed by splitting items into halves and correlating the two sets of scores?

a)

Test–retest reliability

b)

Inter-rater reliability

c)

Split-half reliability

d)

Alternate-forms validity

e)

Content validity

136.

What is the process of defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group?

a)

Standardization

b)

Normalization

c)

Calibration

d)

Criterioning

e)

Anchoring

137.

Which concept is a self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype?

a)

Stereotype threat

b)

Self-fulfilling prophecy

c)

Social comparison

d)

Learned helplessness

e)

Spotlight effect

138.

Which procedure estimates reliability by administering the same test twice over a period of time to the same group and correlating the scores?

a)

Split-half reliability

b)

Inter-rater reliability

c)

Test–retest reliability

d)

Parallel-forms validity

e)

Face validity

139.

Which effect describes a performance boost that occurs when downward comparisons are made with a denigrated outgroup?

a)

Stereotype lift

b)

Social loafing

c)

Hawthorne effect

d)

Contrast effect

e)

Pygmalion effect

140.

Which term refers to mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations?

a)

Aptitude

b)

Achievement

c)

Intelligence

d)

Wisdom

e)

Creativity

141.

What is partiality of a test in favor of individuals from certain backgrounds at the expense of those from other backgrounds—possibly in content, format, or administration?

a)

Sampling bias

b)

Construct underrepresentation

c)

Test bias

d)

Confirmation bias

e)

Selection bias

142.

Which term describes the tendency of test scores to systematically over- or underestimate the true performance of individuals because they are members of specific groups to whom the test is administered?

a)

Differential item functioning (DIF)

b)

Culture-fair testing

c)

Group norming

d)

Predictive bias

e)

Standard error of measurement

143.

According to the memory flowchart, external events are first recorded as which type of memory?

a)

Short-term memory

b)

Sensory memory

c)

Long-term memory

d)

Working memory

144.

In the diagram, paying attention to information leads it to be encoded into a system that holds a few items briefly. Which term best fits this stage?

a)

Long-term memory

b)

Iconic memory

c)

Short-term/working memory

d)

Echoic memory

145.

The flowchart shows two complementary processes: to get information into storage we must do one process, and to get it out we must do another. Which option correctly identifies both processes?

a)

Encoding and retrieval

b)

Retrieval and encoding

c)

Rehearsal and conditioning

d)

Priming and chunking

146.

In the flowchart, the relatively limitless, permanent store is identified as which memory system, and how is it categorized?

a)

Short-term memory; working and maintenance

b)

Sensory memory; iconic and echoic

c)

Long-term memory; explicit (declarative) and implicit (nondeclarative)

d)

Working memory; auditory and visual-spatial

147.

Which of the following demonstrates heuristic thinking?

a)

Calculating the area of a rectangle by multiplying the length times the width.

b)

Using three dramatic news reports on corporate fraud to estimate how often fraud occurs.

c)

Following the new recipe your friend gave you to bake your mom a cake.

d)

Trying every key on your mom’s key ring until you find the one that unlocks the seldom-used closet in the basement.

148.

Which of the following is an example of implicit memory?

a)

the details of an assignment that is due tomorrow

b)

the US capitals

c)

vividly recalling significant events, such as the death of a famous person

d)

knowing how to tie your shoe

149.

What would be true of a thermometer that always reads three degrees lower than the actual temperature?

a)

It is valid, but not reliable.

b)

It is reliable, but not valid.

c)

It is both reliable and valid.

d)

It is neither reliable nor valid.

150.

Dr. Trenton conducted a study to determine whether massed practice or distributed practice produced better academic outcomes. He recruited volunteers from a high school Spanish class and randomly assigned students to learn a list of 100 new vocabulary words for which they were later given a word recall test. Students prepared for the word recall test using either distributed practice by studying for 30 minutes a day the week before the test, or massed practice by intensively studying the night before the test. What was the dependent variable in this research project?

a)

Massed practice

b)

Distributed practice

c)

High school students

d)

Word recall