wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Gov Cumulative Review

Total questions: 151

Worksheet time: 3hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The foundation of the US legal structure is
a)
the Federalist Papers
b)
the Constitution
c)
the  Supreme Court
d)
the state constitutions
2.
The legislative branch is established in
a)
Article IV
b)
Article VII
c)
Article I
d)
Article III
3.
Article IV of the Constitution addresses
a)
relationships between the states
b)
the judiciary
c)
the formal amendment process
d)
ratification of the Constitution
4.
The most essential quality of American democracy is
a)
security
b)
collectivism
c)
equality
d)
liberty
5.
How could the Articles of Confederation be amended or changed?
a)
9 of 13 states approve
b)
all 13 states approve
c)
there was no mechanism for amendment
6.
Which of the following ideas is found in the Declaration of Independence?
a)
government grants your natural rights
b)
freedom requires suffrage
c)
all men are created equal
d)
you must give your rights to the monarch
7.
Who is known as the "Father of the Constitution?"
a)
Alexander Hamilton
b)
George Washington
c)
William Paterson
d)
James Madison
8.
The Supremacy Clause is found in
a)
Article IV
b)
Article V
c)
Article VI
9.
In the United States political system, the term Federalism refers to
a)
limits on the powers of the state governments
b)
limits on the powers of the national government
c)
the division of powers between the levels of government
d)
the legal authority of the courts to hear cases
10.

The idea that governments only have power with the consent of the governed is called

a)

Social Contract

b)

Republicanism

c)

Natural rights

d)

Popular sovereignty

11.

Which of the following concepts did the ratification of the Constitution in 1788 most clearly commit to?

a)

The idea of direct democracy

b)

The principle of limited government

c)

The abolition of slavery

d)

The need to protect the rights of the accused

12.

Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers?

a)

The Federalist party platform during the presidency of John Adams, the first Federalist president

b)

A popular anti-British booklet of the pre-Revolutionary era

c)

A collection of essays arguing the merits of the Constitution

d)

A series of congressional acts defining the relationship between the federal and state governments

13.

Which of the following rights does the 1st Amendment protect?

a)

Due process of the law in any criminal case

b)

Retention of personal property unless justly compensated by the government

c)

Not being subjected to excessive fines or unusual punishment

d)

Petitioning the government for a redress of grievances

14.

Which of the following is American federalism most clearly exemplified by?

a)

A system of checks and balances among the three branches of government

b)

A process by which international treaties are completed

c)

The special constitutional status of Washington DC

d)

The 10th Amendment to the Constitution

15.

Social contract is best described as

a)

When a society has a consensus about its basic beliefs

b)

When we elect representatives to govern on our behalf

c)

When the people vote directly on all matters

d)

When people agree to obey the government as long as it protects their rights

16.
Of the following, the most significant difference between the Constitution of 1787 and the Articles of Confederation was that the Constitution
a)
made states sovereign over the national government, while the Articles were based on national sovereignty
b)
was difficult to amend, while the Articles included an easier process requiring approval by a simple majority of states
c)
created a dominant national executive, while the Articles established a dominant national legislature
d)
provided for a strong national government with many powers, while the Articles created a weak central government with few independent powers
17.

Which of the following statements best summarizes Hamilton’s argument?

a)

Even though civil liberties are protected by a bill of rights, there are some reasonable exceptions.

b)

Listing rights will lead some to assume that government may regulate those rights.

c)

Freedom of the press is essential for a functioning democracy.

d)

A bill of rights is necessary to protect civil liberties such as freedom of the press.

18.

Which of the following constitutional provisions limits the power of the national government in Hamilton’s argument?

a)

Enumerated powers in Article I

b)

Faithful execution of the laws in Article II

c)

Judicial review in Article III

d)

Supremacy Clause in Article VI

19.

Based on the text, which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

a)

The United States Constitution explicitly prohibits the government from restricting the press

b)

The amendment process would create confusion about the meaning of the United States Constitution.

c)

The Bill of Rights could potentially be used to limit civil liberties

d)

The media ought to be held accountable for publishing untrue information about public figures.

20.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of Federalist and Anti-Federalist views on government?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of constitutional provisions?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

22.

The Full Faith and Credit Clause states that...

a)

all states must honor the laws in other states

b)

the national government has supremacy

c)

all rights not listed in the constitution are reserved by the people

23.

Categorical grants are...

a)

always directed by the judiciary

b)

a government directive, with our without promised funds for compliance

c)

those that have particular congressional requirements or "strings"

24.

Allows Congress to make any laws that they need to for carrying out their other powers

a)

Establishment Clause

b)

Privileges and Immunities Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Necessary and Proper Clause

25.

Accords citizens of each state most of the rights of citizens of other states

a)

Establishment Clause

b)

Privileges and Immunities Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Necessary and Proper Clause

26.
How many representatives does each state have in the House of Representatives?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
50
d)
Answer not here
27.
How much of the House and Senate are required to pass a constitutional amendment?
a)
1/2 of each
b)
a majority of each
c)
2/3 of each
d)
3/4 of each
28.
How many of the states are required to pass a constitutional amendment?
a)
1/2 of all states
b)
a majority of all states
c)
2/3 of all states
d)
3/4 of all states
29.
The Senate has the power to impeach the President.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
What was the biggest drawback of the Articles of Confederation?
a)
It was not bicameral
b)
It had a Supreme court
c)
It couldn't tax
d)
It was illegible
31.

What is the Seventeenth Amendment?

4 lines
32.
  1. Identify the two main differences between requirements to become a senator vs. a representative

4 lines
33.
  1. Explain the structure of the two institutions and how it affects who presides over the House and Senate and how formal or informal the debates are

4 lines
34.
  1. Identify the separate powers delegated to the House and the Senate

4 lines
35.

What is a coalition in Congress?

4 lines
36.
  1. List 3 of the 5 enumerated powers of Congress as a whole

4 lines
37.
  1. Identify the 3 main leadership positions in the House of Representatives in order of strongest to weakest

4 lines
38.
  1. Identify the 3 main leadership positions in the Senate in order of strongest to weakest

4 lines
39.
  1. List the 5 types of committees and what their purpose is

4 lines
40.
  1. What committees and rules are unique to the House?

4 lines
41.
  1. What rules and procedures are unique to the Senate?

4 lines
42.
  1. Explain the process in which a bill becomes a law

4 lines
43.

What are two things that can happen to a bill when going through the process of being signed?

4 lines
44.

What's the difference between earmarks and pork barrel spending?

4 lines
45.
  1. Describe the 3 types of voting models

4 lines
46.
  1. What’s the difference between redistricting and gerrymandering?

4 lines
47.
  1. List the facts, constitutional question, and ruling/impact of Baker v. Carr (1962)

4 lines
48.
  1. List the facts, constitutional question, and ruling/impact of Shaw v. Reno (1993)

4 lines
49.
  1. List 4 of the 7 formal powers the president has

4 lines
50.
  1. List all 4 informal powers the president has

4 lines
51.
  1. List 3 main points of Federalist 70

4 lines
52.
  1. What 3 things does Article III of the constitution establish?

4 lines
53.

Define both types of jurisdiction a court could have

4 lines
54.
  1. List 3 main points of Federalist 78

4 lines
55.
  1. Explain the type of jurisdiction each court has

4 lines
56.
  1. List the facts, constitutional question, and ruling/impact of Marbury v. Madison (1803)

4 lines
57.
  1. Explain how cases reach the supreme court

4 lines
58.
  1. Judicial Activism v. Judicial Restraint

4 lines
59.
  1. Identify the 4 main pillars of bureaucracy and what they do

4 lines
60.
  1. What are the 3 main tasks of the bureaucracy?

4 lines
61.
  1. Name one example of how each branch can check the bureaucracy 

4 lines
62.

What is the Civil Service Reform Act of 1978?

4 lines
63.

What is the Pendleton Civil Service Act of 1883?

4 lines
64.

In which of the following situations would the Supreme Court be most likely to utlize the doctrine of selective incorporation?

a)


Option A,When an individual claims that a right protected by the Bill of Rights is infringed upon by a state

b)

When there is a conflict among the branches of the national government

c)

When a federal policy shifting oversight authority from a national agency to a state agency is challenged

d)

When a former employee files a wrongful termination claim against a company headquartered in another state

65.

Which of the following constitutional amendments is most related to the issue shown on the map?

a)

Second Amendment

b)

Eighth Amendment

c)

Sixteenth Amendment

d)

Twenty-Sixth Amendment

66.

Which of the following is most likely responsible for the increase in the number of southern African American state legislators between 1960 and 1992 as shown in the graph?

a)

The Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954)

c)

The Voting Rights Act of 1965

d)

The Nineteenth Amendment

67.

Which of the following statemetns presents the most important limitation of the data in the graph?

a)

The time frame for the data is misleading.

b)

There is no information about the total number of state legislators.

c)

There are insufficient data points to detect a trend.

d)

The trend over time is potentially misleading and would be easier to read in a pie chart.

68.

The clause of the United States Constitution was used in the Supreme Court's ruling in Brown v. Board of Education of Topeka (1954) (among several other landmark civil rights cases) was

a)

Due process clause

b)

Necessary and proper clause

c)

Free exercise clause

d)

Equal protection clause

69.

Which of the following landmark Supreme Court decisions allows public school students to wear T-shirts protesting a school board decision that eliminates funding for high school arts programs?

a)

Engel v. Vitale (1962)

b)

Wisconsin v. Yoder (1972)

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines Independent Community School District (1969)

d)

New York Times Co. v. United States (1971)

70.

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of rights protected and not protected by the First Amendment?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

71.

A public school district implemented a policy that instructed students to recite a common, district approved meditation at the beginning of the school day. This policy was later found to be unconstitutional by the United States Supreme Court. Which of the following clauses did the policy most likely violate?

a)

Interstate commerce clause

b)

Free exercise clause

c)

Supremacy clause

d)

Establishment clause

72.

Which of the following best represents how the court will most likely respond to the case?

a)

The newspaper will be required to delay publication until after the lawyers review the materials.

b)

The newspaper will publish the story but face a libel lawsuit if the information contained is embarrassing to the government.

c)

The newspapers will be permitted to publish the story without a review by the government’s lawyers.

d)

The newspapers will not be permitted to publish the story if the government objects.

73.

During an investigation, the police officers find illegal drugs while searching a home for which they did not acquire a warrant. Which of the following would prevent the drugs from being used as evidence at trial?

a)

The writ of habeas corpus

b)

The exclusionary rule

c)

The Miranda warning

d)

The protection against ex post facto

74.

Which of the following is an accurate comparision of the establishment clause and the free exercise clause?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.

Which amendments are most relevant to this scenario?

a)

The Fourth and Fifth Amendments

b)

The Fifth and Sixth Amendments

c)

The Sixth and Eighth Amendments

d)

The Fourth and Eighth Amendments

76.

Which of the following scenarios best explains the inclusion of TItle IX as part of the Education Amendments of 1972?

a)

Members of Congress added the amendment to the bill in response to social movements seeking to address inequality in education for women.

b)

Paid lobbyists added the amendment on behalf of teachers unions in order to increase pay and tenure for public school teachers.

c)

President Lyndon Johnson used the power of the bully pulpit to pressure members of Congress to pass a bill that would legally desegregate schools.

d)

The Department of Justice added the amendment in order to provide legal guidance to states to enforce the Equal Rights Amendment.

77.

Which of the following scenarios best explains how the equal protection clause of the 14th Amendment has influenced political behavior?

a)

Grassroots libertarian advocacy organizations have advocated in favor of less economic regulation of the marketplace.

b)

The Supreme Court has ruled that Fifth Amendment prohibition on double jeopardy was made applicable to the states.

c)

Civil Rights leaders such as Martin Luther King, Jr., cited constitutional arguments as a basis for opposing segregation and inequality.

d)

President Franklin D. Roosevelt’s State of the Union address urged Congress to pass legislation that would ensure greater economic security for the American people.

78.

What are the five core values that most Americans across the ideological spectrum say they believe in?

a)

Free Enterprise, Equality of Opportunity, Limited Gov't, Individualism, Rule of Law

b)

Wealth, Power, Control, Authority, Influence

c)

Tradition, Heritage, Culture, Religion, Family

d)

Security, Safety, Protection, Defense, Stability

79.

Define political socialization.

a)

The process by which individuals learn and acquire political attitudes and beliefs

b)

The method of organizing political campaigns

c)

The strategy of implementing political policies

d)

The system of electing government officials

80.

What are five main elements in people’s lives that define their socialization process?

a)

Family, Education, Media, Peers, Religion

b)

Wealth, Power, Influence, Control, Authority

c)

Tradition, Heritage, Culture, Language, Art

d)

Security, Safety, Protection, Defense, Stability

81.

How do events impact Americans' political ideologies?

a)

They can reinforce or challenge existing beliefs

b)

They have no effect on political ideologies

c)

They only affect economic policies

d)

They solely influence foreign relations

82.

How does the margin of error affect poll results?

a)

It increases the accuracy of the results.

b)

It decreases the sample size needed.

c)

It indicates the potential range of error in the results.

d)

It eliminates bias in the poll.

83.

How do pollsters use "random sampling" to ensure a representative sample?

a)

By selecting participants based on their opinions.

b)

By choosing participants from a specific demographic.

c)

By randomly selecting participants from the entire population.

d)

By selecting participants who are easily accessible.

84.

Why is random sampling so important when polling?

a)

It ensures that the poll is conducted quickly.

b)

It guarantees that the results are 100% accurate.

c)

It helps in obtaining a sample that reflects the diversity of the population.

d)

It reduces the cost of conducting the poll.

85.

What is the purpose of a Public Opinion Poll?

a)

To predict future events.

b)

To gather opinions on a specific issue.

c)

To entertain the public.

d)

To advertise a product.

86.

What is the methodology used in a Tracking Poll?

a)

Conducting interviews at a single point in time.

b)

Repeatedly surveying the same group over time.

c)

Gathering data from focus groups.

d)

Using online surveys exclusively.

87.

What is the main purpose of an Entrance/Exit Poll?

a)

To predict the outcome of an election.

b)

To gather demographic information.

c)

To influence voters' decisions.

d)

To test new polling methods.

88.

What distinguishes a Push Poll from other types of polls?

a)

It uses neutral questions to gather data.

b)

It aims to influence respondents under the guise of conducting a poll.

c)

It is conducted online only.

d)

It focuses on gathering data from a large sample size.

89.

What is the primary use of Focus Groups in polling?

a)

To gather quantitative data.

b)

To explore in-depth opinions and attitudes.

c)

To conduct large-scale surveys.

d)

To predict election outcomes.

90.

Discuss the impact of question wording in surveys. How might an "agree-disagree" format affect results?

a)

It clarifies the respondent's opinion.

b)

It may lead to biased responses.

c)

It simplifies the survey process.

d)

It ensures accurate data collection.

91.

What do candidates use poll results for?

a)

To determine election dates.

b)

To adjust their campaign strategies.

c)

To select their running mates.

d)

To decide on their political party.

92.

What services and policies are important to or typically supported by both parties and ideologies?

a)

Only healthcare policies.

b)

Only education policies.

c)

A combination of various services and policies.

d)

Only economic policies.

93.

What are some economic policies that would most likely be supported by a liberal individual?

a)

Tax cuts for the wealthy

b)

Increased social welfare programs

c)

Deregulation of industries

d)

Reduction in government spending

94.

What are some economic policies that would most likely be supported by a conservative individual?

a)

Increased government intervention

b)

Higher taxes on corporations

c)

Deregulation and tax cuts

d)

Expansion of social programs

95.

What is a key focus of Supply-Side Economics?

a)

Increasing government spending

b)

Reducing taxes and regulation

c)

Expanding social welfare

d)

Nationalizing industries

96.

What is a key focus of Keynesian Economics?

a)

Reducing government intervention

b)

Cutting taxes for the wealthy

c)

Increasing government spending to boost demand

d)

Privatizing public services

97.

How does a divided government influence the policymaking process in Congress?

a)

It speeds up the legislative process

b)

It often leads to gridlock and compromise

c)

It eliminates the need for debate

d)

It ensures one party's dominance

98.

What policies involve more state spending? (Think Federalism)

a)

National defense

b)

Education and infrastructure

c)

Social Security

d)

Medicare

99.

What policies involve more federal spending? (Again, think Federalism)

a)

Local law enforcement

b)

National defense and Social Security

c)

Public transportation

d)

State parks

100.

The process by which people form their political attitudes

a)

Media

b)

Political Socialization

c)

Public Agenda

d)

Intensity

101.

What are demographics?

a)

Demographics are the “measure of the people”

b)

Demographics are the social indicators or socio-economic status (SES) of individuals in the population

c)

Demographics indicate race, class, family, religion, residence, age, gender etc

d)

All the above

102.

What is the role of media in political socialization?

a)

To organize political campaigns

b)

To influence political opinions and attitudes

c)

To conduct elections

d)

To provide entertainment

103.

Which economic policy is most likely to be supported by a libertarian individual?

a)

Increased government regulation

b)

Free market with minimal government intervention

c)

Expansion of social welfare programs

d)

Nationalization of key industries

104.

How does political socialization occur through family influence?

a)

Through financial support for political campaigns

b)

By voting in the same elections

c)

Through discussions and shared values

d)

By attending political rallies together

105.

Where are moderates on the political spectrum?

a)

on the far right

b)

somewhat right

c)

in the center

d)

somewhat left

106.

Alex is concerned about certain harmful chemicals in the water supply. There is a big power plant a few miles away and he worries about what kinds of chemicals it might be putting into the air and water. He sits down at his computer to email his representatives in Congress about his concerns, and thinks a lot more should be done to make sure more restrictions are put on those kinds of plants.

a)

Conservative

b)

Liberal

c)

Libertarian

107.
When it comes to welfare, conservatives ____, and liberals ____.
a)
encourage self-reliance (being able to support yourself); favor government assistance 
b)
favor government assistance programs; support self-reliance (being able to support yourself)
c)
are completely against welfare; fully support government assistance for all
d)
favor assistance for the elderly; favor assistance for all
108.
When it comes to healthcare, liberals are ___, conservatives ___.
a)
Pro government run universal healthcare; favor private health insurance 
b)
favor private health insurance; pro-government run universal healthcare
c)
against government healthcare; for government healthcare
d)
pro- Medicaid; pro-Medicare
109.

A principle of constitutional government in which the government's powers are defined and limited by a constitution.

a)

Limited Government

b)

Party Platform

c)

Polarization

d)

Means Test

110.

A political philosophy that advocates free will and maximizes individual rights while minimizing the role of government; the role of government is limited simply protecting the rights of people.

a)

Populism

b)

Libertarian

c)

Conservative

d)

Liberal

111.

The belief the government must manage the economy by spending more money when in a recession and cutting spending when there is inflation.

a)

Keynesian Economics

b)

Supply-Side Economics

c)

Monetary Policy

d)

Fiscal Policy

112.

Economic theory that lower taxes and fewer regulations will stimulate the economy as businesses and individuals invest their money, thereby creating higher tax revenue.

a)

Keynesian Economics

b)

Supply-Side Economics

c)

Monetary Policy

d)

Fiscal Policy

113.

Presidential candidates for each party are officially nominated in a

a)

Caucus

b)

Primary

c)

National Party Convention

d)

Electoral College

114.

Which of the following can receive unlimited donations?

a)

Candidate Campaigns

b)

Political Parties

c)

Political Action Committees (PACs)

d)

Super PACs

115.

Which feature of the electoral college discourages the emergence of third parties?

a)

The allocation of delegates to states

b)

The winner-takes-all system in most states

c)

The popular vote

d)

Prohibiting more than 2 parties on the ballot

116.

Linkage institutions link

a)

Voters to one another

b)

Citizens to the government

c)

Interest groups to the government

d)

Corporations to the government

117.

Which of the following is NOT a component of an Iron Triangle?

a)

Federal Agencies

b)

Congressional Committees

c)

Interest groups

d)

Voters

118.

Which of the following best describes the free rider problem?

a)

Oil companies continue to pollute because Congress and the EPA have failed to prevent them

b)

A retiree decides not to join AARP because they can enjoy the benefits of the AARP's lobbying without paying dues

c)

Many corporations do not pay any taxes

d)

Many eligible voters do not vote

119.

Which of the following has the highest level of voter participation?

a)

Caucuses

b)

Primaries

c)

Midterm Elections

d)

Presidential General Elections

120.
The purpose of the Federal Election Campaign Act was to
a)
persuade young voters to participate in elections
b)
reach a new level of voter turnout
c)
eliminate special interest influence
d)
regulate campaign funding
121.
The MAJOR role of political parties in the United States is to
a)
ensure that free and fair elections are held
b)
meet constitutional requirements for choosing the President
c)
nominate candidates for public office and conduct campaigns
d)
protect the American public for corrupt public officials
122.
Which federal law passed in 1993 was intended to make voter registration easier?
a)
24th Amendment 
b)
Civil Rights Act
c)
Motor Voter Law
d)
Voting Rights Act
123.

What are the 4 Linkage Institutions?

a)

Media, party platform, interest groups and political parties

b)

Interest groups, third parties, public policies & media

c)

Media, elections, interest groups & political parties

d)

Interest groups, public policies, propaganda & elections

124.

What is the difference between political parties & interest groups?

a)

Political parties represent broad arrays of issues and seek to win elections, whereas interest groups do not run for office and are more likely to focus on narrow sets of issues

b)

Political parties are prohibited from sponsoring campaign advertisements; interest groups are not

c)

Political parties are more likely to focus on national politics; interest groups focus on local politics

125.

How many Electoral College Votes are needed to win the presidential election?

a)

435

b)

270

c)

218

d)

100

126.

All of the following are true statements about the Electoral College EXCEPT...

a)

# of Electoral votes is determined by # of senators = # of representatives

b)

It is a winner take all system.

c)

You need 270 of 538 total votes to win.

d)

It is a direct popular election.

127.
You can win the popular vote for President but still lose the election.
a)
True
b)
False
128.
The organization that regulates campaign finance.
a)
PAC
b)
FBI
c)
FEC
d)
ATF
129.

What is the amount of money you can give to a presidential candidate during an election cycle in 2022?

a)

unlimited

b)

5,000

c)

$2100

d)

$2,900

130.

Groups of voters change their usual patterns of party loyalty.

a)

Critical Elections

b)

Maintaining Elections

c)

Deviating Elections

d)

Eyeopening Elections

131.
this amendment granted women suffrage
a)
15
b)
19
c)
24
d)
26
132.
this amendment gave anyone over 18 years of age the right to vote
a)
15
b)
19
c)
24
d)
26
133.
this amendment outlawed poll taxes
a)
15
b)
19
c)
24
d)
26
134.
this amendment stated you cannot deny the right to vote based on race, color, or previous servitude 
a)
15
b)
19
c)
24
d)
26
135.
Which of the following is the MOST ACCURATE statement about voters aged 18-20?
a)
The number of young voters has gone steadily down in every presidential election since 1972
b)
Members of this age group consistently vote in higher numbers than Americans 65 and older.
c)
Turnout for this age group has consistently been the highest of all age groups.
d)
Members of this age group have shown themselves to be less likely to vote than any other age group
136.

In what way do political action committees influence Congress?

a)

Through the creation of a federal budget

b)

Through financial contributions

c)

Through guaranteeing media coverage

d)

Through the formation of political agendas

137.
Which of the following occurs after a critical election?
a)
Redistricting
b)
Party realignment
c)
Party dealignment
d)
Gerrymandering
138.
Which of the following events signaled the beginning of the Republican Party's rise to power?
a)
Mexican-American War
b)
Civil War
c)
Reconstruction
d)
Prohibition
139.
All of the following are true about a superPAC except
a)
They can raise unlimited money
b)
They can spend unlimited money
c)
They can donate directly to a candidate
d)
They can create ads for/against a candidate
140.

This Supreme Court case said you can contribute as much of your own money to your own campaign as you want.

a)
Citizens United
b)
Buckley v. Valeo
c)
McConnell v. FEC
141.

Soft money is money that was given to political parties rather than directly to a candidate.

a)
True
b)
False
142.

Which law closed loopholes in soft money and independent expenditures?

a)

Federal Elections Campaign Act

b)

Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (McCain- Feingold)

c)

Motor Voter Law

d)

Citizens United

143.

A closed primary means you must be what?

a)

A registered citizen

b)

A registered vote

c)

A registered member of a political party

d)

A resident of the state.

144.
The political arm of an interest group that is legally entitled to raise money in order to contribute funds to candidates or political parties.
a)
527 Groups
b)
Independent expenditures
c)
PACs
d)
SuperPACs
145.
Periods where a sharp and lasting shift occurs in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties.
a)
Dealignment
b)
Party polarization
c)
Coattail effect
d)
Realigning ("critical") election
146.
A delegate to the Democratic national convention who is there by virtue of being a current or former elected official.
a)
Incumbent
b)
Superdelegate
c)
Elitist
d)
Pluralist
147.
Which of these does NOT benefit the continuation of the two-party system?
a)
Single-member districts
b)
Winner-take-all elections
c)
Proportional representation
d)
Democrat and Republican dominance
148.
Donations given to a political party for party-building purposes...(eventually banned).
a)
Hard money
b)
Soft money
c)
Independent expenditures
d)
Bundling
149.
Filed by an interest group or interested party to influence a Supreme Court decision.
a)
Writ of habeas corpus
b)
Ex post facto law
c)
Amicus curiae brief
d)
Bill of attainder
150.
Scheduling presidential primary elections early (e.g., February or March) in an election year.
a)
Big state strategy
b)
Small state strategy
c)
Early state strategy
d)
Front loading
151.
Term used by Madison in Federalist #10 to denote what we now call interest groups.
a)
Factions
b)
PACs
c)
SuperPACs
d)
Caucuses