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AP PSYCHOLOGY MIDTERM 2020

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
By seeking to measure "atoms of the mind" , who established the first psychology laboratory? 
a)
Sigmund Freud
b)
John B.  Watson
c)
Wilhelm Wundt
d)
G. Stanley Hall
2.
Which philosopher proposed that nerve pathways allowed for reflexes?
a)
Socrates 
b)
Aristotle 
c)
Rene Desacrates
d)
John Locke
3.
Who coined the term "tabula rasa" (blank slate) to help explain the impact experience has on shaping an individual? 
a)
John Locke 
b)
Francis Bacon 
c)
John B. Watson
d)
Sigmund Fued
4.
Which of the following best describes research typical of Wilhelm Wundt's first psychology laboratory? 
a)
Examining the unconscious  to determine behavior motivation
b)
Using a brain-scanning device to determine the impact events have on brain function
c)
Measuring the reaction time between hearing a sound and pressing a button
d)
Studying helping behavior, based on the premise that people are good
5.
With which of the following statements would John B. Watson most likely agree? 
a)
Psychology should study the growth potential in all people 
b)
Psychology should study the unconscious 
c)
Psychology should focus on observable behavior
d)
Psychology should study mental thought processes
6.
After the student council election, a friend tells you he has known for weeks who would be elected president. 
a)
Skepticism
b)
Critical Thinking
c)
Hindsight bias
d)
Overconfidence
7.
While taking a standardized test with randomly scrambled answers you notice that your last four answers have been c. Which of the following is true concerning the probability of the next answer being "c"
a)
It is high. Once a streak begins, it is likely to last for a while
b)
It is lower. Since answers are distributed randomly "c" answers become less common
c)
It is unaffected by previous answers. . It is as likely to be c as any other answer
d)
You should check your previous answers. Four "c's in a row is impossible
8.
A testable prediction that drives research is known as
a)
theory
b)
hypothesis
c)
operational definition
d)
guess
9.
An individual with an exceptional memory is identified. She is capable of recalling major events, the weather, and what she did on any given date. What research method is being used if a psychologist conducts an in-depth investigation of this individual including questionnaires, brain scans,and memory tests.
a)
Naturalistic Observation
b)
Survey
c)
Interview
d)
Case Study
10.
Which of the following is most important when conducting survey research?
a)
Choosing a representative sample
b)
choosing a large sample
c)
choosing a biased sample
d)
choosing a sample that includes every member of the population
11.
Which of the following is an example of a negative correlation?
a)
People who spend more time exercising tend to weigh less
b)
Teenage female tend to have fewer speeding tickets thatn teenage males
c)
Students with low IQ scores tend to have lower grades
12.
Which of the following is used only in correlation studies?
a)
Double Blind
b)
Placebo
c)
Scatterplot
13.
Researchers have discovered that people with lower income levels report having fewer hours of sleep. Therefore, 
a)
income and sleep levels are positively correlated
b)
income and sleep levels are negatively correlated
c)
income and sleep levels are inversly related 
14.
Which of the following correlation coefficients represents the strongest relationship between two variables?
a)
=.30
b)
-.85
15.
The purpose of random assignment is to
a)
allow participation in both experimental and control groups to be exposed to the independent variable
b)
ensure that every member of the population had an equal chance of being selected to participate in the research
c)
eliminate the placebo
d)
reduce potential  confounding variables
16.
Why is an operational definition necessary when reporting research findings? 
a)
An operational definition allows others to replicate the procedure.
b)
An operational definition provides more context andincludes many examples of the concept described.
c)
An operational definition is easier to translate into multiple languages than a dictionary definition.
d)
An operational definition is not necessary since a dictionary definition will work as well for replication
17.
A researcher looking for gender differences in 3-year olds observes a preschool class and records how many minutes children of each gender play with dolls. She then compares the two sets of numbers. What type of descriptive research is she conducting? 
a)
Case study
b)
National study
c)
Random sample method
d)
Naturalistic observation 
18.
A testable prediction that drives research is known as a(n) 
a)
theory
b)
hypothesis
c)
operational definition
d)
 random sample.
19.
Which of the following questions is best investigated by means of a survey? 
a)
Is IQ related to grades?
b)
Are violent criminals genetically different from nonviolent criminals?
c)
What is the best study technique for AP® tests?
d)
Are students more likely to be politically liberal or conservative?
20.
Which of the following is a measure of variation?
a)
range
b)
mean
c)
mode
d)
frequency 
21.
Which statistical measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme scores
a)
mean
b)
median 
c)
mode
d)
skew 
22.
A researcher calculates statistical significance for her study and finds a 5 percent chance that results are due to chance. which of the following is an accurate interception to this finding?
a)
this is well beyond the range of statistical significance 
b)
this is the minimum result typically considered statistically significance 
c)
this is not statistically significance 
d)
there is no way to determine statistical significance 
23.
In an experiment, the group that receives the independent variable is known as the...
a)
control group
b)
experimental group
c)
the slow group
d)
the placebo
24.

Liz is a high school tennis player. She started to lose weight rapidly during the season. She couldn’t control her emotions and acted out on them, never holding back. It appears that Liz could have a classic case of anorexia. Which part of the brain are new studies focusing on in understanding the role of the brain in this eating disorder?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Thalamus

d)

Brain Stem

e)

Nucleus accumbens

25.

Mrs. Johnson took her husband to see a doctor after being in the car with him for one day. He repeatedly ran red lights and drove right past the building where he was supposed to drop her off, even though he had been there several times. After many tests, the doctor told Mrs. Johnson that her husband had a brain tumor and it had already started to spread. Where did the tumor likely begin?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Thalamus

d)

Brain stem

e)

Nucleus accumbens

26.

Sasha had tried every diet in the book. Cutting portions had not worked because she finds herself constantly hungry. Her weight gain has been depressing her, and her mom has gotten very worried. She also consumes large quantities of water. What part of the brain might be damaged and responsible for Sasha’s behavior?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Lateral hypothalamus

d)

Pons

e)

Ventromedial hypothalamus

27.

Susie works in an ice cream shop and suffered brain damage from an accident. Now when something goes wrong in the store, she has no idea how to fix it. Her favorite type of ice cream has always been chocolate chip, yet now she can never decide what flavor she wants to eat on her break. Susie’s coworkers have also noticed that she just doesn’t seem like her herself. Where did Susie suffer the brain damage?

a)

Occipital lobes

b)

Temporal lobes

c)

Reticular formation

d)

Parietal lobes

e)

Frontal lobes

28.

As a result of a surgical procedure, Hakim’s career as a violinist is over. He finds that he can no longer compose music. When he tries to play, he gets confused because he can’t retain what he hears. What part of the brain is likely implicated?

a)

Occipital lobes

b)

Temporal lobes

c)

Reticular lobes

d)

Parietal lobes

e)

Frontal lobes

29.

Lately, Maria has not been sleeping well. It seems like she hears everything at night. Even the faintest noises, such as the refrigerator humming and the toilet down the hall flushing, wake her up. If she does fall asleep, she has a very hard time getting up. Maria is desperate for some rest. What part of her brain is not functioning properly?

a)

Occipital lobes

b)

Temporal lobes

c)

Reticular activating system

d)

Parietal lobes

e)

Frontal lobes

30.

Valeria is a dancer. She has been dancing for years, but one day at a late-night rehearsal, her tired partner accidentally dropped her on her head. Now, Valeria has problems dancing. She knows the correct steps she must make, but she feels as if her legs and arms are moving as if directed by someone else. What area of her brain was damaged by her fall?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Lateral hypothalamus

d)

Pons

e)

Cerebellum

31.

Jon has a very strong fear of spiders. One day while he was lying in bed, a spider fell on his head. Jon quickly jumped out of bed as a result of his fear. However, the spider still managed to bite him. Jon darted toward the door, and within seconds he collapsed to the ground. When his mother rushed into the room to ask what was wrong, he was unable to understand her question. He saw her moth move, but was unable to make sense of the words. What area of the brain did the poison affect?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Lateral hypothalamus

d)

Pons

e)

Cerebellum

32.

Dr. Ramachandran needs to examine a patient’s brain to find out if there is a tumor and, if so, where it is. Which method should he use?

a)

PET Scan

b)

EEG

c)

CT Scan

d)

Deep Brain Stimulation

e)

fMRI

33.

Why do researchers study the brains on nonhuman animals?

a)

It is not ethical to study human brains.

b)

Human brains are too complex to study meaningfully.

c)

The same principles govern neutral functioning in all species.

d)

It is too expensive to study human brains.

e)

The technology is still being developed for the study of human brains.

34.

What is the brief electrical charge that travels down an axon called?

a)

Action potential

b)

Resting potential

c)

All-or-none Impulse

d)

Refractory period

e)

Myelination response

35.

An individual is having trouble with cognitive tasks related to learning and memory. Which of the following neurotransmitters is most likely to be involved with the problem?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

The endorphins

e)

GABA

36.

Which is the most influential of the endocrine glands?

a)

Pituitary gland

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Dendrites

d)

Threshold glands

e)

Parasympathetic

37.

What is the purpose of the myelin sheath?

a)

Make the transfer of information across a synapse more efficient

b)

Increase the amount of neurotransmitter available in the neuron

c)

Reduce the antagonistic effect of certain drugs

d)

Establish a resting potential in the axon

e)

Speed the transmission of information within a neuron

38.

The peripheral nervous system

a)

connects the brain to the spinal cord.

b)

calms the body after an emergency.

c)

is limited to the control of voluntary movement.

d)

controls only the arms and the legs.

e)

is the part of the nervous system that does not include the brain and the spinal cord.

39.

To walk across a street, a person would rely most directly on which division of the nervous system?

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Sympathetic nervous system

c)

Peripheral nervous system

d)

Autonomic nervous system

e)

Parasympathetic nervous system

40.

Opiate drugs such as morphine are classified as what?

a)

Antagonists, because they block neurotransmitter receptors for pain

b)

Agonists, because the pay mimic other neurotransmitters’ pain-diminishing effects

c)

Excitatory neurotransmitters, because they activate pain-control mechanisms

d)

Sympathetic nervous system agents, because they prepare the body for a challenge

e)

Parasympathetic nervous system agents, because they calm the body

41.

Which region of the brain controls breathing and heartbeat?

a)

Pons

b)

Corpus callosum

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Hippocampus

e)

Medulla

42.

Which of the following does a PET scan best allow researchers to examine?

a)

The presence of tumors in the brain

b)

Electrical activity on the surface of the brain

c)

The size of the internal structures of the brain

d)

The location of strokes

e)

The functions of various brain regions

43.

A researcher interested in determining the size of a particular area of the brain would be most likely to use what kind of a test?

a)

Lesion

b)

EEG

c)

MRI

d)

fMRI

e)

PET scan

44.

Damage to the hippocampus would result in what?

a)

Difficulties with balance and coordination

b)

Memory problems

c)

The false sensation of burning in parts of the body

d)

Emotional outbursts

e)

Death

45.

Surgical stimulation of the somatosensory cortex might result in the false sensation of what?

a)

Music

b)

Flashes of colored light

c)

Someone whispering your name

d)

Someone tickling you

e)

A bad odor

46.

During which task might the right hemisphere of the brain be most active?

a)

Solving a mathematical equation

b)

Reading

c)

Making a brief oral presentation to a class

d)

Imaging what a dress would look like on a friend

e)

Solving a logic problem

47.

Brain plasticity refers to which of the following?

a)

Healthy human brain tissue

b)

The ability of the brain to transfer information from one hemisphere to the other

c)

How a brain gets larger as a child grows

d)

A wide variety of functions performed by the human brain

e)

The ability of brain tissue to take on new functions

48.

The process by which we select, organize, and interpret sensory information in order to recognize meaningful objects and events is called

a)

parallel processing.

b)

perception.

c)

accommodation.

d)

sensation.

49.
The detection and encoding of stimulus energies by the nervous system is called
a)
signal detection.
b)
synaesthesia
c)
sensation
d)
accommodation.
50.
Trying to see a hidden representational image in a piece of abstract art by looking carefully at each element in the picture and trying to form an image employs which kind of perceptual process?
a)
bottom-up processing
b)
selective attention
c)
retinal disparity
d)
perceptual adaptation
51.
Because she was listening to the news on the radio, Mrs. Schultz didn't perceive a word her husband was saying. Her experience best illustrates
a)
gate-control theory.
b)
choice blindness.
c)
selective attention.
d)
opponent-process theory.
52.
Although Manuel was sitting right next to his parents, he smelled a skunk minutes before they did. Apparently, Manuel has a lower ________ for skunk odor than his parents have.
a)
accommodation level
b)
absolute threshold
c)
tolerance level
d)
adaptation level
53.
Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level of absolute thresholds?
a)
signal detection theory
b)
frequency theory
c)
opponent-process theory
d)
place theory
54.
If the just-noticeable difference for a 10-ounce weight is 1 ounce, the just noticeable difference for an 80-ounce weight would be ________ ounce(s).
a)
8
b)
4
c)
2
d)
1
55.
Weber's law is relevant to an understanding of
a)
absolute thresholds.
b)
difference thresholds.
c)
sensory interaction.
d)
parallel processing.
56.
The local fire department sounds the 12 o'clock whistle. The process by which your ears convert the sound waves from the siren into neural impulses is an example of
a)
sensory adaptation.
b)
sensory interaction.
c)
transduction.
d)
accommodation.
57.
Feature detectors
a)
combine to form the optic nerve, which sends visual information to the brain.
b)
are retinal cells that allow you to see in dim light and are located in the periphery of the eye.
c)
are nerve cells in the brain's visual cortex that fire in response to specific edges, lines, and angles.
d)
cause the lens to change its curvature in response to incoming light waves.
58.
The cochlea is a
a)
fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of body movement.
b)
specific area of the auditory cortex.
c)
fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of upright body position.
d)
fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses.
59.
The semicircular canals are most directly relevant to
a)
accommodation.
b)
the vestibular sense.
c)
kinesthesis.
d)
hearing.
60.
According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by causing
a)
activation of nerve fibers in your spinal cord.
b)
the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.
c)
deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.
d)
release of pain-killing endorphins in your muscles.
61.
Taste and smell are both what kind of senses?
a)
vestibular
b)
kinesthetic
c)
energy
d)
chemical
62.
The sequentially flashing Christmas tree lights appeared to generate pulsating waves of motion. This best illustrates
a)
the phi phenomenon.
b)
retinal disparity.
c)
frequency theory.
d)
relative motion.
63.
Renny knew the red tulip was closer to her than the yellow tulip because the red one cast a larger retinal image than the yellow one. This illustrates the importance of the distance cue known as
a)
relative size.
b)
interposition.
c)
proximity.
d)
relative height.
64.
Given normal sensory abilities, a person standing atop a mountain on a dark, clear night can see a candle flame atop a mountain 30 miles away. This is a description of vision's:
a)
Difference threshold
b)
Just noticeable difference 
c)
Absolute threshold
d)
Signal threshold
65.
Which of the following is an example of sensory adaptation?
a)
Finding the cold water of a swimming pool warmer after you’ve spent a few minutes in it
b)
Developing an increased sensitivity to salt the more you use it in foods
c)
Becoming very irritated at the continuous sound of a dripping faucet
d)
All of the above are examples
66.
The Young-Helmholtz Theory proposes that:
a)
There are three different types of color-sensitive cones
b)
Retinal cells are excited by one color and inhibited by its complementary color
c)
There are four different types of cones
d)
Rod, not cone, vision accounts for our ability to detect fine visual detail 
67.
Most color-deficient people will probably:
a)
Lack functioning red-or-green-sensitive cones
b)
See the world in only black and white
c)
Also suffer from poor vision
d)
Have above-average vision to compensate for the deficit
68.
Kinesthesis involves:
a)
The bones of the middle ear
b)
Information from muscles, tendons and joints
c)
Membranes within the cochlea
d)
The body’s sense of balance
69.
The historical movement associated with the statement “the whole may exceed the sum of its parts” is:
a)
Parapsychology
b)
Psychophysics
c)
Functional psychology
d)
Gestalt psychology
70.
________________ processing refers to how the physical characteristics of stimuli influence their interpretation.
a)
Top-down
b)
Bottom-up
c)
Parapsychological
d)
Human factors
71.
Although carpenter Smith perceived a briefly viewed object as a screwdriver, police officer Wesson perceived the same object as a knife. This illustrates that perception is guided by:
a)
Linear perspective 
b)
Shape constancy
c)
Retinal disparity
d)
Perceptual sets
72.
Tamika hates the bitter taste of her cough syrup. Which of the following would she find most helpful in minimizing the syrup’s bad taste?
a)
Tasting something very sweet before taking the cough syrup
b)
Keeping the syrup in her mouth for several seconds before swallowing it
c)
Holding her nose while taking the cough syrup
d)
Gulping the cough syrup so that It misses her tongue
73.

The body's circadian daily rhythm is

a)

24 Hours

b)

25 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

360 hours

74.
Sleep spindles first occur in 
a)
Delta Sleep
b)
stage 2
c)
Slow wave sleep
d)
REM sleep
75.
Dream sleep is
a)
REM
b)
Stage 4
c)
Stage 2
d)
Delta sleep
76.
When you are dreaming, your body is
a)
constantly thrashing back and forth
b)
paralyzed
c)
NOT consolidating memories
d)
NOT aware of the world around you
77.
When you are dreaming, your body is
a)
constantly thrashing back and forth
b)
paralyzed
c)
NOT consolidating memories
d)
NOT aware of the world around you
78.
The two theories on how hypnotism works are
a)
Divided consciousness and social influence
b)
Fakery and truly changing personality
c)
the person access unconsciousness and true healing theory
d)
Dream sleep v delta sleep
79.
The only proven clinical use for hypnotism is
a)
retrieving repressed memories
b)
age regression
c)
for healing PTSD
d)
pain relief
80.
What happens just before you enter REM sleep? You:
a)
cycle back up through NREM 2 & NREM 1
b)
stay in NREM 3 for another 30 minutes
c)
go directly from NREM 3 to REM
d)
wake up, but you won't remember it the next day
81.
Which of the following represents a circadian rhythm? 
a)
A burst of growth occurs during puberty.
b)
A full Moon occurs about once a month.
c)
Body temperature rises each day as morning approaches.
d)
When it is summer in the northern hemisphere, it is winter in the southern hemisphere.
82.
In which stage of sleep are you likely to experience hypnagogic sensations of falling?
a)
Alpha sleep
b)
NREM-1
c)
NREM-2
d)
NREM-3
83.
What is the role of the suprachiasmatic nucleus in sleep? 
a)
It causes REM sleep approximately every 90 minutes during sleep.
b)
It causes the pituitary gland to increase the release of human growth hormone.
c)
It causes the pituitary gland to decrease the relase of human growth hormone.
d)
It causes the pineal gland to decrease the production of melatonin. 
84.

(Depressant) Initial high followed by relaxation and disinhibition

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

85.

(Negative Effects) Depression, memory loss, organ damage, impaired reactions

a)

alcohol

b)

heroin

c)

caffeine

d)

methamphetamine

86.

(Depressant) Rush of euphoria, relief from pain

a)

herion

b)

caffeine

c)

methaphetamine

d)

cocaine

87.

(Negative Effects) Depressed physiology, agonizing withdrawal

a)

herion

b)

caffeine

c)

methaphetamine

d)

cocaine

88.

(Stimulant) Increased alertness and wakefulness

a)

caffeine

b)

methamphetamine

c)

cocaine

d)

nicotine

89.

(Negative Effects) Anxiety, restlessness and insomnia in high doses; uncomfortable withdrawal

a)

caffeine

b)

methamphetamine

c)

cocaine

d)

nicotine

90.

(Stimulant) Euphoria, alertness, energy

a)

methamphetamine

b)

cocaine

c)

nicotine

d)

ecstasy

91.

(Negative Effects) Irritability, insomnia, hypertension, seizures

a)

methamphetamine

b)

cocaine

c)

nicotine

d)

ecstasy

92.

(Stimulant) Rush of euphoria, confidence, energy

a)

cocaine

b)

nicotine

c)

ecstasy

d)

marijuana

93.

(Negative Effects) Cardiovascular stress, suspiciousness, depressive crash

a)

cocaine

b)

nicotine

c)

ecstasy

d)

marijuana

94.

(Stimulant) Arousal and relaxation, sense of well-being

a)

nicotine

b)

ecstasy

c)

marijuana

d)

alcohol

95.

(Negative Effects) Heart Disease, cancer

a)

nicotine

b)

ecstasy

c)

marijuana

d)

alcohol

96.

(Stimulant,Hallucinogen) Emotional elevation, disinhibition

a)

ecstasy

b)

marijuana

c)

alcohol

d)

herion

97.

(Negative Effects) Dehydration, overheating, depressed mood, impaired cognitive and immune functioning

a)

ecstasy

b)

marijuana

c)

alcohol

d)

herion

98.

(Hallucinogen) Enhanced sensation, relief of pain, distortion of time, relaxation

a)

marijuana

b)

alcohol

c)

heroin

d)

caffeine

99.

(Negative Effects) Impaired learning and memory, increased risk of psychological disorders, lung damage from smoke

a)

marijuana

b)

alcohol

c)

heroin

d)

caffeine

100.
Which of the following is best described as a a permanent change in behavior due to experience?
a)
naturally triggers a response
b)
stimulus
c)
learning
d)
response
101.
Classical conditioning is when a person or organism links two or more stimuli and
a)
forgets about them
b)
lays them out in sequence
c)
shuts down
d)
anticipates an event
102.
In classical conditioning the unconditioned stimuli
a)
naturaaly triggers a response
b)
is initially irrelevant
c)
is pavlovian
d)
objectively studies psychology
103.
Students are accustomed to a bell ringing to indicate the end of a class period. The principal decides to substitute popular music for the bell to indicate the end of each class period. students quickly respond to the music the same way they did to the bell. What principal does this illustrate?
a)
acquisition
b)
stimulus
c)
learning
d)
response
104.
The work of Pavlov and John Watson fits into which of psychologies perspectives?
a)
Humanism
b)
Gestalt
c)
Trait theory
d)
Behaviorism
105.
What do we call the type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer?
a)
Operant conditioning
b)
Classical conditioning
c)
Shaping
d)
Punishment
106.
Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely is known as what?
a)
law of effect
b)
operant conditiong
c)
shaping
d)
classical conditioning
107.
All of the following are examples of primary reinforcers except
a)
rats food in a skinner box
b)
cold drink on a hot day
c)
high score on an exam
d)
hug from a loved one
108.
In order to stop Faith from bringing water bottles into her room her mom takes away her cell phone, this is an example of
a)
negative punishment
b)
positive punishment
c)
negative reinforcement
d)
positive reinforcement
109.
After a week of not having bottles in her room Faith's mom decides to reward her by taking away her nightly chores of washing the dishes. This is an example of
a)
negative punishment
b)
positive punishment
c)
negative reinforcement
d)
positive reinforcement
110.

What do we call it when the CR decreases and as the CS is repeatedly presented alone

a)

Generalization

b)

Discrimination

c)

Spontaneous recovery

d)

Extinction

111.

The basic idea behind classical conditioning is that the organism

a)

associates events

b)

associates behavior and resulting events

c)

voluntarily operates on the environment

d)

associates responses with a consequence

112.

What do we call the reappearance, after a rest period, of an extinguished response

a)

Acquisition

b)

Spontaneous recovery

c)

Discrimination

d)

Operant Conditioning

113.

What do we call behavior that occurs as an automatic response to a stimulus?

a)

Respondent behavior

b)

Operant behavior

c)

Extinguished behavior

d)

Biofeedback conditioning

114.

Superstitious behavior can be produced by

a)

careful manipulation of a classical conditioning experiment

b)

the accidental timing of rewards

c)

possession of a large number of traditionally lucky items

d)

the change in a reinforcement schedule from ration to interval

115.

What do we call a desire to perform a behavior in order to receive promised rewards or to avoid threatened punishment?

a)

Latent Learning

b)

Extrinsic motivation

c)

Intrinsic motivation

d)

Insight Learning

116.

Which ability is a good predictor of good adjustment, better grades, and social success?

a)

Self-control

b)

Locus of control

c)

Problem-focused coping

d)

Learned helplessness

117.

Elephants have the capacity to remember large scale spaces over long periods. Which of the following best identifies this capacity?

a)

Latent Learning

b)

Insight

c)

Cognitive Mapping

d)

Intrinsic Motivation

118.

The perception that we control our own fate is also called

a)

Self-control

b)

Learned helplessness

c)

Internal locus of control

d)

External locus of control

119.

A woman has been pondering a problem for days and was about to give up when, suddenly, the solution came to her. Her experience can best be described as what?

a)

Cognitive mapping

b)

Insight

c)

Operant conditioning

d)

Classical conditioning

120.

Bandura's famous Bobo experiment is most closely associated with which of the following?

a)

latent learning

b)

classical conditioning

c)

operant conditioning

d)

observational learning

121.

Which of the following processes is the best term for explaining how we learn languages?

a)

biofeedback

b)

discrimination

c)

modeling

d)

insight

122.

Which of the following is the most likely consequence of the brain's tendency to vicariously experience something we observe?

a)

actual physical injury

b)

the risk of misremembering our own actions

c)

interference with associative learning

d)

the elimination of classically conditioned responses to stimuli

123.

When is prosocial modeling most effective?

a)

When the model acts in a way consistent with the prosocial lesson

b)

When the model verbally emphasizes the prosocial lesson but acts as she chooses

c)

When the observer has a personal relationship with the model

d)

When the model is well known

124.

Which of the following is the best synonym for social learning?

a)

observation learning

b)

modeling

c)

mirror neuron imitation

d)

prosocial model

125.
The processing of information into the memory system.
a)
encoding
b)
storage
c)
retrieval
d)
automatic processing
126.
The processing of information into the memory system.
a)
encoding
b)
storage
c)
retrieval
d)
automatic processing
127.
The retention (saving) of encoded material over time.
a)
encoding
b)
storage
c)
retrieval
d)
rehearsal
128.
The process of getting the information back out of memory storage.
a)
encoding
b)
storage
c)
retrieval
d)
Next-in-line-effect
129.
The persistence of learning over time through the encoding, storage and retrieval of information.
a)
memory
b)
learning
c)
serial position effect
d)
semantic learning
130.
Information can be held in this storage bank for around 30 seconds with out rehearsal.
a)
short-term memory
b)
long-term memory
c)
sensory memory
d)
visual encoding
131.
Unconscious encoding of incidental information.
a)
automatic processing
b)
effortful processing
c)
rehearsal
d)
chunking
132.
Studying in small bursts over a period of time.  
a)
spacing effect
b)
cramming
c)
iconic memory
d)
echoic memory
133.
Organizing items into familiar, manageable units.
a)
chunking
b)
mnemonic
c)
relean
d)
recall
134.
Implicit memory is to the __, as explicit memory is to the __.
a)
hippocampus/cerebellum
b)
cerebellum/hippocampus
c)
corpus callosum/hippocampus
d)
hippocampus/corpus callosum 
135.

The inability to form new memories is defined as

a)

retrograde amnesia

b)

anterograde amnesia

136.

The disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information is defined as

a)

proactive interference

b)

retroactive interference

137.

Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?

a)

Halle has no memory of the first 10 years of her life.

b)

William has lost his memory of the 2 weeks before he had surgery to remove a benign brain tumor.

c)

Louis can remember his past, but has not been able to form new long term memories since experiencing a brain infection 4 years ago.

d)

Maddie can't remember the the details of when she was mugged downtown six months ago.

138.

Your inability to recall how many tables are in the cafeteria illustrates

a)

retrograde amnesia

b)

proactive interference

c)

retroactive interference

d)

encoding failure

139.

Your younger sister has asked you for help because she feels she cannot remember class material well enough to get a good grade on her upcoming test. Which pieces of advice would psychological science advise her NOT to do.

a)

minimize interference

b)

maximize interference

c)

rehearse repeatedly

d)

use mnemonic devices

140.
Daniel was asked to write down as many possible uses for a toothpick that he could think of.To complete this task Daniel would rely on
a)
Convergent Thinking
b)
Divergent Thinking
c)
Framing
d)
The availability heuristic
141.
When someone mentions getting ice cream, Ms. C immediately thinks of Graeter's. In this instance, Graeter's Ice Cream is a
a)
Fixation
b)
Algorithm
c)
Heuristic
d)
Prototype
142.

Cognition...

a)

mental image or best example of a category

b)

creativity tests

c)

mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating information

d)

ability to produce ideas that are both novel and valuable

143.

Concepts...

a)

mental groupings of similar objects, events, ideas, and people

b)

ability to give the correct answer to standard questions that do no require creativity

c)

expertise

144.

Prototypes...

a)

ability to produce ideas

b)

creativity tests

c)

mental image or best example of a category

145.

What is another term for a methodical, logical rule that guarantees solving a particular problem?

a)

heuristic

b)

algorithm

c)

mental set

d)

confirmation bias

146.

Which of the following is the tendency to search for supportive information of preconceptions while ignoring contradictory evidence?

a)

confirmation bias

b)

mental set

c)

availability heuristic

d)

overconfidence

147.

What is another word for the way an issue is presented to you?

a)

intuition

b)

insight

c)

framing

d)

overconfidence

148.

When instance come readily to mind, we often presume such events are common. Which of the following is the term for this phenomenon?

a)

confirmation bias

b)

belief perseverence

c)

mental set

d)

availability heuristic

149.
Implicit memory is to the __, as explicit memory is to the __.
a)
hippocampus/cerebellum
b)
cerebellum/hippocampus
c)
corpus callosum/hippocampus
d)
hippocampus/corpus callosum 
150.
According to Maslow, ______ are the first level of needs that people have to satisfy before they can advance up the hierarchy.
a)
Biological and Physiological needs
b)
Self-actualization needs
c)
Esteem needs
d)
Belongingness needs

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