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Treaties that Ended Wars

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which treaty ended the Persian War in 449 BC?

a)

Treaty of Westphalia

b)

Peace of Callias

c)

Treaty of Paris (1783)

d)

Treaty of Ghent

2.

In the context of the Hundred Years War, which treaty in 1360 resulted in England gaining Aquitaine and Calais?

a)

Treaty of Troyes

b)

Treaty of Bretigny

c)

Treaty of Utrecht

d)

Treaty of Ryswick

3.

Which agreement during the Hundred Years War made Henry V of England heir to Charles VI of France?

a)

Treaty of Amiens (1802)

b)

Treaty of Troyes (1420)

c)

Treaty of Utrecht (1713)

d)

Treaty of Paris (1763)

4.

The 1466 treaty that resolved a conflict involving the Teutonic Knights is known as:

a)

Treaty of Tilsit

b)

Treaty of Torun

c)

Treaty of Nanking

d)

Treaty of Neuilly

5.

Which treaty is correctly paired with the war it ended: Thirty Years War?

a)

Treaty of Westphalia (1648)

b)

Treaty of Paris (1815)

c)

Treaty of Ghent (1814)

d)

Treaty of Portsmouth (1905)

6.

The Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 1748 concluded which succession conflict and transferred Silesia to Prussia?

a)

Spanish Succession

b)

Austrian Succession

c)

Polish Succession

d)

First Coalition

7.

Which 1763 agreement concluded the Seven Years War?

a)

Treaty of Paris

b)

Treaty of Vienna

c)

Treaty of Campo Formio

d)

Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

8.

Which treaty formally ended the American Revolution?

a)

Treaty of Paris (1783)

b)

Treaty of Ghent (1814)

c)

Treaty of Greenville (1795)

d)

Treaty of London (1913)

9.

Which treaty ended the War of 1812?

a)

Treaty of Amiens

b)

Treaty of Ghent

c)

Congress of Vienna Final Act

d)

Treaty of Tilsit

10.

During the Napoleonic Wars, which 1807 agreement among Russia and France ended war with the Third Coalition?

a)

Treaty of Tilsit

b)

Treaty of Amiens

c)

Congress of Vienna

d)

Treaty of Campo Formio

11.

Which diplomatic gathering in 1815 settled issues after the Napoleonic Wars and included Metternich, Alexander I, Talleyrand, and the Duke of Wellington?

a)

Congress of Berlin

b)

Congress of Vienna

c)

Treaty of Paris (1815)

d)

Treaty of London (1913)

12.

Which treaty concluded the Mexican-American War in 1848?

a)

Treaty of Guadalupe-Hidalgo

b)

Treaty of Velasco

c)

Treaty of Nanking

d)

Treaty of Shimonoseki

13.

Identify the treaty that ended the First Opium War.

a)

Treaty of Tianjin

b)

Treaty of Nanking (1842)

c)

Treaty of Portsmouth

d)

Treaty of San Stefano

14.

Which treaty ended the Boer War in 1902?

a)

Treaty of Portsmouth

b)

Treaty of Vereeniging

c)

Treaty of Paris (1763)

d)

Treaty of Trianon

15.

Which treaty took Russia out of World War I and settled terms between Russia and the Central Powers in 1918?

a)

Treaty of Sevres

b)

Treaty of Saint-Germain

c)

Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

d)

Treaty of Neuilly

16.

Which post–World War I treaty in 1919 set terms for Germany and included leaders George, Wilson, Clemenceau, and Sonnino?

a)

Treaty of Versailles

b)

Treaty of Trianon

c)

Treaty of Sevres

d)

Treaty of Lausanne

17.

Which agreement in 1803 involved Monroe and Livingston purchasing 800,000 square miles from Talleyrand and Napoleon for $15 million?

a)

Jay's Treaty

b)

Louisiana Purchase

c)

Treaty of Maastricht

d)

Treaty of San Francisco

18.

Which 1957 treaty established the European Economic Community?

a)

Treaty of Maastricht

b)

Treaty of Rome

c)

Geneva Protocol

d)

Munich Pact

19.

SALT I (1979) had what outcome regarding nuclear launchers?

a)

Increased nuclear launchers

b)

Completely eliminated nuclear arsenals

c)

Limited nuclear launchers but was never officially ratified

d)

Created a joint US–USSR arsenal

20.

The Camp David Accords (1978) achieved peace between which two nations and involved leaders al-Sadat, Begin, and Carter?

a)

Iraq and Iran

b)

Egypt and Israel

c)

Jordan and Syria

d)

Lebanon and Israel

21.

Which treaty signed in 1817 limited US and British naval power on the Great Lakes?

a)

Rush-Bagot Treaty

b)

Treaty of Kiel

c)

Pinckney's Treaty

d)

Clayton-Bulwer Treaty

22.

What did Pinckney's Treaty (1795) grant to the United States?

a)

Control of the Panama Canal Zone

b)

Free navigation of the Mississippi and right of deposit in New Orleans

c)

Return of land to Turkey

d)

Annexation of the Sudetenland

23.

Which 1900 agreement saw Japan promise to stop issuing passports to emigrants?

a)

Root-Takahira Treaty

b)

Gentlemen's Agreement

c)

Hay-Pauncefote Treaty

d)

Bryan-Chamorro Treaty

24.

The Geneva Protocol of 1925 addressed which type of weapons?

a)

Nuclear weapons

b)

Naval mines

c)

Bacterial and gas weapons

d)

Ballistic missiles

25.

Which pact in 1928 renounced war as an instrument of national policy, with 15 nations agreeing?

a)

Munich Pact

b)

Kellogg-Briand Pact

c)

Locarno Pact

d)

Treaty of Lausanne

26.

What did the Clayton-Bulwer Treaty (1850) stipulate regarding control of a canal in Panama?

a)

US would have exclusive control

b)

Britain would have exclusive control

c)

Neither the US nor Britain should control a canal in Panama

d)

Control would be given to France

27.

Which treaty in 1903 granted the US the Panama Canal Zone?

a)

Hay-Pauncefote Treaty

b)

Hay-Bunau-Varilla Treaty

c)

Bryan-Chamorro Treaty

d)

Root-Takahira Treaty

28.

What was the primary result of the Munich Pact (1938)?

a)

Annexation of Czechoslovakia by Italy

b)

Annexation of the Czech Sudetenland by Germany

c)

Demilitarization of the Rhineland

d)

Creation of the European Union

29.

Which 1992 treaty established the European Union?

a)

Treaty of Rome

b)

Treaty of Maastricht

c)

START I

d)

Locarno Pact

30.

START I (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) signed in 1991 by Bush (US) and Gorbachev (USSR) led to what outcome?

a)

Increased nuclear arsenals

b)

Reduced nuclear arsenals

c)

No change to arsenals

d)

Exclusive control of canals

31.

Which accord in 1993 saw Bush (US) and Yeltsin (Russia) reduce nuclear arsenals?

a)

SALT I

b)

START I

c)

Treaty of San Francisco

d)

START II

32.

What did the Camp David Accords include in terms of leadership?

a)

Mussolini, Daladier, and Hitler

b)

al-Sadat, Begin, and Carter

c)

Bush, Gorbachev, and Yeltsin

d)

Chamberlain, Daladier, and Hitler

33.

Which 1993 declaration involved Rabin (Israel) and Arafat (PLO) agreeing to limited Palestinian self-rule in Gaza and Jericho?

a)

Geneva Protocol

b)

Kellogg-Briand Pact

c)

Declaration of Principles

d)

Locarno Pact

34.

Which tariff was the first U.S. tariff designed to protect domestic glass and earthenware?

a)

Tariff Act of 1789

b)

Tariff of 1816

c)

Compromise Tariff of 1833

d)

Underwood Tariff of 1913

35.

Jefferson supported an act that prohibited U.S. vessels from trading with European nations involved in the Napoleonic Wars. Which act was this?

a)

Non-Intercourse Act (1809)

b)

Embargo Act (1807)

c)

Enforcement Act (1809)

d)

Macon’s Bill #2 (1810)

36.

After stricter enforcement of the Embargo Act was needed, which 1809 legislation provided for that enforcement?

a)

Macon’s Bill #2

b)

Enforcement Act

c)

Reciprocal Trade Agreement Act

d)

Navigation Acts

37.

Which 1809 law reinstated trade with all nations except Britain and France?

a)

Embargo Act

b)

Non-Intercourse Act

c)

Macon’s Bill #2

d)

Tariff of Abominations

38.

Which tariff is described as the first complete tariff in U.S. history?

a)

Tariff Act of 1789

b)

Tariff of 1816

c)

Tariff of 1832

d)

McKinley Tariff (1890)

39.

The Tariff of Abominations (1828) increased rates to the highest ever and protected wool, angering which region most?

a)

The North

b)

The South

c)

The West

d)

New England

40.

South Carolina declared which pair of measures null in response to federal tariffs?

a)

Embargo Act and Non-Intercourse Act

b)

Tariff of Abominations and Tariff of 1832

c)

Compromise Tariff and McKinley Tariff

d)

Payne-Aldrich Tariff and Underwood Tariff

41.

Henry Clay proposed a tariff that reduced rates gradually to resolve sectional tensions. Identify this tariff.

a)

Compromise Tariff (1833)

b)

Tariff of 1832

c)

Tariff Act of 1842

d)

Dingley Tariff (1897)

42.

Which tariff raised rates back to 1832 levels to make up for revenue lost in the Panic of 1837?

a)

Tariff Act of 1842

b)

Underwood Tariff (1913)

c)

Payne-Aldrich Tariff (1909)

d)

Fordney-McCumber Tariff (1922)

43.

The Dingley Tariff (1897) is noted for what characteristic compared to previous tariffs?

a)

Lowered rates to pre–Civil War levels

b)

Raised rates to the highest levels since the Civil War

c)

Eliminated all tariffs on manufactured goods

d)

Established the WTO

44.

What international framework established in 1947 aimed to reduce tariffs through multilateral agreements?

a)

World Trade Organization

b)

Tokyo Round

c)

General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)

d)

North American Free Trade Agreement

45.

The World Trade Organization, established by the GATT Uruguay Round in 1994, had which primary purpose?

a)

To negotiate British domestic legislation

b)

To enforce and oversee global trade rules

c)

To abolish all tariffs immediately

d)

To create a customs union among the American colonies

46.

Which charter signed by King John in 1215 increased barons’ feudal powers and contained 63 articles?

a)

Instrument of Government

b)

Magna Carta

c)

Act of Settlement

d)

Clarendon Code

47.

The Navigation Acts (1651) primarily aimed to promote what national objective?

a)

Religious uniformity

b)

English trade

c)

Succession to the throne

d)

Corn law repeal

48.

Which 1765 act required a tax stamp on all legal documents in the American colonies?

a)

Sugar Act

b)

Stamp Act

c)

Declaratory Act

d)

Currency Act

49.

A judge in 1850 considers how to handle different Fugitive Slave Law cases. Which change from the 1850 Compromise most affects judicial decision-making compared with the 1793 law?

a)

Creation of a federal jury for every fugitive case

b)

Provision of different fees to judges depending on their verdict

c)

Requirement that states individually determine enforcement

d)

Abolition of federal involvement in such cases

50.

How did the Naturalization Act of 1798 strategically aim to influence political participation among immigrants?

a)

By lowering the residency requirement to increase voter turnout

b)

By increasing the residency requirement from 5 to 14 years, delaying suffrage

c)

By granting automatic citizenship to all residents after 2 years

d)

By allowing states to set their own residency rules

51.

Which consequence of the Alien Act (1798) most directly expanded executive power?

a)

Empowered the President to deport any alien considered dangerous

b)

Established a congressional committee to review deportations

c)

Limited the President’s authority to wartime only

d)

Required federal courts to approve every deportation

52.

In the Sedition Act (1798), which provision illustrates a federal strategy to suppress political opposition?

a)

Mandating party primaries

b)

Prohibiting printing of libel or seditious opposition to US laws

c)

Creating new states to dilute opposition

d)

Granting voting rights to all citizens

53.

Jefferson and Madison wrote the Kentucky and Virginia Resolutions (1798). What strategic objective did these resolutions pursue?

a)

Support for the Sedition Act’s expansion of civil liberties

b)

Opposition to infringements of civil liberties in the Alien and Sedition Acts

c)

Creation of a new federal tax system

d)

Annexation of territory from Mexico

54.

Which element of the Missouri Compromise (1820) indicates a calculated balance of political power between free and slave states?

a)

Admission of only free states

b)

Admission of slave state Missouri and free state Maine to keep a 12–12 balance

c)

Abolition of slavery nationwide

d)

Creation of a national emancipation fund

55.

What was the key strategic addition of Thomas’s proposal to the Missouri Compromise (1820)?

a)

Allowing slavery north of 36°30′

b)

Preventing slavery north of 36°30′ in the Louisiana Purchase

c)

Requiring compensated emancipation nationwide

d)

Establishing popular sovereignty in territories

56.

Why did the Tallmadge Amendment to the Missouri Compromise face Southern resistance?

a)

It proposed immediate nationwide abolition

b)

It would have freed slaves born in Missouri at age 25, signaling gradual emancipation

c)

It banned the slave trade in Washington, DC

d)

It established a fugitive slave law

57.

The Wilmot Proviso (1846) failed in the Senate. Which intended policy shift best explains its controversy?

a)

Granting free land in the West

b)

Banning slavery in lands acquired from Mexico by attaching the proviso to an appropriations bill

c)

Lowering tariffs on imported goods

d)

Establishing national banks in territories

58.

Which feature distinguishes the Compromise of 1850 from the earlier Missouri Compromise in terms of strategy toward slavery and territorial organization?

a)

Ending slavery in DC while admitting California as a free state and strengthening the Fugitive Slave Law

b)

Expanding slavery north of 36°30′

c)

Creating only new slave territories

d)

Mandating compensated emancipation across all states

59.

Under the Kansas-Nebraska Act (1854), what mechanism replaced the Missouri Compromise’s geographic rule to determine slavery’s status?

a)

Congressional fiat

b)

Judicial review

c)

Popular sovereignty—settlers deciding slavery for themselves

d)

Executive proclamation

60.

Which strategic incentive in the Homestead Act (1862) aimed to accelerate western settlement?

a)

Free land up to 160 acres to those who would settle and improve it for five years

b)

Tax exemptions for cattle ranchers

c)

Guaranteed railroad employment

d)

Immediate voting rights for settlers

61.

Why was the Freedmen’s Bureau (1865) strategically important in the immediate postwar South?

a)

It managed only battlefield logistics

b)

It established education and support for freed slaves and refugees, aiding transition to freedom

c)

It suspended all Southern courts

d)

It enforced tariffs on cotton exports

62.

What monetary policy tension did the Bland-Allison Act (1878) and Sherman Silver Purchase Act (1890) address?

a)

Gold vs. fiat currency

b)

Silver coinage and government purchase of silver to influence money supply

c)

Private banks’ monopoly on notes

d)

Use of barter in rural areas

63.

How did the Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act (1883) strategically curb patronage?

a)

By expanding spoils appointments

b)

By requiring competitive exams for federal jobs after Garfield’s assassination

c)

By eliminating civil service entirely

d)

By shifting hiring to state governments

64.

The Sherman Antitrust Act (1890) targeted what economic behavior, and for what strategic purpose?

a)

Government monopolies to raise taxes

b)

Trusts restraining free trade to preserve competition

c)

Small businesses forming co-ops

d)

Labor unions negotiating wages

65.

Which Spanish-American War provision signaled US intentions regarding Cuba?

a)

Sherman Silver Purchase Act

b)

Teller Amendment stating the US would not annex Cuba

c)

Wade-Davis Bill

d)

Compromise of 1850

66.

What governance transition did the Platt Amendment (1901) and Spooner Amendment (1901) collectively reflect regarding Cuba and the Philippines?

a)

Permanent annexation of Cuba; martial law in the Philippines

b)

End of US occupation in Cuba with a naval base at Guantánamo; civilian government in the Philippines

c)

Immediate independence for both

d)

European oversight

67.

Which Progressive Era law exemplified federal regulation of consumer safety and was later strengthened?

a)

Pure Food and Drug Act (1906), amended in 1938

b)

Hatch Act (1939)

c)

Landrum-Griffin Act (1959)

d)

Taft-Hartley Act (1947)

68.

The Federal Reserve was established by which act, and what strategic financial goal did it serve?

a)

Owen-Glass Act (1913); central banking to stabilize the economy

b)

Clayton Antitrust Act (1914); trust-busting

c)

NIRA (1933); recovery from depression

d)

Lend-Lease Act (1941); wartime aid

69.

Why was the Clayton Antitrust Act (1914) significant for antitrust strategy compared with the Sherman Act?

a)

It legalized monopolies

b)

It amended and strengthened antitrust enforcement for new monopolistic practices

c)

It abolished competition law

d)

It focused solely on labor unions

70.

Which World War I law illustrates federal balancing of civil liberties and national security?

a)

Hatch Act

b)

Espionage Act (1917), imposing penalties for spying against the US

c)

Smith Act

d)

Voting Rights Act

71.

What was the primary mechanism of the National Industrial Recovery Act (1933) to combat the Great Depression, and what was its constitutional outcome?

a)

Tax cuts; upheld in court

b)

Industry codes and the NRA under the Public Works Administration; ruled unconstitutional in Schechter Poultry v. US

c)

War mobilization; expanded army

d)

Agricultural subsidies; declared constitutional

72.

How did the Hatch Act (1939) attempt to protect democratic processes?

a)

By mandating party membership for federal employees

b)

By limiting political activities and individual campaign contributions of federal employees

c)

By abolishing elections during wartime

d)

By requiring public financing of all campaigns

73.

The Lend-Lease Act (1941) was a strategic foreign policy innovation primarily intended to do what?

a)

Conquer territories in Latin America

b)

Grant economic aid to nations critical to the defense of the US

c)

Reduce domestic taxes

d)

Create a draft for World War II

74.

What postwar labor legislation reflected a shift away from New Deal union power and survived a presidential veto?

a)

Taft-Hartley Act (1947), curbing unions and allowing right-to-work laws

b)

Wagner Act (1935)

c)

Landrum-Griffin Act (1959)

d)

McCarran-Walter Act (1952)

75.

Which immigration policy change in the McCarran-Walter Act (1952) reflected Cold War priorities?

a)

Open borders for all nations

b)

Removed ban on immigration by Asians to the US while maintaining quotas

c)

Created a guest worker program for Europe

d)

Eliminated visas entirely

76.

Which civil rights measure directly targeted barriers to voting?

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1968

b)

Voting Rights Act of 1965, providing federal enforcement to allow minorities to vote

c)

Social Security Act of 1967

d)

Medicaid Act of 1965

77.

What was a shared social welfare objective of the Medicare and Medicaid Acts (1965)?

a)

Health insurance for the elderly and the poor, respectively

b)

Mandatory private insurance purchase

c)

Abolition of hospitals

d)

Tax-free medical savings accounts

78.

Which late–20th-century provision limited US involvement in foreign conflicts by restricting covert aid?

a)

Boland Amendment (1984), preventing US aid for contras in Nicaragua

b)

Lend-Lease Act (1941)

c)

Espionage Act (1917)

d)

Platt Amendment (1901)

79.

Which statement best captures the objective of the Monroe Doctrine (1823)?

a)

To reduce U.S. tariffs and promote free trade with Europe

b)

To declare that European powers should not interfere in affairs of nations in the Western Hemisphere

c)

To formalize U.S. military alliances with Latin American countries

d)

To provide economic aid to European countries after World War II

80.

The New Deal (1933) is most accurately described as which of the following?

a)

A plan to limit German reparations after World War I

b)

FDR's program for economic recovery from the Great Depression

c)

A diplomatic policy asserting U.S. intervention in Latin America

d)

A strategy to prevent European territorial changes in Asia

81.

What was the primary goal of the Marshall Plan (1947)?

a)

To establish the European Coal and Steel Community

b)

To allot billions in aid to help rebuild Europe after World War II

c)

To restrict immigration to the United States

d)

To assert U.S. intervention rights in Latin America

82.

Containment (1947) was designed to achieve which strategic outcome?

a)

Limit the spread of Communism

b)

Force European nations to adopt U.S. tariffs

c)

Promote equal trading rights in China

d)

End German reparations after World War I

83.

Which policy sought equal trading rights in China?

a)

Open Door Policy (1899)

b)

Roosevelt Corollary (1904)

c)

Dollar Diplomacy (1909)

d)

Stimson Doctrine (1932)

84.

Which diplomatic stance asserted that the U.S. could intervene in the affairs of Latin American nations?

a)

Open Door Policy

b)

Roosevelt Corollary

c)

Schuman Plan

d)

Great Society

85.

Dollar Diplomacy (1909) under President Taft promoted which approach?

a)

Investing money in Latin America, leading to military involvement

b)

Limiting government and banking reform

c)

Encouraging intellectuals to criticize the government briefly

d)

Negotiating equal trading rights in China

86.

Which policy declared that the U.S. would not recognize territorial changes resulting from Japan's invasion of Manchuria?

a)

Stimson Doctrine (1932)

b)

Containment (1947)

c)

Open Door Policy (1899)

d)

Schuman Plan (1950s)

87.

Which initiative outlined by Kennan focused on limiting the spread of Communism?

a)

New Deal

b)

Containment

c)

Marshall Plan

d)

Open Door Policy

88.

The Schuman Plan (1950s) aimed to form which entity?

a)

European Coal and Steel Community

b)

North Atlantic Treaty Organization

c)

League of Nations

d)

European Union as a political federation

89.

Which reform program is associated with Theodore Roosevelt's Progressive Party candidacy?

a)

New Freedom

b)

New Nationalism

c)

Square Deal

d)

Great Society

90.

Wilson's New Freedom is best characterized by its emphasis on which set of policies?

a)

Aggressive foreign intervention and high tariffs

b)

Limited government, low tariffs, banking reform, and antitrust laws

c)

Social legislation to fight poverty

d)

Investing in Latin America to expand U.S. influence

91.

Which program provided social legislation in the post–World War II era, championed by President Truman?

a)

Great Society

b)

Square Deal

c)

Fair Deal (1945)

d)

New Deal

92.

Which U.S. policy was a response to European colonial interests in the Western Hemisphere during the 1820s?

a)

Doctrine of Nullification

b)

Roosevelt Corollary

c)

Monroe Doctrine

d)

Open Door Policy

93.

What was a central feature of the Great Society (1964)?

a)

Programs fighting poverty and racial injustice

b)

Investment-led diplomacy in Latin America

c)

Agrarian reform plans in Mexico

d)

Limiting U.S. recognition of territorial changes in Asia

94.

Which initiative provided major economic assistance to European nations crucial to U.S. defense interests during World War II?

a)

Lend-Lease Act (1941)

b)

Marshall Plan (1947)

c)

Fair Deal (1945)

d)

Containment (1947)

95.

Shuttle Diplomacy (1973) involved which practice by Secretary of State Kissinger?

a)

Negotiating equal trade in China

b)

Traveling back and forth between nations in the Arab-Israeli War to foster agreements

c)

Establishing a European community for coal and steel

d)

Restricting immigration from Asia

96.

Strategically comparing two economic recovery programs, which statement is most accurate?

a)

The New Deal focused on U.S. domestic recovery from the Great Depression, while the Marshall Plan allocated aid to rebuild European economies after World War II.

b)

Both the New Deal and Marshall Plan were international aid programs targeting Europe.

c)

Containment and the New Deal were identical strategies to limit Communism.

d)

The Marshall Plan preceded the Great Depression and addressed banking reforms within the U.S.

97.

Which ancient legal code is noted for establishing laws of equal retaliation and was discovered at Susa in 1901?

a)

Justinian Code

b)

Code of Hammurabi

c)

Theodosian Code

d)

Code Napoleon

98.

The Edict of Milan (313) is best described as which of the following outcomes under Constantine the Great?

a)

Legalized Christianity in the Roman Empire

b)

Reasserted pagan worship in Rome

c)

Established trial by jury in Roman courts

d)

Divided the Roman Empire into East and West

99.

What distinguishes the Justinian Code (534) from other entries listed in the section?

a)

It proclaimed religious tolerance in France

b)

It compiled Byzantine civil law under Emperor Justinian I

c)

It limited papal authority in France

d)

It condemned the teachings of Luther

100.

Which statement accurately compares the Theodosian Code (438) with the Justinian Code (534)?

a)

Both compiled opinions of Roman jurists; neither addressed civil law

b)

The Theodosian Code compiled opinions of Roman jurists, while the Justinian Code compiled the body of civil law for Byzantium

c)

The Justinian Code compiled opinions of jurists, while the Theodosian Code created new civil laws

d)

Neither had influence beyond Rome

101.

Which event involved allied Carolingian rulers briefly imprisoning Lothair I and his father at the Field of Lies in 833?

a)

Concordat of Bologna

b)

Golden Bull of 1356

c)

Oath of Strasbourg

d)

Unam Sanctum

102.

Unam Sanctum (1302) asserted supremacy of which institution over secular leaders?

a)

The Byzantine civil courts

b)

The papacy

c)

The French National Assembly

d)

The Holy Roman Emperors

103.

Which Golden Bull established rules for the election of emperors in the Holy Roman Empire?

a)

Golden Bull of 1356 by Charles IV

b)

Golden Bull of 1222 by Hungarian nobles

c)

Golden Bull of 1438 by Charles VII

d)

Golden Bull of 1516 by Francis I

104.

The Pragmatic Sanction (1438) by Charles VII in France primarily did what?

a)

Limited papal authority in France

b)

Restored Catholic lands to Protestants

c)

Granted religious freedom to Huguenots

d)

Established equal trading rights in China

105.

Which agreement obtained the right to appoint church officials without papal approval?

a)

Concordat of Bologna (1516)

b)

Edict of Nantes (1598)

c)

Mayflower Compact (1620)

d)

Tamworth Manifesto (1832)

106.

The Edict of Worms (1521) by Charles V condemned the teachings of which reformer?

a)

John Calvin

b)

Martin Luther

c)

Ulrich Zwingli

d)

Jan Hus

107.

Which French edict granted partial religious freedom to Huguenots but was later revoked by Louis XIV in 1685?

a)

Edict of Restitution

b)

Edict of Nantes

c)

Edict of Milan

d)

Tennis Court Oath

108.

What was the purpose of the Mayflower Compact (1620) signed by Pilgrim Separatists?

a)

To legalize Christianity in the colony

b)

To establish laws for Plymouth colony

c)

To restore lands seized by Protestants

d)

To revoke the divine right of kings

109.

The Fundamental Orders of Connecticut (1637) are significant because they are considered which of the following?

a)

The first written constitution

b)

A royal decree limiting papal authority

c)

A proclamation condemning Protestantism

d)

An oath of loyalty to the French king

110.

Which 1789 pledge vowed to create a constitution for France and marked a step against divine right monarchy?

a)

Tamworth Manifesto

b)

Tennis Court Oath

c)

Unam Sanctum

d)

Oath of Strasbourg

111.

The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen (1789) proclaimed during the French Revolution guaranteed which broad outcome?

a)

Equal trading rights in China

b)

Guaranteed personal freedoms and ended divine right of kings

c)

Restored Catholic lands seized by Protestants

d)

Established rules for election of emperors

112.

Which legal code established by Napoleon in 1804 is still used in Belgium, Louisiana, and France?

a)

Code of Hammurabi

b)

Justinian Code

c)

Code Napoleon

d)

Theodosian Code

113.

The Port Huron Statement (1962) is associated with which organization and leader?

a)

Students for a Democratic Society led by Tom Hayden

b)

National Assembly led by Mirabeau

c)

Carolingian allies led by Louis the German

d)

Pilgrim Separatists led by Brewster and Bradford

114.

Which statement best explains the strategic purpose of the Albany Congress (1754) in the broader context of colonial defense and diplomacy?

a)

It sought independence from Britain through a formal declaration.

b)

It met to coordinate between American colonies and Iroquois in preparation for war with France, including Franklin’s plan for union.

c)

It convened to write the U.S. Constitution under Washington’s leadership.

d)

It aimed to abolish tariffs to promote industrial growth.

115.

At the First Continental Congress (1774), delegates issued the Declaration of Rights and Grievances and established the Continental Association. What reasoning connects these actions to their strategic goal?

a)

They were designed to expand slavery into new territories.

b)

They aimed to organize collective colonial resistance to British policies through committees of safety.

c)

They prepared for immediate independence by drafting a national constitution.

d)

They sought to reconcile with France after the Seven Years' War.

116.

Which outcome most directly resulted from the Constitutional Convention (1787) as described in the material?

a)

Adoption of the Articles of Confederation.

b)

Framing of a new Constitution with Washington as president of the convention.

c)

Immediate abolition of slavery.

d)

Formation of the League of Nations.

117.

The Hartford Convention (1814–1815) is often viewed through the lens of political risk during wartime. Which feature best illustrates this?

a)

It expanded the Treaty of Ghent.

b)

It proposed constitutional amendments such as a two-thirds majority for war or new states and a one-term presidency, reflecting Federalist opposition to the War of 1812.

c)

It declared independence from Britain.

d)

It established the Continental Association.

118.

Which statement synthesizes the goals and leadership of the Seneca Falls Convention (1848)?

a)

It advocated temperance under Henry Clay.

b)

It adopted the Declaration of Sentiments for women’s rights and suffrage, led by Mott and Stanton.

c)

It opposed abolitionism led by Calhoun.

d)

It sought Native American land treaties led by Tecumseh.

119.

What common strategic theme connects the Atlantic Charter (Aug. 1941) and Casablanca Conference (Jan. 1943)?

a)

Both focused on tariff reduction.

b)

Both outlined Allied war aims and sequencing, with the Charter asserting self-determination and Casablanca planning to follow up the African campaign before attacking Germany.

c)

Both proposed the partition of Germany.

d)

Both negotiated surrender terms with Japan.

120.

Which conference first brought Stalin into Allied summitry during World War II, and what was discussed there?

a)

Casablanca; unconditional surrender of Italy.

b)

Tehran (Nov.–Dec. 1943); Roosevelt, Churchill, and Stalin discussed WWII and postwar plans.

c)

Cairo; Pacific theater logistics.

d)

Yalta; creation of the UN Charter.

121.

Dumbarton Oaks (1944) and the United Nations Conference on International Organization (Apr.–June 1945) are linked. Which statement captures their relationship?

a)

Dumbarton Oaks disbanded the League of Nations, while the later conference established NATO.

b)

Dumbarton Oaks saw the US, China, Britain, and USSR outline plans for the UN, and the San Francisco conference formally established the UN.

c)

Both focused on European currency stabilization.

d)

Neither addressed postwar institutions.

122.

What was the principal economic outcome of Bretton Woods (July 1944), and how did it reflect postwar planning?

a)

Creation of the European Union.

b)

Establishment of the IMF and International Bank for Reconstruction and Development by 44 nations to stabilize and rebuild economies.

c)

Adoption of the gold standard in all countries.

d)

Immediate abolition of war debts.

123.

Which set of decisions at Yalta (Feb. 1945) most clearly shaped the immediate postwar order?

a)

Creation of NAFTA and ASEAN.

b)

Agreements on reparations, partition of Germany, and a secret pledge that the USSR would join the war on Japan.

c)

Recognition of Israel and Palestine.

d)

Withdrawal of all Allied forces from Europe by 1946.

124.

How did the Potsdam Conference (July–Aug. 1945) operationalize earlier summit decisions?

a)

By reversing the Yalta agreements on Germany.

b)

By implementing Yalta decisions, issuing an ultimatum to Japan, and continuing Allied leadership with Attlee replacing Churchill.

c)

By dissolving the UN.

d)

By declaring neutrality in the Pacific.

125.

Which council condemned Arianism and adopted the Nicene Creed under Constantine the Great?

a)

First Council of Nicaea (325)

b)

Council of Ephesus (431)

c)

Council of Chalcedon (451)

d)

Council of Trent (1545–1563)

126.

A student argues that the Second Council of Nicaea supported iconoclasm. Using the material, what is the accurate correction?

a)

It supported iconoclasm

b)

It condemned iconoclasm and restored veneration of icons

c)

It declared papal infallibility

d)

It initiated the First Crusade

127.

Which council affirmed papal infallibility in Pastor Aeternus?

a)

Fourth Lateran Council

b)

Council of Trent

c)

First Vatican Council

d)

Council of Basel

128.

Identify the council that condemned Monophysitism.

a)

Council of Chalcedon (451)

b)

Council of Ephesus (431)

c)

Council of Basel (1431–1449)

d)

Second Vatican Council (1962–1965)

129.

Using evidence from the list, which event is linked to Urban II and involved excommunicating Philip I of France?

a)

First Council of Nicaea

b)

Council of Clermont

c)

Fourth Lateran Council

d)

Council of Constance

130.

Which description best characterizes Arianism according to the material?

a)

Christ has one divine nature only

b)

Jesus was created and not eternal like the Father

c)

Christ’s divine and human natures are distinct

d)

Belief in two gods, one good and one bad

131.

Which council was called by Paul III to consider reforms proposed by the Reformation and met in three periods?

a)

Council of Basel

b)

Council of Trent

c)

Fourth Lateran Council

d)

Second Vatican Council

132.

Evaluate the claim: The Council of Ephesus condemned Nestorianism. Based on the material, who led this condemnation?

a)

Constantine the Great

b)

St. Cyril

c)

Pope Innocent III

d)

Pope Paul VI

133.

Which pair correctly links a council with its era and key action: "Council of Constance (1414–1418) — ended the Avignon schism and declared supremacy over the pope"?

a)

Correct as stated

b)

Incorrect: Constance ended the Western Schism and deposed claimants; Basel declared council supremacy

c)

Incorrect: Trent ended the schism

d)

Incorrect: Chalcedon ended iconoclasm

134.

What major theme did the Second Vatican Council emphasize according to the material?

a)

Condemned Arianism

b)

Affirmed papal infallibility

c)

Promoted Christian unity and reforms in the church; condemned anti-Semitism

d)

Declared council supremacy over the pope

135.

Which US Constitution article outlines the powers of Congress?

a)

Article I

b)

Article II

c)

Article III

d)

Article VI

136.

A claim states Article III defines the powers of the President. What correction is supported by the material?

a)

Article III defines Judiciary Powers

b)

Article II defines Judiciary Powers

c)

Article IV defines the powers of the President

d)

Article VII defines Judiciary Powers

137.

Which amendment protects freedom of speech, press, and religion?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Second Amendment

c)

Fifth Amendment

d)

Sixth Amendment

138.

Which amendment abolished slavery in the United States?

a)

Thirteenth Amendment (1865)

b)

Fourteenth Amendment (1868)

c)

Fifteenth Amendment (1870)

d)

Nineteenth Amendment (1920)

139.

The Nineteenth Amendment addressed which issue?

a)

Abolition of slavery

b)

Women’s suffrage

c)

Direct election of senators

d)

Repeal of Prohibition

140.

Which amendment lowered the voting age to 18?

a)

Twenty-Fourth Amendment (1964)

b)

Twenty-Sixth Amendment (1971)

c)

Twenty-Second Amendment (1951)

d)

Twenty-Seventh Amendment (1992)

141.

Which amendment established separate electoral ballots for President and Vice President?

a)

Twelfth Amendment (1804)

b)

Seventeenth Amendment (1913)

c)

Twenty-Fifth Amendment (1967)

d)

Twenty-Third Amendment (1961)

142.

The amendment that prohibited poll taxes was the:

a)

Twenty-First Amendment (1933)

b)

Twenty-Fourth Amendment (1964)

c)

Twenty-Second Amendment (1951)

d)

Twenty-Third Amendment (1961)

143.

Which amendment instituted the direct election of senators?

a)

Seventeenth Amendment (1913)

b)

Sixteenth Amendment (1913)

c)

Fifteenth Amendment (1870)

d)

Twelfth Amendment (1804)

144.

Which amendment set presidential term limits?

a)

Twentieth Amendment (1933)

b)

Twenty-Second Amendment (1951)

c)

Twenty-Fifth Amendment (1967)

d)

Twenty-Seventh Amendment (1992)

145.

What did the Fifteenth Amendment guarantee?

a)

Voting rights to all races (1870)

b)

Women’s suffrage (1920)

c)

Abolition of slavery (1865)

d)

Direct election of senators (1913)

146.

Which amendment repealed Prohibition?

a)

Eighteenth Amendment (1919)

b)

Twenty-First Amendment (1933)

c)

Sixteenth Amendment (1913)

d)

Twentieth Amendment (1933)

147.

The Twenty-Seventh Amendment (1992) stipulates that:

a)

No congressional pay raises take effect until after an intervening election

b)

Presidential succession procedures

c)

DC citizens may vote in presidential elections

d)

Federal income tax established

148.

Which early amendment limits federal judicial power (1795)?

a)

Ninth Amendment

b)

Tenth Amendment

c)

Eleventh Amendment

d)

Seventh Amendment

149.

Which amendment provided DC citizens the right to vote in presidential elections?

a)

Twenty-Third Amendment (1961)

b)

Twenty-Fourth Amendment (1964)

c)

Twenty-Fifth Amendment (1967)

d)

Twenty-Second Amendment (1951)

150.

Which state was first to ratify the Constitution?

a)

Pennsylvania

b)

Delaware

c)

New Jersey

d)

Georgia