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Poli 4021 Midterm Practice Quiz Questions (LSU)

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true about Cohens v. Virginia (1821)?

a)


It built on Marbury v. Madison (1803) by overturning a second federal law as unconstitutional.

b)

It reflected the Federalist viewpoint of John Marshall by strengthening states' rights

c)

It reflected the Jeffersonian sympathies of John Marshall by recognizing the sovereignty of states.

d)

It reflected the Federalist viewpoint of John Marshall by strengthening the power of the federal courts.

e)

It reflected the Jeffersonian sympathies of John Marshall by strengthening the federal courts.

2.

By definition, a judical minimalist would lbe less likely to

a)

Ask or address a set of broad questions that cover many aspects of a case.

b)

Dismiss a case based on mootness.

c)

Make incremental rulings.

d)

Rule that a case was not ripe to hear.

e)

Uphold a previous decision.

3.

A list of cases that the Court will hear is called the?

a)

docket

b)

schedule

c)

agenda

d)

certioram

4.

A per curiam opinion is, by definition

a)

brief (usually less than a page)

b)

a plurality opinion

c)

unanimous

d)

unsigned

5.

An amicus curiae brief is filed by

a)

an administrative magistrate

b)

a third party to the case (such as an interest group)

c)

a party to the case

d)

the trial judge in the case

e)

an appellate judge reviewing the case

6.

A comment in a decision that is not necessary to resolve a case and is not precendential is called

a)

referee

b)

commenta

c)

dicta

d)

seponere

7.

How many justices must agree to hear a case

a)

six

b)

four

c)

five

d)

three

8.

In this type of concurrence, a justice agrees with the outcome but not with the reasoning

a)

limited concurrence

b)

regular concurrence

c)

narrow concurrence

d)

specfic concurrence

e)

special concurrence

9.

The doctrine of stare decisis says that

a)

a party to a case must have a stake in the outcome

b)

cases already settled will not be heard

c)

the facts in a case must be "ripe" for the case to be heard

d)

the court will follow precdent

10.

The ripeness doctrine

a)

requires that a suit be "live"--that is, not settled by other means

b)

requires that the parties to a suit have concrete stake in the case

c)

requires that enough information is present regarding the facts, effects on stakeholders, etc., to decide a case

d)

requires judges to (all other things equal) rule on precedent

11.

The standing doctrine

a)

requires judges to (all other things equal) rule on precedent

b)

requires that a suit be "live"-- that is, not settled by other means

c)

requires that the parties to a suit have a concrete stake in the case

d)

requires that enough information is present regarding the facts, effects on stakeholders, etc to decide a case

12.

The supreme court generally agrees to hear a case by issue a

a)

writ of agreement

b)

writ of habeas corpus

c)

writ of certiorari

d)

writ of mandamus

13.

when the court in an opinion identifies the differences between two cases, it is ________ the cases

a)

differentiating

b)

categorizing

c)

diagnosing

d)

distinguishing

14.

which doctrine or principle does NOT follow from the case or controversy clause?

a)

standing

b)

stare decisis

c)

mootness

d)

ripeness

15.

Which of the following is true about Article III

a)


It provides for a broader definition of treason than was present in England (that is, it makes it easier to prove treason cases

b)

It is the most extensive and detailed of the first three Articles

c)

It explicitly allows Congress to add to the original jurisdiction of the Court

d)

The Exceptions Clause requires that some judges be re-appointed at regular intervals

e)

It allows but does not require the establishment of lower ("inferior") federal courts

16.

Article I judges are not protected by the good behavior and the compensation clauses

a)

True

b)

False

17.

In Article III of the Constitution,

a)

Original and appellate jurisdiction are defined, and Congress is prohibited from expanding either

b)

Original jurisdiction is defined, and Congress is explicitly denied the power to expand that jurisdiction

c)

Congress is explicitly given the power to limit the appellate jurisdiction of the court

d)

Original and appellate jurisdiction are defined, and congress is prohibited from reducing either

18.

In Marbury v. Madison, a provision of which federal law was overturned?

a)

The Judiciary Act of 1789

b)

The Repeal Act

c)

The Judiciary Act of 1801

d)

The Midnight Judges Act

19.

In this case, the court held that state citizens could sue another state in federal court

a)

Cohens v. Virgina (1821)

b)

Marbury v. Madison (1803)

c)

Stuart v. Laird (1803)

d)

Martin v. Hunter's Lessee (1816)

e)

Chisholm v. Georgia (1793)

20.

Marshall changed the court in which of the following ways

a)

He established the norm of justices writing collective opinions, with a majority opinion that spoke for the court (along with dissents or concurrences, if present)

b)

He established the practice of Justices deliberating together

c)

He established the norm of black robes

d)

Marshall was responsible for all these developments in the court

21.

The mootness doctrine

a)


requires that a suit be "live"--that is, not settled by other means

b)

requires judges to (all other things equal) rule on precedent

c)

requires that the parties to a suit have a concrete stake in the case

d)

requires that enough information is present regarding the facts, effects on stakeholders, etc., to decide a case

22.

The outcome of Stuart v. Laird (1803) is dubious because of the

a)

Jury Clause

b)

Exceptions Clause

c)

Treason Clause

d)

Vesting Clause

e)

Good Behavior Clause

23.

This Amendment created the presidential election system we have today, in which the Vice-President and President run as teams, and the likelihood of ties is minimized.

a)

Ninth (IX)

b)

Eleventh (XI)

c)

Twelfth (XII)

d)

Tenth (X)

24.

Which of the following is NOT a legitimate or persuasive criticism of the Marbury v. Madison decision?

a)

Marshall should have decided based on jurisdiction; instead, he decided based on the merits, and then dismissed for want of jurisdiction

b)

The Supreme Court should have been able to issue the writ of mandamus, since the Constitution gives it original jurisdiction in all cases affected "public ministers and consuls"

c)

It violates separation of powers, because it allows judges to shape law

d)

These are all persuasive criticisms of the Marbury v. Madison decision.

25.

Which of the following is true about Marybury v. Madison (1803)

a)

The court expaned its power under original jurisdiction

b)

The court held that congress could not add to the original jurisdiction of the court

c)

There were multiple dissents in the decision

d)

The court declared the Midnight Judges Act unconstitutional

e)

The court upheld the constitutionality of the 1789 Judiciary Act

26.

Which of the following was NOT a response Congress made to either the Federalist court-packing or the Marbury v. Madison decision?

a)

They rquired that justices ride circuit again

b)

They cancleed the 1802 term of the court

c)

They impeached John Marshall

d)

They abolished some of the judicial seats created by the Federalists

27.

Marbury v. Madison (1803) was only the first of many cases in which the Marshall Court overturned federal law

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Marbury v. Madison (1803), Martin v. Hunter's Lessee (1816), and Cohens v.  Virginia (1821) were all part of Marshall's program to strengthen the national government and specifically the federal courts

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Which two Article III clauses most clearly protect judicial independence? (PICK TWO)

a)

Exceptions

b)

Good Behavior

c)

Vesting

d)

Case or Controversy

e)

Compensation

30.

In Article III of the Constitution

a)


Original and appellate jurisdiction are defined, and Congress is prohibited from expanding or reducing either

b)

Original jurisdiction is defined, and Congress is explicitly denied the power to expand that jurisdiction

c)

Congress is given the power to "except" cases from appellate jurisdiction of the Court.

d)

Both the U.S. Supreme Court and the lower federal courts are established

31.

An anti-syndicalist law is designed to

a)

criminalize fighting words,

b)

protect free speech

c)

prevent a breach of the peace

d)

combat communism of socialism

32.

Areopagitica was published by

a)

John Milton

b)

Peter Zenger

c)

John Stuart Mill

d)

Oliver Wrndell Holmes Jr.

33.

Milton's Areopagitica was written to respond to

a)

government effort to prosecute individuals for published dissent

b)

licensing laws

c)

treatment of the King during the English Civil War

d)

Anti Catholic fervor

34.

Footnote 4 in Carolene Products gives rise to the

a)

clear and present danger doctrine

b)

imminent lawless action standard

c)

bad tendency test

d)

preferred freedoms doctrine

35.

In Abrams v. United States, the Court's majority opinion relied on the

a)

imminent lawless action test

b)

fighting words doctrine

c)

clear and present danger test

d)

bad tendency test

36.

In this case, the doctrine of "fighting words" was established

a)

Miler v. California

b)

Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire

c)

Abrams v. United States

d)

Palko v. United States

37.

In which case did Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr. use the metaphor "false shouting fire in a crowded theater"

a)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

b)

Abrams v. United States (1919)

c)

United States v. Carolene Products (1938)

d)

Terminiello v. City of Chicago (1942)

38.

It is the 1920s, and you have been convicted under an anti-syndicalism act.  Your conviction will most likely be

a)


overturned by the Supreme Court with Sanford, Clarke, or White penning the majority opinion

b)

upheld by the Supreme Court unanimously

c)

upheld by the Supreme Court by a 7-2 vote with Holmes or Brandeis penning the majority opinion

d)

upheld by the Supreme Court by a 7-2 vote

39.

Before 1918, the right to free speech was generally interpretend as

a)

prohibiting speech that had a tendancy to incite or cause illegal activity

b)

limited to prohibiting prior restraint

c)

limiting the government as speaker

d)

Protecting speech that did not pose a clear and present danger

40.

Why was the pre-Schenck case on the Espionage Act (Baltzer v. United States (1918)) delayed and eventually dropped?

a)

The Court declared the case presented a political question

b)

The Court was too divided to reach a decision

c)

The Wilson wanted the first Espionage Act decision to be unanimous

d)

The Wilson Administration was concerned about intruding on states' rights

41.

The Yates decison in 1957 narrowed the interpretation of what law

a)

Criminal Anarchy Act

b)

Espionage Act

c)

Smith Act

d)

Sedition Act

42.

The law was passed by Congress during the WWI era, and was used to suppress dissent

a)

Espionage Act

b)

Smith Act

c)

Anti-Syndicalism Act

d)

Miler Act

43.

Which case incorprated the First Amendment's right to free speech

a)

Gitlow v. New York (1925)

b)

Debs v. United States (1919)

c)

Abrams v. United States (1919)

d)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

44.

Which case upheld the conviction of Communist leaders for advocating the overthrow of government?

a)

U.S. v. O'Brien (1968)

b)

Yates v. United States (1957)

c)

Dennis v. United States (1951)

d)

Stromberg v. California (1931)

45.

Which of the following is true?

a)

The Court began developing a jurisprudence on the First Amendment during the late 19th century

b)

Decisions about free speech were unanimous during the 1920s

c)

Holmes and Brandeis interpreted free speech guarantees as only limiting prior restraint

d)

Holmes' record on the Court shows both the import of his personal experience and his willingness to change his mind

46.

Which of the following is true

a)

The clear and present danger test is the standard for prohibiting speech that we use today

b)

Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr. generally upheld the exercise of police powers to limit speech

c)

The bad tendency test set a lower bar for criminalizing speech (makes it easier to prohibit speech) than the clear and present danger test

d)

Abrams v. United States (1919) incorporated the right to free speech

47.

Which of the following was the Court's forst real effort in crafting a free speech jurisprudence

a)

Robertson v. Baldwin (1897)

b)

Baltzer v. United States (1919)

c)

Schenck v. united States (1919)

d)

Gitlow v. New York (1925)

48.

In some decisions we've studied, convictions for speech, expression, actions are upheld; in other cases, they are overturned as violating the First Amendment.  Which two free speech cases had different outcomes?

a)

Terminiello v. Chicago (1949) and Feiner v. New York (1951)

b)

Gitlow v. New York (1925) and Dennis v. United States (1951)

c)

Schenck v. United States (1919) and Abrams v. United States (1919)

d)

Yates v. United States (1957) and Brandenburg v. Ohio (1969)

49.

Barron v. Baltmore (1833) was (in part) overturned by

a)

Palko v. Connecticut (1937)

b)

Chaplinsky v. New Hampshire (1942)

c)

Gitlow v. New York (1925)

d)

Schenck v. United States (1919)

50.

In Palko v. CT, Cardozo based his decision on

a)


the principle that all rights would be incorporated based on the due process clause

b)

the principle that only fundamental rights were protected by the Privileges or Immunities Clause

c)

the principle that all rights would be incorporated based on the Privileges or Immunities Clause

d)


the principle that only fundamental rights were protected by the Due Process Clause

51.

In Slaughter-House, the Court held that (PICK TWO)

a)


States were prohibited only from violating a handful of rights present in the main body of the Constitution

b)

The Privileges or Immunities Clause incorporated all the rights in the Bill of Rights to the states, protecting citizens

c)

Individuals were citizens of (separately) their national and their state governments

d)

The Due Process Clause selectively incorporated rights in the Bill of Rights to the states

e)

The Privileges or Immunities Clause incorporated all the rights in the Bill of Rights to the states, protecting everyone

52.

In which case did the Court decline to incorporate a right?

a)

Gitlow v. New York (1925) (free speech)

b)

McDonald v. Chicago (2010) (right to bear arms)

c)

Palko v. Connecticut (1937) (double jeopardy)

d)

Ramos v. Louisiana (2020) (unanimous juries)

53.

The protection of fundamental rights is a form of

a)

Procedural due process

b)

Inherent due process

c)

Substantive due process

d)

Fundamental due process

54.

In this case, the right to bear arms was extended to protect individuals from state action in

a)

Brandenburg v. Ohio

b)

McDonald v. Chicago

c)

Texas v. Johnson

d)

Gitlow v. New York

55.

What Supreme Court case ruled that Constitutional rights only applied to the federal government?

a)

Twining v. New Jersey

b)

CBQ RR v. City of Chicago

c)

Palko v. Connecticut

d)

Barron v. Baltimore

56.

Which case was the first clear-cut case of incorporation

a)

Palko v. Connecticut

b)

Slaughter- House

c)

Gitlow v. New York

d)

CBQ RR v. City of Chicago

57.

Which of  the following Justices is most associated with the argument that incorporation should be based on the Privileges or Immunities Clause?

a)

Justice Barrett

b)

Justice Thomas

c)

Cheif Justice Roberts

d)

Justice Sotomayor

58.

Which of the following clauses of the 14th Amendment did Slaughter-House interpret very, very narrowly by referring to dual or double citizenship?

a)

Due Process Clause

b)

Naturalization Clause

c)

Privileges or immunities Clause

d)

Equal Protection Clause

59.

Which of the following is true

a)

The privileges or immunities clause is used for selective incorporation

b)

The due process clause of the 14th Amendment operates only through the express rights in the first eight amendments

c)

Basing incorporation on the privileges or immunities clause would protect (only) citizens

d)

The due process clause of the 14th Amendment constrains both states and the federal government

60.

Which of the following rights has not been incorporated

a)

Prophylactic exclusionary rule

b)

First Amendment right to free speech

c)

First Amendment freedom of association (right to assemble)

d)

5th Amendment's grand jury protection

61.

Which right was most recently incorporated

a)

the 1st Amendment's right to free speech

b)

the 2nd Amendment's right to bear arms

c)

the 5th Amendment's grand jury protection

d)

the prophylactic unanimous jury requirement

62.

A "balancing test" refers to

a)

an unsigned opinion

b)

the practice in which each judge writes a separate opinion

c)

a rule that prevents or discourages law enforcement from violating a constitutional right

d)

a test in which the interests of government are weighed against the individual rights of citizens

e)

a rule specifying that a law or act is inherently unconstitutional

63.

Which casde upheld the conviction of Communist leaders for advocating the overthrow of government

a)

Stromberg v. California

b)

Dennis v. United States

c)

U.S. v. O'Brien

d)

Yates v. United States

64.

Which categories of speech are NOT categorically unprotected

a)

Fighting words or true threats

b)

defamation

c)

obscenity

d)

hate speech

65.

Which Justice began dissenting in free speech cases, holding a higher threshold for criminalization of speech, beginning with Abrams v. United States?

a)

Holmes

b)

Brennan

c)

Sutherland

d)

Frankfurter

66.

Which of the following did the court uphold

a)

The Disparagement Clause of the Lanham Act

b)

A law making flag-burning a crime

c)

Adecision by a school not to fund religious magazines

d)

A law making defacing or destroying a draft card a crime

67.

Which of the following is NOT true

a)

The Counterman test for “true threats” relies only on whether the average person would find the words threatening

b)

The Miller test relies primarily on community standards

c)

 If a university’s student activities fund supports atheist and non-religious magazines, it must support religious magazines

d)

A law prohibiting flying a red flag in advocacy of revolution was overturned as unconstitutionally vague

68.

Which of the following is NOT true

a)

The objective prong in a test often refers to the “reasonable person”

b)

b.

Pornography involving children can be criminalized

c)

The Court has ruled that a case is moot if the plaintiff is seeking only nominal damages, and the case has been otherwise resolved

d)

Networks / tv / radio stations can be fined by the FCC for fleeting expletives (even if the policy isn’t consistently enforced

69.

Which of the following is true of Miler v. California (Obscenity test)

a)


 The test broadly bans works that have “no redeeming social value”

b)

Under the test, works with serious literary value can be banned

c)

The test relies on community interests

d)

Under the test, works that do not describe or depict conduct banned by law can be banned

70.

Which of the following issues prompted the most serious attempt to amend the Constitution?

a)

Compelled Speech

b)

Campaign Fiance Reform

c)

Flag Burning

d)

Reciting the Pledge of Allegiance

71.

Which of the following would (currently) not be protected at public schools by the First Amendment?

a)

Non-disruptive symbolic speech as protest

b)

refusing to salute the flag

c)

 refusing to recite the Pledge of Allegiance

d)

a banner at a school event with the expression “Bong Hits 4 Jesus”

72.

which of the following would demand strict scrutiny

a)

government speech

b)

viewpoint discrimination by government

c)

regulations by private corporations on speech

d)

neutral regulations of the time, place, or manner of speech

73.

Which of the following would NOT be a public forum or limited public forum?

a)


a set of magazines funded by a University’s student activity fund

b)

Free Speech Alley

c)

a public sidewalk

d)

a polling place

74.

a law prohibiting burning a flag as protest is unconstitutional because it is viewpoint discrimination.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Facial challenges seek to have a law declared unconstitutional in only limited circumstances.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Government speech can be challenged for viewpoint discrimination.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Hate speech is unprotected speech under the First Amendment, even if it does not pose an imminent risk of lawless action.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Brandenburg v. Ohio

a)

Rejected the “imminent lawless action” test, opting for a “totality of the circumstances” approach

b)

Largely disregarded the clear and present danger test, establishing the new “imminent lawless action” test

c)

Rejected the "clear and present danger" test, relying on the "bad tendency" test

d)

Relied on the clear and present danger test.

79.

In 303 Creative LLC v. Elenis (2023) (wedding websites)


a)


The Court overturned part of a piece of campaign finance reform legislation

b)

 The Court overturned part of the Disparagement Clause of the Lanham Act

c)

 The Court ruled against government laws that compel speech or silence

d)

 The Court ruled against the criminalization of symbolic speech

80.

In a case involving viewpoint discrimination by government, the test or level of scrutiny or test applied by the Court is called

a)

strict scrutiny

b)

rational basis test

c)

maximum scrutiny

d)

intermediate scrutiny

81.

In Abrams v. United States, the Court’s majority opinion relied on the

a)

bad tendency test

b)

fighting words doctrine

c)

imminent lawless action test

d)

clear and present danger test

82.

In free speech cases, by the mid-20th century, in Abrams, Gitlow, etc., the majority of the Court was adopting

a)


a "bad tendency" test

b)

a two-pronged test involving a subjective prong and objective prong

c)

an imminent lawless action test

d)

a higher standard to criminalize speech than the “clear and present danger” test

83.

In Metal v. Tam (2017) (a case about Simon Tam and his band, The Slants, who sought to register the band’s name with the U.S. trademark office)

a)

The Court overturned part of a piece of campaign finance reform legislation

b)

The Court overturned part of the Disparagement Clause of the Lanham Act

c)

The Court ruled against the criminalization of symbolic speech

d)

The Court ruled against government compelling speech

84.

In NY Times v. Sullivan (1964)

a)


The Court held that public figures must prove the statement was made with actual malice or reckless disregard for the truth

b)

The Court held that the government couldn’t engage in prior restraint over the publication of a Dept of Defense study of the Vietnam War

c)

The Court incorporated the right to freedom of the press

d)

The Court held that obscenity is not a protected category of speech

85.

In Schenck

a)

Holmes wrote an impassioned dissent, arguing for a marketplace of ideas

b)

the Court incorporated the right to free speech

c)

the Court established the doctrine of clear and present danger

d)

 the opinion noted that some categories of speech—defamation, obscenity, fighting words—were not protected by the First Amendment.

86.

In Texas v. Johnson (1989)

a)

The Court overturned part of the Disparagement Clause of the Lanham Act

b)

The Court ruled against the criminalization of symbolic speech

c)

 The Court ruled against government compelling speech or silence

d)

The Court overturned part of a piece of campaign finance reform legislation

87.

In this case, the doctrine of "fighting words" was established

a)

Abrams v. United States

b)

Miler v. California

c)

Palko v. Connecticut

d)

Chaplinksy v. New Hampshire

88.

In viewpoint discrimination cases, government must show

a)


A compelling interest, and the law must be narrowly tailored to reach that interest

b)

 A compelling interest, and the law must be reasonably tailored to reach that interest

c)

An important interest, and the law must be reasonably tailored to reach that interest

d)

An important interest, and the law must be narrowly tailored to reach that interest

89.

In which case did the Supreme Court decline to overturn a law or policy criminalizing symbolic speech?

a)

Texas v. Johnson (1989)

b)

Miller v. California (1973)

c)

United States v. O’Brien (1968)

d)

Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)

90.

Milton’s 17th century pamphlet defending a marketplace of ideas was called

a)

Two Tracts on Government

b)

Areopagitica

c)

Considerations on Democracy

d)

Paradise Lost

e)

The Republican Defense

91.

On which of the following issues did the Court quickly reverse a prior ruling?

a)

campaign finance reform

b)

reciting the Pledge of Allegiance

c)

flag burning

d)

compelled speech

92.

Rosenburger v. United States involved

a)

fighting words

b)

campaign finance

c)

symbolic speech

d)

a public forum

93.

The Alien & Sedition Acts were targeted to shut down the publications of which political faction

a)

Jeffersonians

b)

Democrats

c)

Whigs

d)

Federalists

94.

The clear and present danger test was established inGitlow v. New York

a)

Gitlow v. New York

b)

Schenck v. United States

c)

Brandenburg v. Ohio

d)

Abrams v. United States

95.

The doctrine that some rights or freedoms have a privileged place in constitutional law (U.S. v. Carolene Products (1938)), leading to the doctrine of strict scrutiny, is called the _____________________  doctrine.

a)

protected liberties

b)

substantial interests

c)

preferred freedoms

d)

elevated right

96.

Which case is most associated with the notion that students’ rights are not left at the (public) schoolhouse door?

a)

Miller v. California

b)

Counterman v. Colorado

c)

Tinker v. Des Moines

d)

Texas v. Johnson