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Introduction to Protozoa

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines protozoa as described in the material?

a)

Multicellular parasites found only in blood

b)

Single-celled organisms that inhabit a wide variety of habitats

c)

Viruses that infect red blood cells exclusively

d)

Fungi that reproduce only sexually

2.

Approximately how many protozoa are known, and what proportion are parasitic according to the material?

a)

About 6,500 species; most are parasitic

b)

About 65,000 species; only a small part are parasitic

c)

About 650,000 species; none are parasitic

d)

About 65,000 species; all are parasitic

3.

Match each term to its correct description about parasitic protozoa.

a)

Sarcomastigophora

1.

One of the three primary phyla of parasitic protozoa

b)

Apicomplexa

2.

One of the three primary phyla of parasitic protozoa

c)

Ciliophora

3.

One of the three primary phyla of parasitic protozoa

4.

Hemoprotozoa typically infect which site, and what vector commonly transmits them between animals?

a)

Intestinal tract; mosquitoes

b)

Red blood cells; ticks

c)

Liver tissue; fleas

d)

Skin epithelium; mites

5.

According to the material, which statements about protozoan biology are correct? Choose the best answer.

a)

They always have complex life cycles and reproduce only sexually.

b)

Their life cycles can be simple or complex, and reproduction may be asexual or sexual.

c)

They never infect fecal material and only inhabit blood.

d)

They are multicellular organisms with only asexual reproduction.

6.

Which process is listed as a type of asexual reproduction in protozoa?

a)

Syngamy

b)

Conjugation

c)

Binary fission

d)

Meiosis

7.

Match each reproduction category with its associated processes.

a)

Asexual reproduction

1.

Binary fission, schizogony, budding

b)

Sexual reproduction

2.

Syngamy, conjugation

c)

Trophozoite

3.

Vegetative form: stage of feeding, movement, and reproduction

8.

In protozoa, the trophozoite stage is best described as which of the following?

a)

Dormant cyst form specialized for survival outside the host

b)

Vegetative form characterized by feeding, movement, and reproduction

c)

A specialized sexual stage used only for identification and not reproduction

d)

Embryonic form prior to any cellular activity

9.

Which statement about sexual stages in protozoa aligns with the material?

a)

Sexual stages are absent in protozoa

b)

Sexual stages include syngamy and conjugation and can aid identification

c)

Sexual stages only occur during trophozoite feeding

d)

Sexual stages are identical to schizogony

10.

Which locomotor organelle in protozoa is described as a long whiplike structure?

a)

Cilia

b)

Flagella

c)

Pseudopodia

d)

Undulatory ridges

11.

Cilia in protozoa are best characterized as:

a)

Temporary extensions and retractions of the body wall

b)

Short flagella arranged in rows or tufts

c)

Small snakelike waves in the cell membrane moving posteriorly

d)

A dormant protective stage

12.

Match each locomotor structure with its description.

a)

Pseudopodia

1.

Temporary extensions and retractions of the body wall

b)

Undulatory ridges

2.

Small snakelike waves that form in the cell membrane and move posteriorly

c)

Flagella

3.

Long whiplike structure

13.

Why are locomotor organelles useful in protozoan studies?

a)

They determine the cyst’s pH tolerance.

b)

They are used to help identify the type of protozoa.

c)

They reveal oxygen tension in the environment.

d)

They indicate overcrowding conditions.

14.

Which statement about the trophozoite stage is accurate?

a)

It is the primary infective form transmitted between hosts.

b)

It is often too fragile to survive transfer to a new host and usually is not infective.

c)

It resists desiccation due to a thick wall.

d)

It forms under low pH and overcrowding.

15.

Transmission of many protozoa to a new host occurs primarily in which stage?

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Zygote

c)

Cyst

d)

Gamete

16.

Select the best explanation for how the cyst stage enhances survival.

a)

It increases metabolic rate to generate heat.

b)

Metabolic functions are suspended, which prevents desiccation.

c)

It produces longer flagella for swimming away from danger.

d)

It elevates oxygen tension inside the cell.

17.

Under which conditions is a protozoan most likely to form a cyst?

a)

Abundant nutrients and neutral pH

b)

High oxygen tension and plentiful water

c)

Lack of nutrients, low oxygen tension, lack of water, low pH, and accumulations of waste or overcrowding

d)

Presence of numerous cilia and flagella

18.

Within Phylum Sarcomastigophora, which statement best distinguishes amoebas from flagellates?

a)

Amoebas move via pseudopods, while flagellates have one or more flagella in the trophozoite stage.

b)

Amoebas are always parasitic, while flagellates are never parasitic.

c)

Flagellates have both trophozoite and cyst stages, while amoebas do not.

d)

Amoebas reproduce only sexually, while flagellates reproduce only asexually.

19.

Approximately how many known species in Phylum Sarcomastigophora are parasitic?

a)

230

b)

2,300

c)

23,000

d)

44,000

20.

Match each group within Sarcomastigophora to its characteristic.

a)

Amoebas

1.

Move via pseudopods and have trophozoite and cyst stages

b)

Flagellates

2.

One or more flagella in the trophozoite stage

c)

Phylum total

3.

44,000 known species—2,300 are parasitic

21.

Which life stages are noted for amoebas in Sarcomastigophora?

a)

Only trophozoite

b)

Only cyst

c)

Both trophozoite and cyst

d)

Neither trophozoite nor cyst

22.

Giardia is best described as which type of organism commonly recovered from the feces of dogs and cats?

a)

Cestode

b)

Flagellated protozoan

c)

Fungus

d)

Gram-positive bacterium

23.

Which statement accurately characterizes the Giardia trophozoite?

a)

Round and nonmotile with a thick wall

b)

Pear shaped, dorsoventrally flattened with four pairs of flagella and two nuclei that resemble a pair of eyes

c)

Oval with a single nucleus and no flagella

d)

Spindle shaped with cilia and three nuclei

24.
Question Image

Match each Giardia form to its description.

a)

Trophozoite

1.

Motile feeding stage; pear shaped and dorsoventrally flattened with four pairs of flagella

b)

Cyst

2.

Resistant stage; oval

c)

Trophozoite nuclei

3.

Resemble a pair of eyes

25.

According to the depicted life cycle, what is the correct sequence immediately after Giardia cysts are ingested by a host?

a)

Cysts pass unaltered in feces

b)

Parasite excysts into trophozoite form in intestines

c)

Cysts multiply in the bloodstream

d)

Cysts encyst on skin surfaces

26.

In the Giardia life cycle image, which event leads to environmental contamination and potential transmission?

a)

Trophozoites encyst on fur and hair

b)

Cysts passed in feces enter water or contaminated ground

c)

Transplacental passage of trophozoites

d)

Aerosolization of cysts from respiratory tract

27.

Which diagnostic method is noted as standard for Giardia and specifies a particular flotation medium?

a)

Direct smear with methylene blue

b)

Standard fecal flotation—zinc sulfate

c)

Baermann technique with saturated sugar

d)

Acid-fast staining of sputum

28.

During routine fecal flotation for Giardia, what limitation is highlighted regarding cyst morphology?

a)

Cysts are always perfectly spherical

b)

Cysts are often distorted

c)

Cysts cannot be stained

d)

Cysts fluoresce without reagents

29.

Which statement about detecting motile trophozoites in feces is accurate?

a)

They are commonly found in old preserved samples using hypertonic saline

b)

They are occasionally found in a direct smear of fresh feces with isotonic saline, sometimes using Lugol stain

c)

They are best visualized only after acid-fast staining

d)

They are reliably detected only by culture

30.

Which test modality is commonly used for Giardia detection in feces besides microscopy-based methods?

a)

Serum electrolyte panel

b)

Fecal immunodiagnostic tests

c)

Skin scraping for mites

d)

Urinalysis with sediment exam

31.

Which host species are specifically noted for infection by Trypanosoma cruzi?

a)

Humans and dogs

b)

Cats and cattle

c)

Birds and reptiles

d)

Fish and amphibians

32.

In blood smears, Trypanosoma cruzi is described as which of the following?

a)

Intracellular parasite residing in RBCs

b)

Extracellular organism that swims

c)

Obligate intracellular bacterium

d)

Free-living protozoan that does not move

33.

Match the morphologic term with its description for Trypanosoma cruzi.

a)

Trypomastigote

1.

Swimming stage in blood

b)

Amastigote

2.

Cyst stage found in tissues such as cardiac muscle

c)

Undulating membrane

3.

Lateral wave-like membrane associated with flagellum

34.

What is the relative size of Trypanosoma cruzi compared to red blood cells (RBCs)?

a)

Same length as RBCs

b)

1 to 2 times as long as RBCs

c)

3 to 10 times as long as RBCs

d)

Longer than 20 times RBC length

35.

Which shape best characterizes the trypomastigote form of Trypanosoma cruzi shown in the micrograph (curved organism among RBCs)?

a)

Spherical

b)

Banana shaped

c)

Rod-shaped with rigid edges

d)

Filamentous without curvature

36.

Which statement best describes Leishmania?

a)

A bacterium transmitted by ticks

b)

A hemoprotozoan that infects several mammals

c)

A helminth restricted to humans

d)

A virus carried by mosquitoes

37.

Leishmania is transmitted primarily by flies of which genera?

a)

Anopheles and Culex

b)

Glossina and Aedes

c)

Phlebotomus and Lutzomyia

d)

Simulium and Chrysops

38.

Match each form of leishmaniasis to its characteristic or causative species.

a)

Mucocutaneous form

1.

Characterized by skin sores

b)

Visceral form

2.

Affects internal organs such as spleen, liver, and bone marrow

c)

Leishmania braziliensis

3.

Associated with mucocutaneous disease

d)

Leishmania donovani/infantum

4.

Associated with visceral disease

39.

Which internal organs are specifically mentioned as affected in visceral leishmaniasis?

a)

Heart and lungs

b)

Spleen, liver, and bone marrow

c)

Kidneys and pancreas

d)

Stomach and intestines

40.

Which species is linked to mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

a)

Leishmania donovani

b)

Leishmania infantum

c)

Leishmania braziliensis

d)

Leishmania major

41.

Which description best characterizes trichomonads as presented?

a)

Round organisms with multiple flagella on the ventral surface

b)

Long, slender organisms with a single flagellum attached dorsally forming a sail-like structure

c)

Ciliated parasites that lack flagella and move by gliding

d)

Short, oval organisms with two anterior flagella only

42.

Tritrichomonas foetus primarily inhabits which locations in cattle?

a)

Rumen and reticulum of cows

b)

Prepuce of bulls and the vagina, cervix, and uterus of cows

c)

Small intestine of calves

d)

Liver and gallbladder of bulls

43.

Which clinical outcome is associated with Tritrichomonas foetus infection in cattle?

a)

Ulcerations of the proventriculus

b)

Infertility, spontaneous abortions, and pyometra

c)

Neurologic signs and head tilt

d)

Severe diarrhea and dehydration

44.

What is the recommended diagnostic approach for Tritrichomonas foetus in cattle according to the material?

a)

PCR on whole blood

b)

Histopathology of liver biopsies

c)

Identification of motile trophozoites in the supernatant of washings from vagina or prepuce

d)

Fecal flotation for cysts

45.

Match each trichomonad species to its key host or site, major lesion, transmission, and diagnostic method.

a)

Tritrichomonas foetus—host/site

1.

Reproductive tract of cattle (prepuce of bulls; vagina, cervix, uterus of cows)

b)

Trichomonas gallinae—lesion

2.

Ulcerations of esophagus, crop, and proventriculus

c)

Trichomonas gallinae—transmission

3.

Through drinking water

d)

Trichomonas gallinae—diagnosis

4.

Direct saline smear of crop contents, air dried and stained with Wright stain

46.

In birds such as pigeons and doves, Trichomonas gallinae is typically found in which sample?

a)

Crop washings

b)

Cloacal swab

c)

Liver aspirate

d)

Nasal discharge

47.

Which combination correctly summarizes Trichomonas gallinae features?

a)

Ruminant parasite; causes abortions; diagnosed by reproductive tract washings

b)

Avian parasite; transmitted in drinking water; causes ulcerations of esophagus, crop, and proventriculus; diagnosed by direct saline smear of crop contents stained with Wright stain

c)

Canine intestinal parasite; causes diarrhea; diagnosed by fecal ELISA

d)

Equine respiratory parasite; spread by aerosols; diagnosed by tracheal wash cytology

48.

Which statement best describes how Histomonas meleagridis is transmitted among avian hosts?

a)

Direct contact between adult birds

b)

Ingestion of the ova of the nematode transport host

c)

Airborne droplets from infected flocks

d)

Mosquito bites acting as vectors

49.

Match each term with its correct description related to Histomonas meleagridis.

a)

Histomonas meleagridis

1.

Avian parasite affecting turkeys, chickens, pheasants

b)

Nematode transport host

2.

Carrier whose ova, when ingested by birds, transmit the parasite

c)

Blackhead

3.

Common name for the fatal liver disease in turkeys caused by the parasite

d)

Infectious enterohepatitis

4.

Formal name for the fatal liver disease in turkeys caused by the parasite

50.

Which group of animals is primarily infected by Histomonas meleagridis according to the material?

a)

Ruminants such as cattle and sheep

b)

Companion mammals such as dogs and cats

c)

Avians including turkeys, chickens, and pheasants

d)

Reptiles such as snakes and lizards

51.

In turkeys, Histomonas meleagridis causes a fatal liver disease known by two names. Which pair correctly lists these synonyms?

a)

Marek's disease and Newcastle disease

b)

Blackhead and infectious enterohepatitis

c)

Coccidiosis and histoplasmosis

d)

Avian influenza and fowl cholera

52.

Which statement best describes Entamoeba histolytica according to the material?

a)

A parasite primarily of dogs

b)

A primarily human parasite found in tropical regions

c)

A bacterium affecting swine

d)

A virus common in sheep

53.

Match each animal with the note given in the material about Entamoeba histolytica findings.

a)

Cattle

1.

Found in fecal flotations of healthy individuals

b)

Sheep

2.

Found in fecal flotations

c)

Goats

3.

Found in fecal flotations

54.

In the context provided, what is the general clinical significance of Entamoeba histolytica in the listed domestic animals?

a)

It often causes severe systemic disease

b)

Generally no clinical significance

c)

Always results in neurological symptoms

d)

Requires immediate culling

55.

According to the material, what condition may Entamoeba histolytica cause in dogs?

a)

Respiratory distress

b)

Acute or chronic diarrhea

c)

Kidney failure

d)

Dermatitis

56.

Which statement best characterizes sporozoans within Phylum Apicomplexa?

a)

They include both free-living and parasitic species.

b)

They consist of about 4600 species and all are parasitic.

c)

They are primarily photosynthetic protists.

d)

They have a diploid life cycle throughout.

57.

In Apicomplexa, what is the unique characteristic of their life cycle?

a)

Entire life cycle is diploid except for gametes.

b)

Entire life cycle is haploid except for the zygote.

c)

Alternation between haploid and diploid generations with equal duration.

d)

Only juvenile stages are haploid.

58.

Match each term with its correct description.

a)

Oocyst

1.

Name given to the cyst stage

b)

Sporozoans

2.

Members of Apicomplexa; all are parasitic

c)

Zygote

3.

Only diploid stage in the life cycle

59.

In the context of Apicomplexa, which term specifically refers to the cyst stage?

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Oocyst

c)

Gamont

d)

Merozoite

60.

Which of the following genera are noted for veterinary importance within Apicomplexa? Select the best answer.

a)

Drosophila, Escherichia, Bacillus

b)

Cystoisospora, Toxoplasma, Cryptosporidium

c)

Amoeba, Paramecium, Volvox

d)

Candida, Aspergillus, Penicillium

61.

Which list contains only Apicomplexan genera of veterinary importance mentioned in the material?

a)

Plasmodium, Babesia, Eimeria

b)

Giardia, Trichomonas, Entamoeba

c)

Trypanosoma, Leishmania, Naegleria

d)

Helicobacter, Vibrio, Salmonella

62.

In the Apicomplexa life cycle described, what typically initiates host infection?

a)

Penetration by merozoites through skin

b)

Ingestion of cysts by the host

c)

Inhalation of sporozoites

d)

Direct transmission of gamonts via saliva

63.

Which stage enters the host’s cells after cysts divide?

a)

Gamonts

b)

Sporozoites

c)

Merozoites

d)

Oocysts

64.

Match each life cycle stage with its described action.

a)

Sporozoites

1.

Enter intestinal epithelium and other cells, then asexually reproduce

b)

Merozoites

2.

Infect new host cells and can enter new cells; released when infected cells burst

c)

Gamonts

3.

Form gametes that fuse to create new cysts

d)

Oocysts/cysts

4.

Infective stage passed in feces; ingested by new host

65.

According to the diagram and description, what happens when infected host cells burst?

a)

Gametes are released and immediately fuse

b)

Merozoites are released and infect new cells

c)

Sporozoites exit and invade blood vessels

d)

Oocysts are expelled directly from the skin

66.

Which statement best describes the role of gamonts in the Apicomplexa life cycle?

a)

They are the infective stage found in the environment

b)

They divide to form sporozoites

c)

They form gametes that fuse to create new cysts

d)

They asexually reproduce to become merozoites

67.

In the depicted host range, which animals are shown as hosts for Cystoisospora species?

a)

Dog, cat, pig

b)

Human, cow, chicken

c)

Mouse, rabbit, horse

d)

Goat, sheep, llama

68.

Sequence the following events in the Apicomplexa life cycle by selecting the option that lists them in correct order: A) Cysts are ingested, B) Sporozoites enter host cells, C) Cells burst releasing merozoites, D) Gamonts produce gametes that fuse to form new cysts.

a)

B → A → C → D

b)

A → B → C → D

c)

A → C → B → D

d)

B → C → A → D

69.

Which statement best describes Cystoisospora in small animals?

a)

A helminth that infects the large intestine of livestock

b)

A protozoal parasite of the small intestine of dogs and cats

c)

A bacterial pathogen of the urinary tract in cats

d)

A fungal pathogen causing skin lesions in puppies

70.

In cases of coccidiosis due to Cystoisospora, which clinical sign is most characteristic?

a)

Hematemesis

b)

Loose stool to watery diarrhea

c)

Constipation

d)

Neurologic tremors

71.

Coccidiosis from Cystoisospora is most commonly diagnosed in which patient group?

a)

Adult dogs and cats

b)

Senior dogs only

c)

Puppies and kittens

d)

Wild canids only

72.

During fecal flotation for suspected Cystoisospora infection, which stage confirms the diagnosis?

a)

Tachyzoite

b)

Cyst

c)

Trophozoite

d)

Oocyst

73.

Match each statement about coccidiosis with the correct completion.

a)

Common patient population

1.

Puppies and kittens

b)

Typical impact on adult animals

2.

Rarely a problem

c)

Diagnostic stage in fecal flotation

3.

Oocyst

74.

Which statement best describes Toxoplasma gondii in relation to its definitive host?

a)

It is a bacterial pathogen of dogs

b)

It is an intestinal coccidian of cats

c)

It is a viral parasite of birds

d)

It is a fungal organism of cattle

75.

For how long do cats typically shed Toxoplasma gondii oocysts over their entire lifespan?

a)

Continuously throughout life

b)

Only for less than 2 weeks

c)

Exactly one month

d)

Only during kittenhood for 6 months

76.

Which diagnostic methods are noted for identifying Toxoplasma gondii in cats?

a)

Urinalysis and culture

b)

Fecal flotation and immunodiagnostic tests

c)

Blood smear and PCR only

d)

Skin scraping and microscopy

77.

Which population is specifically highlighted as being at risk from Toxoplasma exposure via litter boxes?

a)

Healthy adults

b)

Pregnant women

c)

Toddlers

d)

Elderly men

78.

What is the most common route by which humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii?

a)

Mosquito bites

b)

Drinking untreated water

c)

Consuming undercooked meat

d)

Person-to-person contact

79.

Which statement about treatment for Toxoplasma in cats is accurate?

a)

A single vaccine provides lifelong cure

b)

There is no cure; clinical signs are managed with antibiotics and steroid therapy

c)

Immediate surgery is required

d)

Herbal remedies eliminate the parasite

80.

Match each term to its correct description related to Toxoplasma gondii.

a)

Definitive host

1.

Cats as the intestinal coccidian host

b)

Oocyst shedding duration

2.

Less than 2 weeks over a cat’s life

c)

Primary human infection source

3.

Undercooked meat

81.

According to the material, how does Toxoplasma gondii generally affect healthy humans?

a)

It is highly lethal

b)

It is not harmful to healthy humans

c)

It always causes chronic neurological disease

d)

It invariably leads to hospitalization