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Pasteurellosis - "Snuffles"

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which organism causes Pasteurellosis (commonly called "snuffles") in rabbits?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Pasteurella multocida

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Bordetella bronchiseptica

2.

Pasteurella multocida is best described as which of the following?

a)

Gram-positive bacillus

b)

Gram-negative coccobacillus

c)

Anaerobic spirochete

d)

Gram-negative diplococcus

3.

What is noted about rabbits’ clinical status regarding Pasteurella multocida?

a)

They always show severe symptoms immediately.

b)

They may be asymptomatic and harbor the organism in the upper respiratory tract.

c)

They only develop gastrointestinal signs.

d)

They cannot carry the organism without fever.

4.

Which statement about disease spread in Pasteurellosis is accurate?

a)

It remains confined to the nares.

b)

It can spread to multiple locations and cause a variety of disease syndromes.

c)

It only affects the skin.

d)

It is limited to ocular tissues.

5.

The upper respiratory form of Pasteurellosis in rabbits is commonly referred to as what?

a)

Otitis

b)

Snuffles

c)

Mange

d)

Myxomatosis

6.

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of snuffles?

a)

Hematuria

b)

Sneezing with serous to mucopurulent nasal discharge

c)

Lameness

d)

Neurologic tremors

7.

A rabbit wipes nasal discharge with its forelimbs. What secondary evidence would you expect to find?

a)

Staining and discharge residue on the feet

b)

Hair loss on the tail

c)

Ulcers on the ears

d)

Bruising on the abdomen

8.

What serious complication can develop from chronic snuffles?

a)

Renal failure

b)

Fatal septicemia

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Hepatic lipidosis

9.

Beyond upper respiratory signs, infections with Pasteurella multocida may also present as which of the following?

a)

Conjunctivitis, bronchopneumonia, pyometra, and orchitis

b)

Dermatitis and otitis externa only

c)

Gingivitis and stomatitis exclusively

d)

Arthritis and osteoporosis

10.

How is Pasteurellosis primarily transmitted among rabbits?

a)

Vector-borne via fleas

b)

Direct contact or aerosol contamination

c)

Fecal-oral transmission only

d)

Vertical transmission exclusively

11.

Which management action is recommended for animals affected by Pasteurellosis in a colony?

a)

Increase group housing to enhance immunity

b)

Quarantine or remove affected animals from the colony

c)

Provide high-sugar diets

d)

Stop all antibiotic use universally

12.

Which antibiotics are noted as potentially helpful for Pasteurellosis treatment?

a)

Penicillin

1.

Listed as helpful in therapy

b)

Chloramphenicol

2.

Listed as helpful in therapy

c)

Enrofloxacin

3.

Listed as helpful in therapy

13.

What risk is associated with prolonged antibiotic use in rabbits treated for Pasteurellosis?

a)

Renal calculi

b)

Fatal diarrhea

c)

Photosensitivity

d)

Anaphylaxis in all cases

14.

Which statement best characterizes outcomes of antibiotic therapy for Pasteurellosis?

a)

It reliably eradicates the organism with no recurrence.

b)

It produces remission, but reinfection is common.

c)

It is ineffective and never used.

d)

It always leads to resistance within 24 hours.

15.

Identify the set of features most consistent with snuffles in the image described as a rabbit with crusting around the nares and muzzle.

a)

Dry nares, normal grooming, no discharge

b)

Serous to mucopurulent nasal discharge, sneezing, discharge residue on forefeet

c)

Oral ulceration without nasal signs

d)

Purely ocular lesions with clear corneas

16.

In young rabbits, Mucoid Enteropathy is primarily of concern at what age range?

a)

1 to 3 weeks old

b)

7 to 10 weeks old

c)

12 to 16 weeks old

d)

Adult rabbits only

17.

Which clinical sign combination best characterizes Mucoid Enteropathy in young rabbits?

a)

Dry coat, hyperthermia, and increased appetite

b)

Constipation with mucous hypersecretion leading to profuse watery diarrhea, hypothermia, lethargy, depression, and a rough hair coat

c)

Constipation with no mucus, fever, and shiny hair coat

d)

Profuse bloody diarrhea with hyperthermia and pruritus

18.

What gastrointestinal condition highlighted in the material is directly associated with Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Gastric ulcers

b)

Colon impaction (constipation)

c)

Small intestinal volvulus

d)

Pancreatitis

19.

According to the material, what is commonly found in the stomach and proximal small intestine during Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Solid feed material throughout

b)

Distension with fluids and gas; duodenum and jejunum filled with watery bile-stained contents

c)

Normal gas and fluid balance

d)

Blood clots in the jejunum

20.

Which infectious agents are noted as potential causes of Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus and Mycoplasma pulmonis

b)

E. coli and Clostridium spiroforme

c)

Pasteurella multocida and Bordetella bronchiseptica

d)

Rotavirus and Norovirus

21.

What is stated about the transmission mechanisms of Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

They are well established and primarily airborne.

b)

They are unclear.

c)

They are strictly fecal–oral.

d)

They are vector-borne via insects.

22.

Which statement aligns with the role of normal flora in Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Causative agents are never part of normal flora.

b)

Causative agents may be part of the normal flora, usually present in small numbers.

c)

Normal flora always prevents Mucoid Enteropathy.

d)

Normal flora becomes pathogenic only after vaccination.

23.

Antibiotic-induced enterotoxemia associated with Mucoid Enteropathy is especially linked to which administered drugs?

a)

Amoxicillin, doxycycline, and metronidazole

b)

Lincomycin, clindamycin, or erythromycin

c)

Penicillin G, cefazolin, and azithromycin

d)

Enrofloxacin, gentamicin, and trimethoprim-sulfa

24.

Mucoid Enteropathy can occur alongside which other conditions? Select the best answer.

a)

Otitis media and dental malocclusion

b)

Tyzzer's disease, salmonellosis, or coccidiosis

c)

Dermatophytosis and ectoparasitism

d)

Listeriosis and brucellosis

25.

Which dietary strategy is thought to offer protection against Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

High-fat diets

b)

High-protein diets

c)

Higher-fiber diets

d)

Low-carbohydrate diets

26.

What is the typical treatment outcome for rabbits infected with Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Usually successful with rapid recovery

b)

Requires surgery but has excellent prognosis

c)

Not usually successful, and infected animals often die

d)

Always resolves spontaneously without treatment

27.

Match each feature of Mucoid Enteropathy to its correct category.

a)

Age primarily affected

1.

7 to 10 weeks old

b)

Key gastrointestinal finding

2.

Colon impaction (constipation) with mucous hypersecretion

c)

Potential bacterial causes

3.

E. coli or Clostridium spiroforme

d)

Antibiotics linked to enterotoxemia

4.

Lincomycin, clindamycin, or erythromycin

28.

Which sign is NOT listed as associated with Mucoid Enteropathy?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Lethargy

c)

Rough hair coat

d)

Polyuria

29.

Which statement best summarizes the causation of Mucoid Enteropathy according to the material?

a)

It has a single known viral cause.

b)

It is caused by a number of infectious entities and may involve normal flora.

c)

It is purely nutritional with no infectious component.

d)

It results only from parasitic infection.

30.

Which description best differentiates the stomach and small intestine contents noted in affected rabbits?

a)

Stomach and small intestine are empty of contents.

b)

Stomach distended with fluids and gas; duodenum/jejunum have watery bile-stained contents.

c)

Only the colon is distended with gas.

d)

Jejunum contains solid impacted feed while stomach is normal.

31.

Which pathogen causes Listeriosis in rabbits and is classified as zoonotic?

a)

Pasteurella multocida

b)

Listeria monocytogenes

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Mycobacterium bovis

32.

Listeriosis in rabbits is most often observed in which group during which physiologic stage?

a)

Bucks during puberty

b)

Does in the late stages of pregnancy

c)

Juveniles during weaning

d)

Elderly rabbits during senescence

33.

Which statement best characterizes the clinical course of Listeriosis in rabbits?

a)

Chronic respiratory signs progressing over months

b)

Sudden death or abortion

c)

Primarily dermatologic lesions with pruritus

d)

Neurologic deficits with gradual recovery

34.

Match each organ with Listeriosis pathophysiology in rabbits. Pair the organ commonly affected with the mode of spread described.

a)

Liver

1.

Hematogenous dissemination

b)

Spleen

2.

Hematogenous dissemination

c)

Gravid uterus

3.

Hematogenous dissemination

35.

Which set lists common clinical signs of Listeriosis in rabbits?

a)

Anorexia, depression, and weight loss

b)

Coughing, nasal discharge, and dyspnea

c)

Pruritus, alopecia, and scaling

d)

Lameness, joint swelling, and fever

36.

What is the typical management approach for Listeriosis in rabbits according to the material?

a)

Aggressive antibiotic therapy is standard

b)

Immediate surgical intervention

c)

Supportive care followed by vaccination

d)

Not usually treated

37.

Which statement about transmission in Listeriosis among rabbits is correct based on the material?

a)

It spreads via direct nerve invasion to the brain

b)

It spreads by the bloodstream to specific organs

c)

It spreads only through inhalation of aerosols

d)

It is limited to fecal-oral transmission

38.

Which bacterium is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease in laboratory animals?

a)

Bacillus piliformis (Clostridium piliforme)

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Salmonella enterica

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

39.

Tyzzer's disease bacteria are best described as which combination of characteristics?

a)

Gram-negative, spore-forming, flagellated

b)

Gram-positive, non-spore-forming, non-motile

c)

Gram-negative, non-spore-forming, non-flagellated

d)

Gram-positive, spore-forming, flagellated

40.

Definitive diagnosis of Tyzzer's disease requires which procedure?

a)

Serologic titers

b)

Histologic examination of tissues

c)

PCR of fecal samples

d)

Culture from nasal swabs

41.

Which set of conditions predisposes animals to Tyzzer's disease?

a)

High-quality sanitation and low stress

b)

Poor sanitation, stress, and overcrowding

c)

Isolation and enriched environment

d)

Frequent exercise and clean water

42.

Clinical signs of Tyzzer's disease commonly include which combination?

a)

Coughing, sneezing, and ocular discharge

b)

Diarrhea, dehydration, and anorexia

c)

Lameness, swelling, and fever

d)

Pruritus, alopecia, and dermatitis

43.

Which treatment approach is noted for infected animals with Tyzzer's disease?

a)

Topical antiseptics applied daily for 2 days

b)

Tetracycline compounds added to drinking water for 4 to 5 days

c)

High-dose penicillin injections for 10 days

d)

Vitamin supplementation for 1 week

44.

Why is Tyzzer's disease difficult to eradicate from an animal facility?

a)

Asymptomatic carriers are rare

b)

The bacterium lacks a spore form

c)

Ongoing presence of resistant spores

d)

It is only transmitted by direct contact

45.

Match each item with its correct association for Tyzzer's disease.

a)

Predisposing factor

1.

Poor sanitation, stress, overcrowding

b)

Definitive diagnosis

2.

Histologic examination of tissues

c)

Treatment duration

3.

Tetracycline in drinking water for 4–5 days

46.

In laboratory animal populations, Tyzzer's disease affects which scope of species?

a)

Only rodents

b)

Only rabbits

c)

All species of laboratory animals

d)

Primarily carnivores

47.

Which naming synonym is correctly paired with the causative organism of Tyzzer's disease?

a)

Bacillus piliformis is synonymous with Clostridium piliforme

b)

Escherichia coli is synonymous with Salmonella enterica

c)

Staphylococcus aureus is synonymous with Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Clostridium difficile is synonymous with Bacillus anthracis

48.

In commercial rabbit-breeding facilities, mastitis is described as which of the following regarding its frequency of occurrence?

a)

Very common across most settings

b)

Not common except in colonies maintained in commercial facilities

c)

Equally common in wild and domestic rabbits

d)

Common only in males

49.

Which factor contributes to the incidence and spread of mastitis in rabbit colonies?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

Poor sanitation

c)

Excessive exercise

d)

Genetic uniformity

50.

What severe systemic outcome may develop from mastitis and is usually fatal?

a)

Enteritis

b)

Generalized septicemia

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Dermatitis

51.

Among the bacterial agents implicated in mastitis in rabbits, which is most commonly isolated as the causative agent?

a)

Escherichia coli

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Pseudomonas

52.

Match each item related to mastitis in rabbits with its correct description.

a)

Staphylococcus

1.

Most commonly isolated causative agent

b)

Poor sanitation

2.

Contributes to incidence and spread

c)

Generalized septicemia

3.

Usually fatal outcome that may develop

53.

Infected does with mastitis typically exhibit which combination of clinical signs?

a)

Polyphagia and hypothermia

b)

Anorexia and fever

c)

Diarrhea and dehydration only

d)

Sneezing and coughing

54.

Which route of administration is indicated for antibiotics in treating mastitis in rabbits?

a)

Oral only

b)

Topical application

c)

Parenteral administration

d)

Inhalational therapy

55.

Which antibiotic classes are noted as potentially helpful for mastitis management in rabbits?

a)

Macrolides and sulfonamides

b)

Penicillin, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, tetracyclines

c)

Rifamycins and nitroimidazoles

d)

Fluoroquinolones only

56.

What gastrointestinal adverse effect can result from antibiotic therapy in rabbits with mastitis due to microbial imbalance?

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Ulceration

d)

Bloating

57.

Which dietary strategy is indicated to minimize the possibility of diarrhea in rabbits receiving antibiotics for mastitis?

a)

High-protein diet

b)

High-fat diet

c)

High-fiber diet

d)

Low-carbohydrate diet

58.

Which organism causes treponematosis (also called vent disease or spirochetosis) in rabbits?

a)

Treponema cuniculi

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Pasteurella multocida

59.

Treponematosis is transmitted in rabbits primarily through which routes?

a)

Venereally and transplacentally

b)

Airborne droplets only

c)

Fecal-oral route only

d)

Vector-borne via ticks

60.

Which diagnostic approach provides definitive confirmation of treponematosis?

a)

Observation of the spirochete by darkfield microscopy or serologic testing combined with clinical signs

b)

Routine fecal flotation

c)

Chest radiography

d)

Skin allergy testing

61.

What is the recommended treatment regimen for infected rabbits with treponematosis?

a)

Penicillin by parenteral injection once a week for 3 weeks

b)

Single oral dose of tetracycline

c)

Topical antifungal cream for 5 days

d)

No treatment; disease is self-limiting

62.

Match each term with its correct description.

a)

Vent disease

1.

Another name for treponematosis

b)

Spirochetosis

2.

A disease characterized by infection with spiral-shaped bacteria

c)

Treponema cuniculi

3.

The spirochete that causes treponematosis

d)

Darkfield microscopy

4.

A technique used to visualize spirochetes for diagnosis

63.

Which supportive measures may be needed to avoid potential complications of antibiotic therapy in rabbits treated for treponematosis?

a)

High-fiber diet and administration of antidiarrheals

b)

Fluid restriction and bed rest

c)

Vitamin C megadoses

d)

Prolonged fasting

64.

Which statement best summarizes treponematosis in rabbits?

a)

It is a venereally and transplacentally transmitted disease caused by Treponema cuniculi, diagnosed via clinical signs plus darkfield microscopy or serology, and treated with penicillin weekly for 3 weeks.

b)

It is a fungal skin disease spread by airborne spores, diagnosed by culture, and treated with topical antifungals.

c)

It is a viral respiratory infection spread by droplets, diagnosed by PCR, and treated with antivirals.

d)

It is a nutritional deficiency diagnosed by blood vitamins and treated with supplements.

65.

According to the overview, which statement best describes the routine presence of rabbit viral diseases in the United States?

a)

They are commonly found across regions.

b)

They are not routinely found.

c)

They are exclusively found in laboratory colonies.

d)

They are only found in wild populations during winter.

66.

Which of the following is listed among the viral diseases of rabbits in the material?

a)

Bacterial pneumonia

b)

Myxomatosis

c)

Fungal dermatitis

d)

Parasitic coccidiosis

67.

Match each term with its correct category based on the content.

a)

Infectious fibromas

1.

Viral diseases of rabbits

b)

Papillomatosis

2.

Viral diseases of rabbits

c)

Rabbit pox

3.

Viral diseases of rabbits

d)

Herpesvirus III infections

4.

Viral diseases of rabbits

68.

Which combination correctly lists types of papilloma virus mentioned for rabbits?

a)

Respiratory and gastrointestinal papilloma virus

b)

Oral papilloma virus and cutaneous papilloma virus

c)

Neurologic papilloma virus and ocular papilloma virus

d)

Hepatic papilloma virus and renal papilloma virus

69.

Which disease from the list is specifically identified as an infectious enteritis caused by a rotavirus?

a)

Herpesvirus III infection

b)

Infectious rotaviral enteritis

c)

Papillomatosis

d)

Rabbit pox

70.

Which rotavirus type is identified in clinically normal rabbits, with infections generally self-limiting?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

71.

What is the primary transmission route for rotavirus infection in rabbits?

a)

Aerosol inhalation

b)

Fecal-oral route

c)

Vector-borne via fleas

d)

Vertical (in utero)

72.

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of rotavirus infection in young rabbits?

a)

Neurologic tremors

b)

Severe watery diarrhea

c)

Hematuria

d)

Skin lesions

73.

Mortality associated with rotavirus can reach approximately what level in rabbits younger than 6 months?

a)

20%

b)

40%

c)

60%

d)

80%

74.

Match each statement to the correct consequence or feature of rotavirus infection in rabbits.

a)

Secondary infection with Clostridium spp. or E. coli

1.

Results in much higher mortality

b)

Recovery from infection

2.

Provides a degree of immunity; animals remain seropositive

c)

Anorexia and dehydration

3.

Common accompanying signs

75.

Which combination best describes the outcome after recovery from rotavirus infection in rabbits?

a)

Complete sterilizing immunity with seronegativity

b)

Partial immunity with persistent seropositivity

c)

No immunity and seronegativity

d)

Vaccine-induced immunity only

76.

Which statement about treatment for rotavirus in rabbits is most accurate?

a)

Antiviral therapy is curative

b)

Antibiotics eliminate the virus

c)

No effective treatment is available

d)

Corticosteroids prevent infection

77.

Which statement best describes viral hemorrhagic disease (VHD) in rabbits as presented?

a)

A chronic, low-contagion illness limited to North America

b)

An acute, highly contagious disease widespread in parts of Asia and Europe

c)

A bacterial condition primarily affecting juvenile rabbits

d)

A fungal infection with slow progression

78.

What are the suspected types of viruses that cause viral hemorrhagic disease in rabbits?

a)

Adenovirus or orthomyxovirus

b)

Parvovirus or retrovirus

c)

Coronavirus or paramyxovirus

d)

Herpesvirus or poxvirus

79.

Which transmission route is identified as most likely for viral hemorrhagic disease in rabbits?

a)

Vector-borne via mosquitoes

b)

Aerosol transmission

c)

Vertical transmission only

d)

Waterborne transmission

80.

Besides aerosols, which additional transmission pathway for viral hemorrhagic disease is noted?

a)

Blood transfusion

b)

Fomites

c)

Sexual contact

d)

Tick bites

81.

Which rabbits are primarily affected by viral hemorrhagic disease according to the material?

a)

Juveniles under 3 months

b)

Adult rabbits, especially gestating and lactating does

c)

Only neutered males

d)

Wild rabbits exclusively

82.

Which clinical outcome can occur with viral hemorrhagic disease even without prior clinical signs?

a)

Chronic anemia

b)

Acute death

c)

Gradual weight loss

d)

Dermatitis

83.

Which pair of clinical signs is commonly associated with viral hemorrhagic disease in rabbits?

a)

Hypothermia and bradycardia

b)

Dyspnea and tachycardia

c)

Diarrhea and jaundice

d)

Ataxia and nystagmus

84.

What sequela may follow seizurelike activity in rabbits with viral hemorrhagic disease?

a)

Rapid recovery with no complications

b)

Collapse followed quickly by death

c)

Long-term neurological deficits only

d)

Spontaneous remission

85.

Which preventive measure is explicitly noted as available for viral hemorrhagic disease?

a)

Prophylactic antibiotics

b)

A vaccine

c)

Antifungal prophylaxis

d)

Nutritional supplementation

86.

What import control is required for rabbits entering the United States from European and Asian countries due to viral hemorrhagic disease risk?

a)

Mandatory spay/neuter

b)

Strict quarantine

c)

Routine deworming

d)

Immediate release to owners

87.

Which neoplasia is identified as a leading cause of death in intact pet female rabbits?

a)

Lymphosarcoma

b)

Uterine adenocarcinoma

c)

Embryonal nephroma

d)

Bile duct adenoma

88.

Which clinical signs are associated with uterine adenocarcinoma in rabbits? Select the best answer.

a)

Weight gain and polydipsia

b)

Palpable uterine nodules, decreased fertility, and dystocia

c)

Neurologic deficits and head tilt

d)

Hematuria and pruritus

89.

What pattern of tumor presence and growth is typical for uterine adenocarcinoma in rabbits?

a)

Single slow-growing tumor

b)

Multiple tumors that grow rapidly

c)

Single tumor with rapid regression

d)

Diffuse non-tumorous hyperplasia

90.

Metastasis from uterine adenocarcinoma in rabbits most commonly involves which tissues?

a)

Hepatic tissues

b)

Pulmonary tissues

c)

Renal tissues

d)

Skeletal muscle

91.

Match each neoplasia type commonly reported in rabbits with its noted characteristic or affected group.

a)

Lymphosarcoma

1.

Primarily affect juveniles and young adults; a genetic factor may be involved

b)

Embryonal nephroma

2.

Primarily affect juveniles and young adults; a genetic factor may be involved

c)

Bile duct adenoma/carcinoma

3.

Primarily affect juveniles and young adults; a genetic factor may be involved

92.

Which statement best describes the age group primarily affected by lymphosarcoma, embryonal nephroma, and bile duct adenoma/carcinoma in rabbits?

a)

Neonates only

b)

Juveniles and young adults

c)

Middle-aged adults

d)

Geriatric rabbits

93.

Which of the following are listed as rare neoplasias reported in rabbits?

a)

Ovarian, testicular, stomach, urinary bladder, and skin cancers

b)

Pancreatic, brain, thyroid, and bone cancers

c)

Liver, spleen, cardiac, and adrenal cancers

d)

Eye, nasal cavity, ear, and tongue cancers

94.

Which term is commonly used to refer to moist dermatitis in small animals?

a)

Exudative alopecia

b)

Slobbers

c)

Hot spots

d)

Ringworm

95.

What underlying mechanism most directly leads to moist dermatitis according to the material?

a)

Fungal colonization of dry skin

b)

Autoimmune attack on sebaceous glands

c)

Bacterial infection of skin chronically wetted by drooling or poor husbandry

d)

Nutritional deficiency causing brittle hair

96.

Match each feature with its description related to moist dermatitis.

a)

Etiology

1.

Bacterial infection of chronically wet skin (e.g., drooling from malocclusion or poor husbandry)

b)

Clinical odor

2.

Foul-smelling exudative dermatitis

c)

Anatomical location

3.

Around the folds of the dewlap

d)

Primary treatment approach

4.

Correct the cause; topical or systemic antibiotics usually helpful

97.

In cases where malocclusion causes drooling, what complication is most likely to develop?

a)

Otitis externa

b)

Moist dermatitis due to bacterial infection

c)

Hyperkeratosis of paw pads

d)

Conjunctivitis

98.

Which treatment strategy is emphasized for managing moist dermatitis?

a)

Aggressive debridement without antibiotics

b)

Systemic steroids as first-line therapy

c)

Correcting the underlying cause with topical or systemic antibiotics

d)

Antifungal shampoos only

99.

In the provided image of a rabbit with moist dermatitis, which feature most clearly indicates a "slobbers" appearance associated with wet, matted fur causing skin irritation?

a)

Dry, fluffy fur around the muzzle and paws

b)

Wet, matted fur with discoloration and debris near the mouth and chin

c)

Smooth, intact skin without lesions

d)

Clean, evenly groomed coat with no moisture

100.

Match each visual cue to its interpretation in the context of moist dermatitis in rabbits.

a)

Wet, matted fur

1.

Indicates persistent moisture (e.g., slobbers)

b)

Pink to red inflamed skin patches

2.

Suggests active dermatitis and irritation

c)

Accumulated debris and discoloration

3.

Reflects contamination from saliva and bedding

d)

Frayed hair tufts around affected area

4.

Represents hair damage secondary to skin inflammation

101.

Which inheritance pattern best describes Buphthalmia in rabbits?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

Mitochondrial

102.

In which rabbit breed is Buphthalmia noted as common according to the material?

a)

Dutch rabbits

b)

New Zealand white rabbits

c)

Flemish Giant rabbits

d)

Rex rabbits

103.

Which set lists typical clinical signs of Buphthalmia?

a)

Enlarged, protruding eyes; corneal opacity; ulceration

b)

Small sunken eyes; clear cornea; pruritus

c)

Normal eye size; photophobia; epiphora

d)

Proptosis due to trauma; retinal detachment; cataract

104.

According to the description, how many eyes can be affected in Buphthalmia?

a)

Only one eye

b)

Only both eyes simultaneously

c)

One or both eyes

d)

Neither eye; it is systemic only

105.

What is a serious possible consequence mentioned for eyes affected by Buphthalmia?

a)

Rupture of the eye

b)

Permanent miosis

c)

Optic nerve regeneration

d)

Spontaneous resolution without treatment

106.

On what basis is the diagnosis of Buphthalmia primarily made?

a)

Genetic sequencing alone

b)

Clinical signs

c)

Serum antibody titers

d)

Advanced imaging only

107.

What is the usual outcome for animals diagnosed with Buphthalmia as stated in the material?

a)

Long-term management with topical therapy

b)

Surgical correction and full recovery

c)

Observation without intervention

d)

Euthanasia