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Types of Diabetes Mellitus

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best characterizes Type 1 Diabetes according to the material?

a)

Inability to produce insulin

b)

Impaired utilization of produced insulin only

c)

Occurs only during pregnancy

d)

Excessive production of insulin

2.

A patient has adequate beta-cell function but their tissues do not effectively respond to insulin. Which diabetes type does this most closely describe?

a)

Type 1 Diabetes

b)

Type 2 Diabetes

c)

Gestational Diabetes (GDM)

d)

No form of diabetes

3.

Which scenario aligns with Gestational Diabetes (GDM) as defined here?

a)

Hyperglycemia due to inability to produce insulin in adolescence

b)

Insufficient insulin production in older adulthood

c)

Impaired utilization of insulin produced outside pregnancy

d)

Diabetes that occurs during pregnancy

4.

According to the flowchart, which statement best characterizes Type 1 diabetes (IDDM)?

a)

Insufficient insulin production in adults over 40; ketoacidosis not common

b)

Autoimmune disorder with no insulin produced, most often before age 15

c)

Mature onset with same characteristics as Type 2 and strong family history

d)

Gestational diabetes that goes away after pregnancy

5.

Which feature is listed under gestational diabetes?

a)

Often familial and lifelong

b)

May have a big baby

c)

Rapid onset with bed wetting

d)

Eye problems and slow onset

6.

In the assessment section, the "3-P's" common to Type 1 and Type 2 include which set?

a)

Polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria, fatigue, increased UTIs

b)

Polydipsia, pallor, paresthesia, pneumonia

c)

Polyuria, polydipsia, photophobia, pyrexia

d)

Polyphagia, proteinuria, pruritus, palpitations

7.

Which distinguishing assessment feature is listed for Type 1 versus Type 2?

a)

Type 1: slow onset; Type 2: rapid onset

b)

Type 1: decreased weight, thirst, bed wetting, rapid onset; Type 2: decreased weight, eye problems, slow onset

c)

Type 1: eye problems; Type 2: bed wetting

d)

Type 1: increased weight; Type 2: rapid onset

8.

Which diagnostic criterion is stated for confirming diabetes according to the flowchart?

a)

FBG > 100 mg/dl confirmed on the same day

b)

Casual glucose > 150 mg/dl without symptoms

c)

FBG > 126 mg/dl confirmed by repeat testing on another day

d)

Glucose tolerance test < 200 mg/dl

9.

Which complication is specifically associated with poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes in the flowchart?

a)

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemia non-ketonic coma

b)

Electrolyte imbalance

c)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

d)

Lipodystrophy

10.

Which treatment and lifestyle combination is indicated to reduce insulin need in the flowchart?

a)

Oral hypoglycemics and reduced exercise

b)

Diet only

c)

Insulin plus increased exercise

d)

Insulin withdrawal and bed rest

11.

Which classic symptom of Type 1 Diabetes is defined as increased urination?

a)

Polydipsia

b)

Polyphagia

c)

Polyuria

d)

Hypoglycemia

12.

A patient presents with rapid onset of weight loss, fatigue, and increased frequency of infections. Which underlying condition is most consistent with these signs and requires insulin for management?

a)

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

c)

Metabolic Syndrome

d)

Hyperthyroidism

13.

Which triad correctly matches each term with its associated increase in Type 1 Diabetes?

a)

Polyuria—↑ thirst; Polydipsia—↑ hunger; Polyphagia—↑ urination

b)

Polyuria—↑ urination; Polydipsia—↑ thirst; Polyphagia—↑ hunger

c)

Polyuria—↓ urination; Polydipsia—↑ hunger; Polyphagia—↑ thirst

d)

Polyuria—↑ thirst; Polydipsia—↑ urination; Polyphagia—↓ hunger

14.

Considering typical presentation patterns, which age range has peak incidence for Type 1 Diabetes according to the instructional material?

a)

0 to 5 years

b)

5 to 10 years

c)

10 to 15 years

d)

15 to 20 years

15.

A patient presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. Which pair of symptoms best matches common Type 2 Diabetes manifestations?

a)

Polyuria and polydipsia

b)

Bradycardia and hypotension

c)

Hematuria and jaundice

d)

Photophobia and tinnitus

16.

Which risk factor combination most increases the likelihood of Type 2 Diabetes according to the material?

a)

Active lifestyle and low BMI

b)

Familial tendency and obesity

c)

Adolescence and high HDL cholesterol

d)

Frequent aerobic exercise and low FBS

17.

Fasting blood sugar (FBS) consistent with Type 2 Diabetes is best indicated by which value?

a)

90 mg/dl

b)

110 mg/dl

c)

126 mg/dl or higher

d)

Less than 80 mg/dl

18.

According to the diagnostic criteria, which fasting plasma glucose value supports a diagnosis of diabetes and should be confirmed by repeat testing?

a)

99 mg/dL or below

b)

100–126 mg/dL

c)

Greater than 126 mg/dL

d)

70–99 mg/dL

19.

A random blood glucose measurement of which value, in a patient with classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, meets diagnostic criteria?

a)

100 mg/dL

b)

140 mg/dL

c)

>200 mg/dL

d)

126 mg/dL

20.

What Hemoglobin A1C percentage is used to diagnose diabetes based on long-term glycemic control over the previous 2–3 months?

a)

Below 5.7%

b)

5.7–6.4%

c)

6.5% or above

d)

>7.5%

21.

In an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) using 75 g oral glucose, which 2-hour blood glucose result indicates diabetes?

a)

99 mg/dL or below

b)

140–199 mg/dL

c)

200 mg/dL or above

d)

>126 mg/dL

22.

Which range represents normal fasting blood glucose according to the visual guide?

a)

70–99 mg/dL

b)

100–126 mg/dL

c)

>126 mg/dL

d)

140–199 mg/dL

23.

A patient’s 2-hour post-prandial glucose is 160 mg/dL. Based on the guide, how should this result be classified?

a)

Normal

b)

Pre-diabetes

c)

Diabetes

d)

Unclassifiable

24.

A fasting blood sugar of 110 mg/dL most closely aligns with which category on the traffic-light infographic?

a)

Normal (99 mg/dL or below)

b)

Pre-diabetes (100–125 mg/dL)

c)

Diabetes (126 mg/dL or above)

d)

Indeterminate

25.

Which pairing correctly matches the test with its diabetes threshold shown in the materials?

a)

Random blood glucose — 140 mg/dL or above

b)

Fasting plasma glucose — greater than 126 mg/dL

c)

A1C — 5.7% or above

d)

OGTT (2 hours) — 140 mg/dL or below

26.

Which of the following is a primary goal of diabetes treatment highlighted in the material?

a)

Rapid weight loss

b)

Prevent complications

c)

Eliminate the need for monitoring

d)

Increase glucose levels

27.

Which combination best represents core management strategies for diabetes according to the material?

a)

Nutrition therapy, drug therapy, self-monitoring, exercise

b)

Surgery, hypnosis, herbal supplements, meditation

c)

Fasting, high-sugar diet, bed rest, dehydration

d)

Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, massage, aromatherapy

28.

A patient’s glucose meter consistently shows elevated readings. Based on the listed goals and methods, which integrated plan most directly aligns with treatment priorities?

a)

Maintain normal glucose levels through nutrition therapy, appropriate drug therapy (e.g., insulin), self-monitoring, and regular exercise

b)

Focus on preventing symptoms only by reducing physical activity

c)

Increase carbohydrate intake to boost energy while stopping medications

d)

Discontinue self-monitoring to reduce stress and rely solely on annual checkups

29.

According to the diagram, what is the primary role of insulin in cellular glucose handling?

a)

It breaks down glucose inside the cell

b)

It is the key that unlocks the glucose channel

c)

It stores glucose in the liver

d)

It converts glucose to glycogen at the cell surface

30.

Which sequence best describes the steps shown for glucose entry into a cell?

a)

Glucose binds the receptor, channel opens, insulin enters the cell

b)

Insulin binds the insulin receptor, glucose channel opens, glucose enters the cell

c)

Insulin enters the cell, receptor closes, glucose accumulates outside

d)

Channel is always open, glucose passively enters without insulin

31.

What structure directly interacts with insulin to initiate opening of the glucose channel?

a)

Glucose transporter inside the nucleus

b)

Insulin receptor on the cell surface

c)

Mitochondrial membrane

d)

Extracellular matrix

32.

Which insulin type is characterized by an onset of 10–30 minutes, a peak at 30 minutes to 3 hours, and a duration of 3–5 hours?

a)

Rapid-acting insulin

b)

Short-acting insulin

c)

Intermediate-acting insulin

d)

Long-acting insulin

e)

Inhaled insulin

33.

Regular insulin (Humulin R, Novolin R) falls under which category based on an onset of 30 minutes–1 hour, peak of 2–5 hours, and duration of 5–8 hours?

a)

Rapid-acting

b)

Short-acting

c)

Intermediate-acting

d)

Long-acting

e)

Ultra-long-acting

34.

NPH insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N) has a duration of 12–18 hours. What is its typical peak activity window?

a)

30 minutes–3 hours

b)

2–5 hours

c)

4–12 hours

d)

Less defined or no pronounced peak

e)

60 minutes

35.

Which long-acting insulin profile is described as having an onset of 0.8–4 hours, less defined or no pronounced peak, and duration of 16–24 hours?

a)

Lispro (Humalog)

b)

Aspart (NovoLog)

c)

Detemir (Levemir)

d)

Afrezza

e)

NPH

36.

Inhaled insulin (Afrezza) has a peak at approximately 60 minutes. What is its onset range?

a)

10–30 minutes

b)

30 minutes–1 hour

c)

1.5–4 hours

d)

0.8–4 hours

e)

12–15 minutes

37.

Which insulin category is best matched to covering postprandial spikes due to its rapid onset and short duration?

a)

Intermediate-acting insulin

b)

Long-acting insulin

c)

Short-acting insulin

d)

Rapid-acting insulin

e)

Inhaled insulin

38.

A patient needs basal coverage with minimal peak to reduce nocturnal hypoglycemia. Which insulin profile fits best?

a)

Rapid-acting: onset 10–30 min; peak 30 min–3 hr; duration 3–5 hr

b)

Short-acting: onset 30 min–1 hr; peak 2–5 hr; duration 5–8 hr

c)

Intermediate-acting: onset 1.5–4 hr; peak 4–12 hr; duration 12–18 hr

d)

Long-acting: onset 0.8–4 hr; less defined peak; duration 16–24 hr

e)

Inhaled: onset 12–15 min; peak 60 min; duration 2.5–3 hr

39.

Which option correctly pairs insulin type with a 12–18 hour duration?

a)

Rapid-acting

b)

Short-acting

c)

Intermediate-acting

d)

Long-acting

e)

Inhaled

40.

Compare short-acting versus rapid-acting insulin: which has a later onset and longer duration?

a)

Rapid-acting has later onset and longer duration

b)

Short-acting has later onset and longer duration

c)

Both have identical onset and duration

d)

Short-acting has earlier onset but longer duration

e)

Rapid-acting has later onset but shorter duration

41.

Which list correctly identifies examples of rapid-acting insulin analogs?

a)

Glargine, detemir, degludec

b)

Lispro, aspart, glulisine

c)

Regular (Humulin R), Novolin R

d)

NPH (Humulin N, Novolin N)

e)

Afrezza

42.

A patient has low blood sugar around 3:00 AM and high blood sugar upon waking. What is the most likely cause?

a)

Dawn Phenomenon

b)

Somogyi Effect

c)

Postprandial hyperglycemia

d)

Insulin resistance only

43.

According to the diagram, which treatment approach is recommended for Dawn Phenomenon?

a)

Decrease evening insulin to prevent hypoglycemia

b)

Increase medication (e.g., increase basal insulin) or adjust timing to improve control

c)

Stop basal insulin and rely on mealtime insulin only

d)

Add glucagon at bedtime

44.

To differentiate Dawn Phenomenon from Somogyi Effect, what middle-of-the-night (around 03:00) blood sugar pattern indicates Somogyi Effect?

a)

High or normal blood sugar

b)

Low blood sugar

c)

Stable blood sugar with no change

d)

Elevated ketone levels

45.

Which adjustment aligns with treating Somogyi Effect?

a)

Increase basal insulin dose

b)

Decrease evening insulin or adjust timing to prevent hypoglycemia

c)

Add rapid-acting insulin at breakfast

d)

Increase carbohydrate intake at lunch

46.

Which statement best describes the role of oral agents in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?

a)

They replace insulin entirely by stopping its production

b)

They aid the body in releasing insulin

c)

They primarily treat Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

d)

They eliminate the need for any combination therapy

47.

Oral agents for Type 2 Diabetes target three primary defects. Which set correctly lists these defects?

a)

Insulin excess, pancreatic inflammation, renal glucose loss

b)

Insulin resistance, decreased insulin production, increased hepatic glucose production

c)

Autoimmune beta-cell destruction, ketone overproduction, electrolyte imbalance

d)

Peripheral neuropathy, retinopathy, nephropathy

48.

Which oral antihyperglycemic agent is identified as the most widely used in this class?

a)

Sulfonylureas

b)

Metformin

c)

Thiazolidinediones

d)

DPP-4 inhibitors

49.

Metformin is noted as the most effective first-line treatment for which condition?

a)

Type I diabetes mellitus

b)

Type II diabetes mellitus

c)

Gestational diabetes

d)

Prediabetes only

50.

Which action of metformin directly helps lower blood glucose levels?

a)

Stimulates pancreatic beta-cell insulin secretion

b)

Reduces hepatic glucose production

c)

Delays gastric emptying

d)

Blocks renal glucose reabsorption

51.

A patient scheduled for a CT scan with IV contrast is taking metformin. What is the correct precaution?

a)

Continue metformin without changes

b)

Stop metformin only after the procedure

c)

Stop metformin 48 hours before and after the procedure with IV contrast

d)

Switch to insulin immediately

52.

Which recommendation minimizes gastrointestinal upset when taking metformin?

a)

Take on an empty stomach

b)

Take with food

c)

Take with grapefruit juice

d)

Crush and take sublingually

53.

Which statement best describes metformin’s effect on insulin?

a)

It replaces insulin in the body

b)

It enhances insulin sensitivity and uptake by cells

c)

It prevents insulin degradation

d)

It increases insulin secretion from the pancreas

54.

Which lifestyle consideration should patients avoid while using metformin?

a)

Excess alcohol consumption

b)

Regular exercise

c)

High-fiber diet

d)

Adequate hydration

55.

Which drug is a sulfonylurea used to increase insulin production by the pancreas?

a)

Metformin

b)

Glimepiride (Amaryl)

c)

Pioglitazone

d)

Sitagliptin

56.

What is a primary action of sulfonylureas in managing blood glucose?

a)

Decrease hepatic glucose output

b)

Increase insulin production by the pancreas

c)

Block carbohydrate absorption in the gut

d)

Stimulate glucagon release

57.

Which pair lists common brand names correctly associated with a sulfonylurea?

a)

Glipizide — Glucotrol, Glucotrol XR

b)

Glyburide — Januvia

c)

Glimepiride — Actos

d)

Metformin — Amaryl

58.

Which side effect is most directly linked to the mechanism of sulfonylureas?

a)

Hyponatremia due to diuresis

b)

Hypoglycemia from increased insulin secretion

c)

Hyperkalemia from potassium retention

d)

Lactic acidosis from mitochondrial inhibition

59.

Which clinical sign is most characteristic of Diabetic Ketoacidosis and involves deep, rapid breathing?

a)

Cheyne–Stokes respirations

b)

Biot respirations

c)

Kussmaul respirations

d)

Apneustic respirations

60.

According to the material, DKA typically has an onset over which time frame?

a)

Minutes to 1 hour

b)

4–10 hours

c)

12–24 hours

d)

Several days

61.

A patient with DKA may have breath that smells like which item?

a)

Mint lozenges

b)

Juicy fruit gum

c)

Garlic

d)

Alcohol

62.

Which combination best lists essential treatment needs highlighted for DKA?

a)

Antibiotics, oxygen, bed rest

b)

Hydration, insulin, electrolyte replacement

c)

Beta-blockers, diuretics, anticoagulants

d)

Surgery, steroids, radiation

63.

Which set of findings aligns with DKA according to the diagram?

a)

Bradycardia, hypertension, alkalosis

b)

Tachycardia, hypotension, acidosis

c)

Normal heart rate, normal blood pressure, neutral pH

d)

Bradycardia, hypotension, alkalosis

64.

What blood glucose level threshold is specifically associated with DKA in the diagram?

a)

>100 mg/dL

b)

>180 mg/dL

c)

>240 mg/dL

d)

>400 mg/dL

65.

Which historical factors are linked to the development of DKA as shown?

a)

Excess insulin, renal failure, stroke

b)

Lack of insulin, GI upset, febrile illness

c)

High-fat diet, dehydration, asthma

d)

Allergy, trauma, hypoglycemia

66.

According to the diagram, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as a blood glucose level below which threshold?

a)

90 mg/dL

b)

80 mg/dL

c)

70 mg/dL

d)

60 mg/dL

67.

Which of the following is a common early symptom of hypoglycemia?

a)

Chest pain

b)

Hunger

c)

Rash

d)

Constipation

68.

For a person with diabetes, which cause listed in the diagram most directly leads to hypoglycemia?

a)

Too little insulin

b)

Too much insulin

c)

Eating more than usual

d)

Sedentary behavior

69.

Which step is first in the 15-15 rule for managing hypoglycemia?

a)

Wait 15 minutes

b)

Eat/drink 15 grams of fast-acting carbs

c)

Test blood glucose

d)

Inject glucagon

70.

Which item is depicted as a source of fast-acting carbohydrates in the 15-15 rule?

a)

Whole-grain bread

b)

Diet soda

c)

Candy bar or sugary drink

d)

High-protein shake

71.

After following the 15-15 rule, when should you repeat the cycle according to the diagram?

a)

If blood sugar remains above 90 mg/dL

b)

If blood sugar remains below 70 mg/dL

c)

Only if symptoms persist for 24 hours

d)

Never repeat the cycle

72.

When administering a glucagon injection during severe hypoglycemia, what angle and site are recommended in the diagram?

a)

45° into the upper arm

b)

90° into the thigh or buttock

c)

30° into the abdomen

d)

90° into the forearm

73.

Which situation without diabetes is listed as a cause of hypoglycemia in the diagram?

a)

High-fiber diet

b)

Alcohol use

c)

Vitamin deficiency

d)

High altitude

74.

Which statement best describes how alcohol affects glucose production by the liver?

a)

Alcohol stimulates glucose production, raising blood sugar

b)

Alcohol has no effect on hepatic glucose production

c)

Alcohol inhibits glucose production, and greater consumption increases the inhibition

d)

Alcohol only inhibits glucose production in non-diabetics

75.

A patient with diabetes plans to drink several alcoholic beverages at a party. Based on the information provided, what is the primary risk to anticipate and plan to prevent?

a)

Hyperglycemia due to increased hepatic glucose output

b)

Severe hypoglycemia, which can occur in both Type 1 and Type 2 diabetics

c)

Dehydration leading to insulin resistance

d)

Electrolyte imbalance causing ketoacidosis

76.

Which preventive action is specifically recommended annually for patients with Diabetes Mellitus to protect vision?

a)

Annual physical exam

b)

Annual eye exam

c)

Monofilament test

d)

Kidney function lab work

77.

During the annual physical for a patient with Diabetes Mellitus, which test is used to assess foot sensation and screen for neuropathy?

a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Monofilament test

c)

X-ray

d)

Electrocardiogram

78.

Which item is advised for patients with Diabetes Mellitus to wear to communicate their condition in emergencies?

a)

Compression socks

b)

Alert bracelet

c)

Fitness tracker

d)

Medical mask

79.

Which combination correctly lists components of the annual physical for Diabetes Mellitus care?

a)

Vision screening, dental cleaning, allergy test

b)

Kidney function lab work, urine sample, blood pressure, examine hands/feet, monofilament test

c)

Chest X-ray, spirometry, echocardiogram

d)

Stool test, colonoscopy, genetic testing

80.

What vaccination schedule is recommended for patients with Diabetes Mellitus according to the guidance?

a)

One-time tetanus booster

b)

Monthly COVID-19 vaccination

c)

Yearly influenza vaccination

d)

No vaccinations are recommended