WorksheetsHEMA-1
Total questions: 132
Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Also called hemogram
a)
CBC
b)
ESR
c)
OFT
d)
PTT
2.
What is the optimal anticoagulant concentration in EDTA?
a)
3.2%
b)
3.8%
c)
1.5 mg per mL of blood
d)
2.3 mg per mL of blood
3.
Blood specimens for CBC must be analyzed within ____ hours of collection if stored at room temperature
a)
4 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
8 hours
d)
24 hours
e)
48 hours
4.
Blood specimens for CBC must be analyzed within ____ hours of collection if stored at 4 degree Celsius
a)
4 hours
b)
6 hours
c)
8 hours
d)
24 hours
e)
48 hours
5.
Blood smears should be made within ___ hours of collection.
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
3 hours
d)
4 hours
6.
What is the cause of insufficient EDTA?
a)
overfilled tube
b)
underfilled tube
7.
What is the cause of excessive EDTA?
a)
overfilled tube
b)
underfilled tube
8.
Leads to presence of clots
a)
Insufficient EDTA
b)
Excessive EDTA
9.
Leads to decreased Hct, ESR, degenerative changes in WBC, and increased MCHC as well as Plt count
a)
Insufficient EDTA
b)
Excessive EDTA
10.
formation of a ring-shaped molecular complex in which a metal ion is covalently bound
a)
Chelation
b)
Delta check
c)
Reflex test
d)
Parameter
11.
a process in which a current test result is compared with the result of the same test from the previous specimen from the same patient
a)
Chelation
b)
Delta check
c)
Reflex test
d)
Parameter
12.
A test being ordered automatically based on the results of prior tests or preset parameters
a)
Chelation
b)
Delta check
c)
Reflex test
d)
Parameter
13.
– any numerical value that depicts an entire population
a)
Chelation
b)
Delta check
c)
Reflex test
d)
Parameter
14.
✓ Most commonly used blood collection tube in the Hematology section
a)
Sodium Citrate
b)
EDTA
c)
SST
d)
Heparin
15.
causes cellular clumping (especially of platelets), which leads to pseudoleukocytosis (falsely ↑ WBC count) and pseudothrombocytopenia (falsely ↓ platelet count) on some hematology analyzers
a)
Sodium Citrate
b)
EDTA
c)
SST
d)
Heparin
16.
must NOT be used for lithium level determination
a)
Lithium heparin
b)
Sodium heparin
c)
Ammonium heparin
17.
causes the least interference in chemistry
testing
a)
Lithium heparin
b)
Sodium heparin
c)
Ammonium heparin
18.
most widely used anticoagulant for plasma and whole blood chemistry tests
a)
Lithium heparin
b)
Sodium heparin
c)
Ammonium heparin
19.
must NOT be used for sodium level determination or for electrolyte panel
a)
Lithium heparin
b)
Sodium heparin
c)
Ammonium heparin
20.
must NOT be used for ammonia level determination
a)
Lithium heparin
b)
Sodium heparin
c)
Ammonium heparin
21.
Correction for platelet satellitosis and EDTA-induced platelet clumping upon re-collection from blue top
a)
Hb ct x 1.1
b)
Plt ct x 1.1
c)
RBC ct x 1.1
d)
Hct ct x 1.1
22.
The CBC results showed that the patient’s platelet count is low at 90,000/mm3 and his leukocyte count is high at 15,000/ mm3. The medical technologist then examined the patient’s blood smear under the microscope and observed that it demonstrates platelet clumps. The phlebotomist re-collected the patient’s blood using 3.2% sodium citrate tube and another CBC was performed.
The new results obtained are 115,000/mm3 for the platelet count and 11,000/mm3 for the WBC count. Determine the final platelet count and WBC count for this patient.
a)
A.) Platelet count: 107,800/ mm3, leukocyte count: 16,500/ mm3, and all the other CBC values obtained from the sodium citrate specimen.
b)
B.) Platelet count: 99,000/ mm3, leukocyte count: 16,500/ mm3, and all the other original CBC values obtained from the EDTA specimen.
c)
C.) Platelet count: 121,000/ mm3, leukocyte count: 12,100/ mm3, and all the CBC values obtained from the sodium citrate specimen.
d)
D.) Platelet count: 126,500/ mm3, leukocyte count: 12,100/ mm3, and all the other original CBC values obtained from the EDTA specimen.
23.
Hemolysis
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
24.
Excessive agitation
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
25.
Prolonged tourniquet application
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
26.
Excessive needle manipulation
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
27.
Platelet contamination
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
28.
Presence of clots
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
29.
Increased AC concentration
a)
Shortened coagulation results
b)
Prolonged coagulation results
30.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for molecular diagnostic tests?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
31.
Which type of EDTA tube causes platelet satellitism?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
32.
Which type of EDTA tube is centrifuged within 6 hours after collection?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
33.
Which type of EDTA tube contain spray-coated K2 EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
34.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for whole blood hematology?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
35.
Which type of EDTA tube is designed with special crossmatch label for patient information?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
36.
Which type of EDTA tube contain either clot activator (plastic serum) or K2EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
37.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for trace element, toxicology, and nutritional chemistry determinations?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
38.
Which type of EDTA tube has K2EDTA (plastic)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
39.
Which type of EDTA tube is used for lead determinations (contains <0.01 ug/mL or ppm of lead)?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
40.
Which type of EDTA tube contain K2EDTA with gel?
a)
White
b)
Pink
c)
Lavender
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
41.
Which type of tube contain 3.8% sodium citrate?
a)
Blue
b)
Pink
c)
Black
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
42.
Which type of tube is used on Westergren and ESR?
a)
Blue
b)
Pink
c)
Black
d)
Royal Blue
e)
Tan
43.
What is the blood to anticoagulant ratio of black top?
a)
1:9
b)
4:1
c)
1:4
d)
9:1
44.
Buffered Sodium Citrate GLASS
a)
0.105 M
b)
0.109 M
45.
Buffered Sodium Citrate pLASTIC
a)
0.105 M
b)
0.109 M
46.
Which anticoagulant is used for platelet studies, and coagulation determinations?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
47.
Which anticoagulant is the remedy for Platelet Satellitism?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
48.
forceful mixing or an excessive number of inversions can activate platelets and shorten clotting times
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
49.
-critical ratio between anticoagulant and blood: in sodium citrate
a)
1:9
b)
9:1
c)
4:1
d)
1:4
50.
Which anticoagulant is used for plasma determinations in chemistry, osmotic fragility test, blood gas studies?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
51.
Which anticoagulant causes cellular clumping (especially of platelets), leading to pseudoleukocytosis and pseudothrombocytopenia on some analyzers?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
52.
Which anticoagulant inhibits thrombin (therefore, it is contraindicated for coagulation studies)?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
53.
Which anticoagulant is used for blood culture specimen collections in microbiology?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
54.
Which anticoagulant is used on blood bank tests, HLA tests, DNA tests, and paternity tests?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
55.
Which antiglycotlytic agent is used on glucose level determination (for delayed testing of blood glucose levels)?
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
56.
Potassium oxalate or Sodium EDTA (Na2EDTA) is the anticoagulant in the tube containing this antiglycolytic agent.
a)
Buffered Sodium Citrate
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
57.
If a blood film is not stained within 2 hours, heparin gives what background color when stained with Wright's stain?
a)
Yellow
b)
Green
c)
Blue
d)
Red
58.
Which of the following causes the least interference in chemistry testing?
a)
Sodium Heparin
b)
Lithium Heparin
59.
Which anticoagulant is Light-sensitive?
a)
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, Dipyridamole (CTAD)
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
60.
Which anticoagulant is has normally slightly yellowish appearance that becomes clear when no longer viable?
a)
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, Dipyridamole (CTAD)
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
61.
Used for platelet function assays such as platelet factor 4 and beta-thromboglobulin assays
a)
Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, Dipyridamole (CTAD)
b)
Sodium or Lithium Heparin
c)
Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)
d)
Acid Citrate Dextrose
e)
Sodium Fluoride
62.
Which of the following is used for coagulation tests only?
a)
CTAD
b)
3.2% Sodium citrate
63.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tubes has glass (silicone-coated), plastic (silicone-coated with clot activator) additive?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
64.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used for serum determinations in chemistry?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
65.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used for routine blood donor screening and diagnostic of serum for infectious disease?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
66.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has a blod clotting time of 60 minutes or 1 hour?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
67.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube contain clot activator and gel additive?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
68.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has 30 minutes blood clotting time?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
69.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube contain thrombin-based clot activator?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
70.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube is used on STAT serum determinations in chemistry?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
71.
Which clot activator or serum-yielding tube has a blood clotting time of 5 minutes?
a)
Red top
b)
Gold top
c)
Orange top
72.
Tourniquet application
a)
1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
73.
Anchor the vein with the thumb....
a)
1 to 2 inches below the puncture site
b)
1 to 2 inches above the puncture site
c)
3 to 4 inches below the puncture site
d)
3 to 4 inches above the puncture site
74.
Cleansing of venipuncture site is done in a
a)
Circular motion with friction
b)
Lateral motion with friction
c)
Horizontal motion with friction
d)
Back and forth motion with friction
75.
Remove the tourniquet as soon as blood flow is established or after no longer than
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
4 minutes
76.
If tourniquet is left on for a longer time because of difficulty in finding a vein, it should be removed for how many minutes and reapplied before the venipuncture is performed?
a)
1 minute
b)
2 minutes
c)
3 minutes
d)
4 minutes
77.
The most common skin antiseptic.
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
78.
Collecting blood for legal blood alcohol level
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
79.
Used for preparing sterile sites for blood culture.
a)
70% Isopropyl alcohol
b)
Non-alcohol based antiseptic
c)
Tincture of iodine, 1 to 10% Povidone Iodine
80.
What is the technique of choice to obtain blood from newborns and pediatric patients? It may also be used on adult patients who are severely burned and whose veins are being reserved for therapeutic purposes, patients who are extremely obese, and in elderly patients with fragile veins.
a)
Venipuncture
b)
Skin puncture
c)
Arterial blood gas
d)
Arteial puncture
81.
What is the skin puncture site for children older than 1 and adults?
a)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the dominant hand
b)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the non-dominant hand
c)
Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel.
82.
What is the skin puncture site for infants under 1 year of age?
a)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the dominant hand
b)
Palmar surface of the distal portion of the third or fourth ring on the non-dominant hand
c)
Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel.
83.
Heel puncture must not be deeper than how many mm beneath the plantar heel-skin surface of the heel?
a)
1.2 mm
b)
2.0 mm
c)
2.3 mm
d)
2.4mm
84.
Osteomyelitis can be prevented by penetrating the skin no deeper than..?
a)
1.2 mm
b)
2.0 mm
c)
2.3 mm
d)
2.4mm
85.
When creating a blood smear, the angle between the spreader and film slide must be
a)
15 to 25 degrees
b)
30 to 45 degrees
c)
50 to 90 degrees
d)
10 to 15 degrees
86.
If the angle of the spreader is too high
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
87.
Size of the drop of blood is too LARGE
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
88.
Size of the drop of blood is too small
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
89.
Speed of the spreader is too fast
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
90.
If the hematocrit is too high
a)
Angle should be lowered, as low as 25 degrees
b)
Angle should be raised
91.
If the hematocrit is too low
a)
Angle should be lowered, as low as 25 degrees
b)
Angle should be raised
92.
If the blood sample of patient has an anemia, when making its PBS, what should be considered?
a)
Angle should be lowered, as low as 25 degrees
b)
Angle should be raised
93.
If the blood sample of patient has polycythemia vera, when making its PBS, what should be considered?
a)
Angle should be lowered, as low as 25 degrees
b)
Angle should be raised
94.
Speed of the spreader is too slow leading to poor WBC distribution and?
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
95.
If the angle of the spreader is too low
a)
Thinner smear
b)
Thicker smear
96.
What scanning method exhibits tail to head pattern?
a)
Longitudinal
b)
Battlement
97.
What scanning method exhibits back and forth serpentine pattern?
a)
Longitudinal
b)
Battlement
98.
-no power source necessary
a)
CellaVision HemaPrep
b)
Centrifugal (Spinner) type
99.
portable instrument
a)
CellaVision HemaPrep
b)
Centrifugal (Spinner) type
100.
semi-automated preparation of up to two blood films
a)
CellaVision HemaPrep
b)
Centrifugal (Spinner) type
101.
uses approximately 0.2 mL of well-mixed anticoagulated blood
a)
CellaVision HemaPrep
b)
Centrifugal (Spinner) type
102.
Advantages:
▪even distribution of cells
▪consistency of preparations
▪monolayer of cells
▪fewer smudge cells (esp. in CLL patients
a)
CellaVision HemaPrep
b)
Centrifugal (Spinner) type
103.
a basic stain, it colors the nucleus and some cytoplasmic structures a blue or purple color (stained structures are described to be basophilic [e.g., DNA or RNA])
a)
Methylene blue
b)
Eosin
104.
an acidic stain, it colors some cytoplasmic structures an orange-red color (stained structures are described to be acidophilic [e.g., proteins with amino groups])
a)
Methylene blue
b)
Eosin
105.
the whole process of quick staining technique takes
a)
1 to 3 minutes
b)
1 to 5 minutes
c)
5 to 10 minutes
d)
1 minute only
106.
the whole process of automated staining technique takes
a)
1 to 3 minutes
b)
1 to 5 minutes
c)
5 to 10 minutes
d)
1 minute only
107.
the whole process of manual staining technique takes
a)
1 to 3 minutes
b)
1 to 5 minutes
c)
5 to 10 minutes
d)
1 minute only
108.
✓ Flood the slide with Wright’s stain
✓ Allow the stain to remain on the slide for 1 to 3 mins. ✓ Buffer is then added
a)
Manual
b)
Automated
c)
Quick
109.
Generally, 5 to 10 mins. to stain a batch of slides
a)
Manual
b)
Automated
c)
Quick
110.
✓ Uses modified Wright or Wright-Giemsa stain filtered into a Coplin jar or a staining dish
✓ Aged distilled water is used as the buffer
a)
Manual
b)
Automated
c)
Quick
111.
Which of the following are slide makers and stainers?
a)
Midas III
b)
Hema tek
c)
Coulter LH
d)
Sysmex SP-10
112.
Which of the following is the fixative in blood film staining?
a)
Ethanol
b)
Methanol
c)
Isopropyl
113.
0.05 M Sodium Phosphate (pH 6.4) or age diluted water placed in glass bottle for at least 24 hours in blood film staining is used as?
a)
Fixative
b)
Stain
c)
Buffer
114.
correct pH for blood smear staining
a)
6.1 to 6.3
b)
6.2 to 6.3
c)
6.4 to 6.8
d)
6.7 to 6.9
115.
What is the color of RBCs in a well-stained blood smear?
a)
Orange to salmon pink
b)
Purple to blue
c)
Pink to tan with violet to lilac granules
d)
Bright orange
116.
What is the color of neutrophils in a well-stained blood smear?
a)
Orange to salmon pink
b)
Purple to blue
c)
Pink to tan with violet to lilac granules
d)
Bright orange
117.
What is the most common cause if
RBCs: gray (or blue)
WBCs: too dark
Eosinophil granules: gray
a)
Stain or buffer is too BASIC
b)
Inadequate rinsing
c)
Stain or buffer is too acidic
d)
Under buffering
118.
What is the most common cause if
RBCs: too pale or are red
WBCs: barely visible
a)
Stain or buffer is too BASIC
b)
Inadequate rinsing
c)
Stain or buffer is too acidic
d)
Under buffering
119.
Which of the following is the most common cause of gray or blue RBC, too dark WBCs, and gray eosinophilic granules?
a)
Stain or buffer too basic
b)
Inadequate rinsing
c)
Heparinized blood was used
120.
Which of the following is the most common cause of too pale or red RBC and barely visible WBCs?
a)
Stain or buffer too acidic
b)
Under buffering
c)
Over-rinsing
121.
What is the color of eosinophil granules in a well-stained blood smear?
a)
Orange to salmon pink
b)
Purple to blue
c)
Pink to tan with violet to lilac granules
d)
Bright orange
122.
What is the color of WBC nuclei in a well-stained blood smear?
a)
Orange to salmon pink
b)
Purple to blue
c)
Pink to tan with violet to lilac granules
d)
Bright orange
123.
-patient has increased blood proteins (as in plasma cell myeloma)
a)
Blood film bluer than normal
b)
Grainy appearance
c)
Holes all over the film
d)
Blue specks out at the feather edge
124.
-RBC agglutination (as seen in cold hemagglutinin diseases)
a)
Blood film bluer than normal
b)
Grainy appearance
c)
Holes all over the film
d)
Blue specks out at the feather edge
125.
-patient has increased lipid levels
a)
Blood film bluer than normal
b)
Grainy appearance
c)
Holes all over the film
d)
Blue specks out at the feather edge
126.
markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts
a)
Blood film bluer than normal
b)
Grainy appearance
c)
Holes all over the film
d)
Blue specks out at the feather edge
127.
Storage of blood smear slides: at least ___ DAYS before proper disposal
a)
5 days
b)
6 days
c)
7 days
d)
14 days
128.
-Used to:
▪ detect fibrin strands (if they are present, the film should be rejected), recognize rouleaux formation or RBC agglutination quickly detect unexpected parasites ▪ assess the area available for suitable examination
a)
10x Objective Examination
b)
40x High-Dry or Oil Immersion Objective
129.
Used also to estimate total WBC count:
a)
10x Objective Examination
b)
40x High-Dry or Oil Immersion Objective
130.
-Used to:
▪assess overall film quality, color and distribution of cells
a)
10x Objective Examination
b)
40x High-Dry or Oil Immersion Objective
131.
-Used to:
▪locate rare abnormal WBCs (examples: blasts, reactive lympho- cytes) or other cells which may be examined more closely under higher magnification
a)
10x Objective Examination
b)
40x High-Dry or Oil Immersion Objective
132.
-Used to:
▪ detect “snowplow” effect (presence of more than four times the number of WBCs per field at the lateral edges or feather edge compared with the monolayer area) which will make the blood smear unacceptable ▪
a)
10x Objective Examination
b)
40x High-Dry or Oil Immersion Objective
100 %
