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Worksheets

Physics Summative Test

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A uniform beam balances at its midpoint. If a 20 N weight is hung 2.0 m from the pivot, where must a 40 N weight be hung to maintain equilibrium?

a)

0.5 m

b)

1.0 m

c)

2.0 m

d)

4.0 m

2.

A gymnast pulls her arms inward during a spin. What happens to her angular speed, and why?

a)

It increases because moment of inertia decreases

b)

It decreases because moment of inertia increases

c)

It stays the same because angular momentum is not conserved

d)

It becomes zero because torque cancels rotation

3.

A solid disk and a hollow cylinder (same mass and radius) roll without slipping from rest down the same incline. Which reaches the bottom first and why?

a)

Disk, because it has a smaller moment of inertia

b)

Cylinder, because it has a larger moment of inertia

c)

Both at the same time because masses are equal

d)

Cylinder, because it has greater surface contact

4.

Engineers design a flywheel to store rotational energy for an engine. For a given angular speed, which design change stores more energy?

a)

Increase the flywheel's radius while keeping mass distribution near rim

b)

Decrease the flywheel's mass

c)

Concentrate mass at the center

d)

Increase friction

5.

A ladder of length L leans against a smooth (frictionless) wall making an angle θ with the horizontal. Which force provides the horizontal balance that prevents slipping?

a)

Friction at the ground

b)

Normal reaction at the ground

c)

Normal reaction at the wall

d)

Weight of the ladder

6.

Scientists consider a hypothetical “Super-Earth” with the same mass as Earth but double the radius. Predict how the surface gravity compares to Earth’s.

a)

People would weigh the same as on Earth

b)

Objects would fall with only one-fourth Earth’s acceleration

c)

Satellites in low orbit would move faster than on Earth

d)

Mountain heights would increase due to stronger gravity

7.

Astronauts in the International Space Station feel weightless because:

a)

they are in a continuous state of free fall around the Earth.

b)

there is no gravity in space.

c)

the space station is far from Earth's gravitational pull.

d)

they are moving away from the Earth at high speed.

8.

A) There is negligible gravity at orbit altitude B) Both astronauts and station are in free fall around Earth C) Their mass is reduced in orbit D) Earth's gravity is canceled by centrifugal force

a)

There is negligible gravity at orbit altitude

b)

Both astronauts and station are in free fall around Earth

c)

Their mass is reduced in orbit

d)

Earth's gravity is canceled by centrifugal force

9.

A satellite orbits Earth at radius R with orbital period T. If the orbit radius is increased to 2R, what happens to the orbital period (Kepler’s third law)?

a)

Period becomes 2T

b)

Period becomes 2√2 · T

c)

Period becomes 4T

d)

Period becomes √2 · T

10.

Two spherical planets have equal mass but Planet A has smaller radius than Planet B. Which planet has greater surface gravity and why?

a)

Planet A, because surface is closer to mass center

b)

Planet B, because larger radius increases gravity

c)

Both same because masses are equal

d)

Cannot be determined without density

11.

Ocean tides on Earth are primarily caused by:

a)

The Sun’s gravitational pull only

b)

The Moon’s gravitational pull only

c)

Differential gravitational pull of the Moon

d)

Earth's rotation

12.

According to Kepler’s third law (P2 ∝ r3), if the orbital radius increases by a factor of 27, the orbital period increases by a factor of:

a)

9

b)

27

c)

3

d)

√27

13.

A pendulum clock calibrated at sea level is taken to a high-altitude location where g is slightly smaller. What happens to its period?

a)

Period increases slightly

b)

Period decreases slightly

c)

Period unchanged

d)

Pendulum stops

14.

The period T of a simple pendulum of length L is given by T = 2π√(L/g). If L is quadrupled, the period changes by what factor?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

√2

d)

1/2

15.

Which observational evidence supports that planetary orbits are elliptical rather than perfectly circular?

a)

Constant orbital speed

b)

Variation of orbital speed along orbit (closer point faster)

c)

Planets always stay at same distance from Sun

d)

Equal orbital periods for different radii

16.

Ultrasound imaging uses high-frequency mechanical waves. For better spatial resolution in soft-tissue imaging, which property of the ultrasound is desirable?

a)

Lower frequency (longer wavelength)

b)

Higher frequency (shorter wavelength)

c)

Larger amplitude

d)

Greater intensity

17.

A string fixed at both ends vibrates in its fundamental mode. How many nodes (points of zero displacement) are present along its length (excluding ends)?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

18.

Two tuning forks have frequencies 256 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the beat frequency heard by a listener?

a)

2 Hz

b)

4 Hz

c)

8 Hz

d)

516 Hz

19.

Soldiers are ordered to 'break step' when crossing a bridge to avoid:

a)

Increasing tension in bridge cables

b)

Resonant excitation of bridge natural frequency

c)

Corrosion due to synchronized footfall

d)

Overloading the bridge due to combined weight

20.

Sound intensity I from a point source decreases with distance r according to which law (in free field)?

a)

I ∝ 1/r

b)

I ∝ 1/r²

c)

I ∝ r

d)

I ∝ r²

21.

An ambulance with a siren approaches an observer. The observed pitch is higher because of:

a)

Reflection

b)

Doppler effect

c)

Refraction

d)

Interference

22.

Standing waves on a string occur when:

a)

Two identical waves travel in same direction

b)

Two waves of equal frequency travel in opposite directions and interfere

c)

Frequency changes with time

d)

Wave speed is zero

23.

A car sounding a horn (frequency f0) moves toward a stationary listener at speed v (v << speed of sound). The observed frequency f is approximately:

a)

f0(1 + v/v_sound)

b)

f0(1 - v/v_sound)

c)

f0(1 + v2/v_sound2)

d)

f0

24.

Doppler ultrasound in medicine is primarily used to measure:

a)

Tissue density

b)

Blood flow velocity

c)

Electrical conductivity

d)

Bone thickness

25.

Two waves of equal amplitude and frequency are exactly out of phase (180°). Their superposition at a point yields:

a)

Amplitude doubled

b)

Complete destructive interference (zero amplitude)

c)

Beat phenomenon

d)

Standing wave

26.

Noise-canceling headphones work by producing a sound wave that:

a)

Matches in-phase the ambient noise

b)

Produces an out-of-phase wave that destructively interferes with ambient noise

c)

Reflects incoming sound

d)

Amplifies the desired frequencies

27.

A wooden block has mass 200 g and volume 500 cm³. What is its density in g/cm³?

a)

0.2

b)

0.4

c)

2.0

d)

2.5

28.

Which of the following best explains why a ship floats on water?

a)

Steel is less dense than water

b)

The ship’s average density (including trapped air) is less than water

c)

Water has lower pressure under ship

d)

The ship's hull repels water

29.

A hydrometer is an instrument that measures:

a)

Viscosity

b)

Specific gravity (relative density)

c)

Temperature

d)

Surface tension

30.

Hot air balloons rise because heating the air inside:

a)

Increases its mass

b)

Decreases its density so the balloon + air becomes less dense than surrounding air

c)

Generates lift through Bernoulli effect

d)

Creates a vacuum inside the envelope

31.

What is the specific gravity (relative to water at 1000 kg/m3) of a liquid that has density of 1200 kg/m3?

a)

0.83

b)

1.2

c)

1.0

d)

1.5

32.

Pascal’s principle states that a pressure change applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted:

a)

Only to the point of application

b)

Equally throughout the fluid

c)

Only downward

d)

Only upward

33.

A hydraulic press has a small piston area 0.01 m2 and a large piston area 1.00 m2. To lift a 5-ton (≈50,000 N) load on the large piston, what minimum force is needed on the small piston (neglect friction)?

a)

50 N

b)

500 N

c)

5,000 N

d)

50,000 N

34.

An iceberg floats with 90% of its volume submerged. What does this imply about ice density relative to water?

a)

A) Ice density > water density

b)

B) Ice density = water density

c)

C) Ice density ≈ 0.90 × water density

d)

D) Ice density ≈ 1.10 × water density

35.

A submarine controls its depth by adjusting buoyancy. How does it do this?

a)

Changing its shape

b)

Filling or emptying ballast tanks to change overall density

c)

Changing water density around it

d)

Speeding up to generate lift

36.

Archimedes’ principle states that the buoyant force on a submerged object equals:

a)

Weight of the object

b)

Weight of the displaced fluid

c)

Object’s mass × gravity

d)

Fluid density × object volume × velocity

37.

The Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics provides the basis for:

a)

A) Thermal equilibrium and temperature measurement

b)

B) Conservation of energy

c)

C) Entropy

d)

D) Heat engines

38.

Which temperature scale has no negative values for temperatures above absolute zero?

a)

Celsius

b)

Fahrenheit

c)

Kelvin

d)

Rankine

39.

A steel rod expands 2.0 mm when heated from 20°C to 100°C. Assuming linear expansion, how much will it expand from 20°C to 200°C?

a)

4.0 mm

b)

6.0 mm

c)

8.0 mm

d)

10.0 mm

40.

Bimetallic strips in thermostats bend when temperature changes because the two metals have:

a)

Different densities

b)

Different coefficients of linear expansion

c)

Different electrical conductivity

d)

Different Young’s modulus only

41.

A glass cup cracks when very hot water is poured into it because:

a)

Glass is porous

b)

thermal expansion causes stress

c)

Hot water chemically reacts with glass

42.

Choose the correct option.

a)

A)

b)

B)

c)

C)

d)

D) Water evaporates rapidly