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Medical Terminology Quiz

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A crackling feeling or sound

a)

Edema

b)

Ecchymosis

c)

Crepitus

d)

Etiology

2.

What does the term "Diagnosis"

a)

Predicted outcome of an injury

b)

Name of a specific condition

c)

Evaluates the athlete's ability to perform actions

d)

Special tests that apply a pulling force to a ligament

3.

What is the meaning of "Etiology"

a)

Subjective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

b)

Objective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

c)

Name of a specific condition

d)

Pertaining to the cause of a condition

4.

What is the meaning of "Symptom"

a)

Subjective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

b)

Objective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

c)

Name of a specific condition

d)

Pertaining to the cause of a condition

5.

What is the meaning of "Sign"

a)

Subjective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

b)

Objective evidence of an abnormal situation within the body

c)

Name of a specific condition

d)

Pertaining to the cause of a condition

6.

What is the meaning of "Prognosis"

a)

Predicted outcome of an injury

b)

Name of a specific condition

c)

Swelling caused by fluid accumulation

d)

A sound or sensation caused by bone or cartilage rubbing together

7.

Which term refers to special tests that apply a pulling force to a ligament to determine the level of function or diagnose ligament injury?

a)

Functional Test

b)

Stress Test

c)

Edema

d)

Crepitus

8.

What does a "Functional Test" evaluate?

a)

Predicted outcome of an injury

b)

Evaluates the athlete's ability to perform actions necessary to play their sport

c)

Name of a specific condition

d)

Swelling caused by fluid accumulation

9.

Which term refers to swelling caused by fluid accumulation?

a)

Edema

b)

Crepitus

c)

Stress Test

d)

Prognosis

10.

What is one of the purposes of medical documentation?

a)

To record initial evaluation and progress notes for an injury

b)

To prescribe medication

c)

To diagnose diseases

d)

To perform surgeries

11.

What does the "Subjective" section of a SOAP note include?

a)

Information that can be proven

b)

Information that cannot be proven

c)

Diagnosis and treatment plan

d)

Observations and special tests

12.

Which of the following is an example of "Objective" information in a SOAP note?

a)

Symptoms

b)

History

c)

Signs

d)

MOI (Mechanism of Injury)

13.

What does the "Assessment" section of a SOAP note primarily focus on?

a)

Symptoms

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Observations

d)

Next steps

14.

What is included in the "Plan" section of a SOAP note?

a)

Symptoms and history

b)

Signs and observations

c)

How the condition is treated and next steps

d)

Palpations and special tests

15.

Which of the following is NOT part of the "Objective" section in a SOAP note?

a)

Observations

b)

Palpations

c)

Symptoms

d)

Special tests

16.

What does Range of Motion (ROM) refer to?

a)

Movement performed by the athlete

b)

How far you can move a joint in various directions

c)

Movement performed by the examiner on the athlete

d)

Modifying an exercise to fit the needs of the athlete

17.

Which type of movement is performed by the athlete?

a)

Passive movement (PROM)

b)

Resisted movement (RROM)

c)

Active movement (AROM)

d)

Functional progression

18.

What is Passive Movement (PROM)?

a)

Movement performed by the athlete

b)

Movement performed by the examiner on the athlete

c)

Movement performed by the athlete with added resistance by the examiner

d)

Modifying an exercise to fit the needs of the athlete

19.

Resisted Movement (RROM) involves:

a)

Movement performed by the athlete with added resistance by the examiner

b)

Movement performed by the examiner on the athlete

c)

Modifying an exercise to fit the needs of the athlete

d)

How far you can move a joint in various directions

20.

What is the purpose of Manual Muscle Test (MMT)?

a)

To assess strength and function of individual or muscle groups

b)

To measure how far a joint can move in various directions

c)

To modify exercises to fit the needs of the athlete

d)

To perform movements with added resistance

21.

What does Functional Progression involve?

a)

Modifying an exercise or activity to fit the needs of the athlete's ability

b)

Movement performed by the examiner on the athlete

c)

Movement performed by the athlete with added resistance by the examiner

d)

Technique used to assess strength and function of muscle groups

22.

What does "Rehab" refer to?

a)

Exercises/actions that improve an injury, area, or structure

b)

A type of medication for pain relief

c)

A surgical procedure to repair injuries

d)

A diet plan for athletes

23.

Which of the following is a short-term goal of rehabilitation?

a)

Decreasing pain and swelling

b)

Performing surgery

c)

Avoiding physical activity

d)

Increasing medication dosage

24.

What is the long-term goal of rehabilitation?

a)

Return to play (RTP)

b)

Decreasing pain and swelling

c)

Increasing medication dosage

d)

Avoiding physical activity

25.

Which activity is associated with reestablishing neuromuscular control during rehabilitation?

a)

Balance exercises

b)

Stretching

c)

Pain relief modalities

d)

Cardiovascular fitness training

26.

What is static stretching?

a)

A technique involving alternating contractions and stretches.

b)

Passively stretching an antagonist muscle by placing it in maximal stretch and holding it there.

c)

A technique closely related to the activities of the athlete.

d)

Stretching that involves rapid movements to increase flexibility.

27.

Which type of stretching is closely related to the activities of an athlete?

a)

Static stretching.

b)

Dynamic stretching.

c)

PNF stretching.

d)

Passive stretching.

28.

What does PNF stand for?

a)

Passive Neuromuscular Facilitation.

b)

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation.

c)

Progressive Neuromuscular Flexibility.

d)

Physical Neuromuscular Functionality.

29.

What is the key characteristic of PNF stretching?

a)

Holding a stretch for a long duration.

b)

Alternating contractions and stretches.

c)

Rapid movements to increase flexibility.

d)

Stretching while mimicking athletic activities.

30.

What type of exercise is recommended for building muscular strength?

a)

Low weight / high reps

b)

High weight / low reps

c)

Resistance band exercises

d)

Plyometric exercises

31.

Which type of exercise is best suited for improving muscular endurance?

a)

Explosive movements

b)

High weight / low reps

c)

Low weight / high reps

d)

Plyometric exercises

32.

What type of movements are associated with developing muscular power?

a)

Resistance band exercises

b)

Explosive movements

c)

Body weight exercises

d)

High weight / low reps

33.

Which of the following is an example of a muscular endurance exercise?

a)

Machine exercises

b)

Plyometric exercises

c)

Resistance band exercises

d)

High weight / low reps

34.

What is the primary characteristic of plyometric exercises?

a)

Low weight / high reps

b)

Explosive movements

c)

Machine exercises

d)

Body weight exercises

35.

Which type of muscle contraction involves muscle activation with shortening?

a)

Eccentric

b)

Isometric

c)

Concentric

d)

Plyometric

36.

What is the characteristic of eccentric muscle contraction?

a)

Muscle activation with shortening

b)

Muscle activation with lengthening

c)

Muscle activation without movement

d)

Muscles exert maximum force in short intervals of time

37.

Which type of muscle contraction keeps tension the same while the muscle changes length?

a)

Isometric

b)

Isotonic

c)

Plyometric

d)

Concentric

38.

What is the defining feature of isometric muscle contraction?

a)

Muscle activation with shortening

b)

Muscle activation with lengthening

c)

Muscle activation without movement

d)

Muscles exert maximum force in short intervals of time

39.

Which type of muscle contraction involves explosive movements where muscles exert maximum force in short intervals of time?

a)

Concentric

b)

Plyometric

c)

Isometric

d)

Eccentric

40.

What is the defining characteristic of open-chain exercises?

a)

The distal aspect of the extremity is fixed to a stationary object

b)

The distal aspect of the extremity is free moving or fixed to a moving object

c)

The proximal aspect of the extremity is fixed to a stationary object

d)

The proximal aspect of the extremity is free moving or fixed to a moving object

41.

What is the defining characteristic of closed-chain exercises?

a)

The distal aspect of the extremity is free moving or fixed to a moving object

b)

The proximal aspect of the extremity is free moving or fixed to a moving object

c)

The distal aspect of the extremity is fixed to an object that is stationary

d)

The proximal aspect of the extremity is fixed to an object that is stationary

42.

Which of the following is an example of a closed-chain exercise?

a)

Leg extension machine

b)

Push-up

c)

Bicep curl

d)

Dumbbell lateral raise

43.

Which of the following is an example of an open-chain exercise?

a)

Squat

b)

Pull-up

c)

Leg extension machine

d)

Plank

44.

Which of the following is an example of an exercise for neuromuscular control?

a)

Weightlifting

b)

Balance exercises

c)

Swimming

d)

Yoga

45.

What is the purpose of sports-specific exercises in neuromuscular control?

a)

To improve cardiovascular health

b)

To enhance sensory input and movement coordination

c)

To increase muscle mass

d)

To reduce stress

46.

What is considered the most neglected component of rehabilitation?

a)

Strength training

b)

Cardiorespiratory fitness

c)

Flexibility exercises

d)

Balance training

47.

Why is it important to incorporate activities in a rehabilitation program for injured athletes?

a)

To improve flexibility

b)

To rebuild the cardiovascular (CV) level the athlete was at before the injury

c)

To increase muscle mass

d)

To enhance mental focus