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Worksheets

S.S pages 13 to 22

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

What was the Great Migration?

a)

A migration of European immigrants to the United States

b)

A movement of African Americans from the South to the North and West

c)

A relocation of Native Americans to reservations

d)

A movement of African Americans back to Africa

2.

During which years did the first wave of the Great Migration occur?

a)

1900 to 1910

b)

1915 to 1920

c)

1940 to 1945

d)

1925 to 1930

3.

What was one reason African Americans left the South during the Great Migration?

a)

To escape cold weather

b)

To join the military

c)

To find gold in California

d)

To escape Jim Crow segregation and racial violence

4.

How many African Americans participated in the Great Migration by the early 1970s?

a)

Ten million

b)

Three million

c)

One million

d)

Six million

5.

Which event sped up the Great Migration in 1917?

a)

The U.S. entering World War I

b)

The Great Depression

c)

The invention of the automobile

d)

The Civil Rights Movement

6.

What type of work did many African American migrants do before moving north?

a)

Sharecropping

b)

Factory work

c)

Mining

d)

Teaching

7.

Which city saw a 611.3% increase in its African American population between 1910 and 1920?

a)

Detroit

b)

Chicago

c)

New York

d)

Philadelphia

8.

What nickname was given to Harlem during the Great Migration?

a)

Black Mecca

b)

Bronzeville

c)

Black Bottom

d)

Jazz City

9.

What cultural movement emerged in Harlem during the 1920s?

a)

The Jazz Revolution

b)

The Harlem Renaissance

c)

The Great Awakening

d)

The Civil Rights Movement

10.

Where did jazz music originate?

a)

Chicago

b)

New Orleans

c)

Memphis

d)

Harlem

11.

Which musician was known as a virtuoso trumpeter and innovator in jazz?

a)

King Oliver

b)

Count Basie

c)

Duke Ellington

d)

Louis Armstrong

12.

What was the name of Louis Armstrong's first band in Chicago?

a)

The Cotton Club Orchestra

b)

King Oliver’s Creole Jazz Band

c)

The Chicago Swing Band

d)

The Harlem Jazz Ensemble

13.

What dance became wildly popular during the rise of jazz in the 1920s?

a)

The Charleston

b)

The Waltz

c)

The Tango

d)

The Foxtrot

14.

Which iconic venue in New York was associated with jazz music?

a)

The Apollo Theater

b)

The Cotton Club

c)

The Blue Note

d)

The Roseland Ballroom

15.

What style of jazz was Count Basie known for in Kansas City?

a)

Classical

b)

Ragtime

c)

Swing

d)

Blues

16.

Which African American infantry band introduced jazz to Europe during World War I?

a)

The Chicago Defender Band

b)

The 369th Infantry Band

c)

The Harlem Jazz Band

d)

The Creole Jazz Band

17.

Who rose to fame in Paris during the 1920s with bold performances and an iconic banana skirt?

a)

Josephine Baker

b)

Bessie Smith

c)

Billie Holiday

d)

Ella Fitzgerald

18.

What technological advancement in 1925 improved the sound quality of jazz records?

a)

Vinyl records

b)

Stereo sound

c)

Radio broadcasting

d)

Electrical recording

19.

Which cities outside the U.S. had thriving jazz scenes by the mid-1920s?

a)

Rome, Madrid, and Lisbon

b)

Moscow, St. Petersburg, and Kiev

c)

Tokyo, Shanghai, and Seoul

d)

London, Paris, and Berlin

20.

What did Joseph Stalin declare jazz to be in 1928?

a)

A tool for propaganda

b)

A symbol of Soviet innovation

c)

A form of classical music

d)

An expression of degenerate bourgeoisie-capitalism

21.

What did many traditional thinkers believe about jazz music?

a)

It was only suitable for adults

b)

It encouraged bad behavior

c)

It was a form of classical music

d)

It was a patriotic genre

22.

What was jazz closely associated with during the Roaring Twenties?

a)

The freewheeling spirit of the era

b)

The Great Depression

c)

The Civil Rights Movement

d)

The Harlem Renaissance

23.

Which newspaper promoted employment opportunities in Chicago during the Great Migration?

a)

The Washington Post

b)

The Detroit Free Press

c)

The New York Times

d)

The Chicago Defender

24.

What was the nickname for African American neighborhoods created during the Great Migration?

a)

Bronzeville

b)

Jazzville

c)

Freedomville

d)

Blacktown

25.

What genre of music did African American soldiers introduce to Europe during World War I?

a)

Ragtime

b)

Swing

c)

Blues

d)

Jazz

26.

What was the primary reason many African Americans chose to remain in France after World War I?

a)

To work in French factories

b)

To escape Jim Crow laws

c)

To join the French military

d)

To study art and music

27.

What was the impact of radio on jazz music in the 1920s?

a)

It brought jazz into homes across the country

b)

It replaced live performances

c)

It limited jazz to urban areas

d)

It reduced the popularity of jazz

28.

Which dance hall banned jazz music for being 'vulgar and noisy'?

a)

The Roseland Ballroom

b)

The Apollo Theater

c)

Many colleges and dance halls

d)

The Cotton Club

29.

What was one criticism of jazz music during the 1920s?

a)

It was seen as a threat to traditional Anglo-Saxon values

b)

It lacked rhythm

c)

It was considered too complex

d)

It was only popular in rural areas

30.

By the end of the 1920s, what had jazz firmly established itself as?

a)

A major force in American popular music

b)

A niche genre for African Americans

c)

A classical music style

d)

A fading trend

31.

Who coined the term 'Red Summer'?

a)

James Weldon Johnson

b)

Booker T. Washington

c)

Marcus Garvey

d)

W.E.B. Du Bois

32.

In which year did the 'Red Summer' occur?

a)

1915

b)

1917

c)

1919

d)

1920

33.

How many lynchings were recorded in 1919?

a)

36

b)

76

c)

50

d)

18

34.

What term do some historians prefer to describe organized attacks on African Americans during the 'Red Summer'?

a)

Insurrection

b)

Massacre

c)

Race riots

d)

Protests

35.

Where did the Elaine Massacre take place?

a)

Chicago, Illinois

b)

Washington, D.C.

c)

Phillips County, Arkansas

d)

Knoxville, Tennessee

36.

What was the primary reason African American cotton farmers in Phillips County, Arkansas, gathered at a local church?

a)

To discuss religious matters

b)

To organize a protest march

c)

To celebrate a holiday

d)

To form a union

37.

How many African Americans were killed during the Elaine Massacre?

a)

38

b)

Over 200

c)

76

d)

500

38.

What event sparked the Chicago race riot in July 1919?

a)

The drowning of Eugene Williams

b)

A police shooting

c)

A labor strike

d)

A political rally

39.

How many days did the Chicago race riot last?

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

3 days

d)

10 days

40.

How many people died during the Chicago race riot?

a)

76

b)

500

c)

38

d)

250

41.

What was the main cause of the racial violence during the 'Red Summer'?

a)

Natural disasters

b)

Economic rivalry

c)

Political protests

d)

Religious differences

42.

What demographic shift contributed to the tensions during the 'Red Summer'?

a)

The Harlem Renaissance

b)

The Civil Rights Movement

c)

The Industrial Revolution

d)

The Great Migration

43.

What was Eugene Williams doing when he was attacked?

a)

Swimming in Lake Michigan

b)

Walking in a park

c)

Riding a streetcar

d)

Attending a church meeting

44.

Which group was involved in sparking the Washington, D.C., riot?

a)

African American veterans

b)

Federal troops

c)

White servicemen and the Home Defense League

d)

Union workers

45.

What did President Wilson fear the D.C. riot might affect?

a)

America's international reputation

b)

The military

c)

The upcoming election

d)

The economy

46.

How many African American men served in the U.S. military during World War I?

a)

250,000

b)

400,000

c)

500,000

d)

1,000,000

47.

What organization did Marcus Garvey lead?

a)

NAACP

b)

The Negro World

c)

Black Star Line

d)

UNIA

48.

Where was Marcus Garvey born?

a)

Harlem, New York

b)

St. Ann's Bay, Jamaica

c)

Chicago, Illinois

d)

Washington, D.C.

49.

What slogan did Marcus Garvey popularize?

a)

Black Lives Matter

b)

Africa for the Africans

c)

Equal Rights for All

d)

Freedom and Justice

50.

What was the name of the UNIA's newspaper?

a)

The Negro World

b)

The Freedom Press

c)

The Black Star

d)

The African Times

51.

How many branches did the UNIA establish within five years?

a)

2,000

b)

1,000

c)

500

d)

3,000

52.

What was the name of the UNIA's headquarters in Harlem?

a)

Liberty Hall

b)

Freedom Hall

c)

Independence Hall

d)

Unity Hall

53.

How many people attended Marcus Garvey's mass meetings in August 1920?

a)

10,000

b)

15,000

c)

25,000

d)

50,000

54.

What was the name of the UNIA's female auxiliary group?

a)

Freedom Fighters

b)

African Legion

c)

Black Cross Nurses

d)

Liberty Women

55.

What did Marcus Garvey wear during the UNIA parade?

a)

A military uniform with gold-braided epaulets

b)

Traditional African attire

c)

A suit and tie

d)

A simple robe

56.

Which prominent African American leader opposed Marcus Garvey?

a)

Malcolm X

b)

Booker T. Washington

c)

W.E.B. Du Bois

d)

James Weldon Johnson

57.

What organization did W.E.B. Du Bois co-found?

a)

UNIA

b)

Black Star Line

c)

The Negro World

d)

NAACP

58.

What was Marcus Garvey accused of by federal agents?

a)

Inciting riots

b)

Tax evasion

c)

Mail fraud

d)

Being a German spy

59.

What was the name of Marcus Garvey's shipping company?

a)

African Star Line

b)

Liberty Line

c)

Freedom Line

d)

Black Star Line

60.

Which leader revived Black Nationalism in the 1960s inspired by Garvey's ideals?

a)

Malcolm X

b)

Martin Luther King Jr.

c)

W.E.B. Du Bois

d)

James Weldon Johnson

61.

What did the Eighteenth Amendment enforce?

a)

A ban on alcohol consumption

b)

A ban on gambling

c)

A ban on tobacco products

d)

A ban on the manufacture, sale, and transport of beverages with an alcohol content above 0.05 percent

62.

Which organization was at the forefront of the temperance movement?

a)

Women’s Christian Temperance Union (WCTU)

b)

League of Women Voters

c)

National Women’s Party (NWP)

d)

National American Woman Suffrage Association (NAWSA)

63.

What values shaped the prohibition movement?

a)

Secular values

b)

Catholic values

c)

Jewish values

d)

Protestant values

64.

Which act enforced the constitutional ban on alcohol?

a)

The Equal Rights Amendment

b)

The Sheppard-Towner Maternity Act

c)

The Volstead Act

d)

The National Prohibition Act

65.

What was the nickname given to President Wilson by protesters?

a)

Dictator Wilson

b)

General Wilson

c)

Kaiser Wilson

d)

Emperor Wilson

66.

Which amendment gave women the right to vote?

a)

The Equal Rights Amendment

b)

The Twenty-First Amendment

c)

The Nineteenth Amendment

d)

The Eighteenth Amendment

67.

When did the Nineteenth Amendment become law?

a)

January 17, 1920

b)

August 18, 1920

c)

July 4, 1921

d)

March 15, 1919

68.

Which state was the first to grant women the right to vote?

a)

Montana

b)

Wyoming

c)

California

d)

New York

69.

What percentage of eligible women voted in the 1920 national election?

a)

35%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

25%

70.

What was the primary focus of the National Women’s Party (NWP) after 1920?

a)

Prohibition

b)

Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)

c)

City beautification

d)

Child labor laws

71.

What was the Sheppard-Towner Maternity Act of 1921 designed to provide?

a)

Equal voting rights for women

b)

Support for the temperance movement

c)

Government funding for health care and services for mothers and children

d)

Prohibition enforcement funding

72.

Which group opposed the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA) after 1920?

a)

Women’s Christian Temperance Union (WCTU)

b)

National American Woman Suffrage Association (NAWSA)

c)

National Women’s Party (NWP)

d)

League of Women Voters

73.

What was the estimated drop in alcohol consumption after the Eighteenth Amendment?

a)

10-20%

b)

5-15%

c)

30-60%

d)

70-80%

74.

What term was used to describe illegal bars during Prohibition?

a)

Gin halls

b)

Speakeasies

c)

Taverns

d)

Beer gardens

75.

Which country was a major source of smuggled alcohol during Prohibition?

a)

Germany

b)

France

c)

Canada

d)

Mexico

76.

What was the popular image of the Roaring Twenties?

a)

A time of political instability

b)

An era of strict moral reform

c)

A period of glamorous gin-soaked parties and champagne toasts

d)

A time of economic depression

77.

What percentage of federal inmates were incarcerated for Prohibition-related offenses by 1930?

a)

33%

b)

25%

c)

10%

d)

50%

78.

Which amendment repealed Prohibition?

a)

The Twenty-First Amendment

b)

The Equal Rights Amendment

c)

The Eighteenth Amendment

d)

The Nineteenth Amendment

79.

What was the primary reason for President Wilson’s veto of the National Prohibition Act?

a)

He wanted stricter enforcement measures

b)

He opposed government intervention

c)

He believed the emergency rationale was obsolete after the war

d)

He supported alcohol consumption

80.

What was the League of Women Voters’ membership by 1930?

a)

500,000

b)

1 million

c)

2 million

d)

100,000

81.

What tactic did Alice Paul and the National Women’s Party (NWP) use to protest?

a)

Public debates

b)

Peaceful marches

c)

Militant protests and picketing

d)

Petitions to Congress

82.

What was the Woman’s Land Army of America’s contribution during World War I?

a)

Prohibition enforcement

b)

Medical aid

c)

Agricultural labor

d)

Military service

83.

What was the public reaction to Alice Paul’s imprisonment and force-feeding?

a)

Support for her protest

b)

Outrage over her treatment

c)

Indifference to her cause

d)

Approval of her punishment

84.

Which political parties endorsed votes for women in 1916?

a)

Democratic and Republican

b)

Democratic and Socialist

c)

Republican and Green

d)

Libertarian and Democratic

85.

What was the primary focus of Carrie Chapman Catt’s NAWSA during World War I?

a)

Opposition to the war

b)

Militant protests

c)

Loyal contributions to the war effort

d)

Prohibition enforcement

86.

What did the Sheppard-Towner Maternity Act provide funding for?

a)

Education reform

b)

Prohibition enforcement

c)

Health care for mothers and children

d)

Equal voting rights

87.

What was the primary reason African American women were disenfranchised after the Nineteenth Amendment?

a)

Lack of interest in voting

b)

Formal and informal restrictions on Black voting

c)

Opposition from suffrage organizations

d)

Economic barriers

88.

What was the primary goal of the Equal Rights Amendment (ERA)?

a)

To provide health care for mothers

b)

To ban alcohol

c)

To guarantee voting rights for women

d)

To prevent discrimination on the basis of sex

89.

What was the major victory for women progressives in 1921?

a)

Prohibition enforcement

b)

The Equal Rights Amendment

c)

The Sheppard-Towner Maternity Act

d)

The Nineteenth Amendment

90.

What was the primary reason for the decline of major suffrage organizations after 1920?

a)

Lack of funding

b)

Failure to achieve their goals

c)

Splintering along racial, class, and ideological lines

d)

Opposition from the government

91.

Who was elected as the President of the United States in 1920?

a)

James Cox

b)

Woodrow Wilson

c)

William Howard Taft

d)

Warren G. Harding

92.

What was Warren G. Harding's profession before entering politics?

a)

Lawyer

b)

Newspaper owner

c)

Teacher

d)

Doctor

93.

Which state was Warren G. Harding from?

a)

New York

b)

Ohio

c)

California

d)

Texas

94.

In which year did Warren G. Harding become a U.S. Senator?

a)

1918

b)

1916

c)

1914

d)

1912

95.

What was Warren G. Harding's campaign slogan in the 1920 election?

a)

Forward Together

b)

Change We Can Believe In

c)

Return to Normalcy

d)

Make America Great Again

96.

Who was Warren G. Harding's Democratic opponent in the 1920 election?

a)

James Cox

b)

Woodrow Wilson

c)

Calvin Coolidge

d)

Franklin D. Roosevelt

97.

What percentage of the popular vote did Warren G. Harding win in the 1920 election?

a)

50.3%

b)

55.7%

c)

60.3%

d)

65.1%

98.

What was the main theme of Warren G. Harding's campaign?

a)

Heroism

b)

Normalcy

c)

Experimentation

d)

Revolution

99.

What was Harding's approach to campaigning during the 1920 election?

a)

Nationwide tours

b)

Front porch campaign

c)

Large rallies

d)

Radio broadcasts

100.

What was the outcome of the 1920 election in the Electoral College?

a)

404 votes for Harding

b)

300 votes for Harding

c)

250 votes for Harding

d)

500 votes for Harding

101.

What economic condition persisted into 1921 after Harding's election?

a)

Economic boom

b)

Sharp economic downturn

c)

Stable economy

d)

Hyperinflation

102.

What was Harding's stance on the League of Nations during his campaign?

a)

Avoided taking a firm stance

b)

Strongly opposed it

c)

Strongly supported it

d)

Proposed an alternative

103.

What policy did Harding endorse in his inaugural address?

a)

Wilsonian internationalism

b)

Interventionism

c)

Globalism

d)

Isolationism

104.

What did Harding emphasize in his inaugural address regarding foreign policy?

a)

Entanglement in Old World affairs

b)

Noninvolvement in Old World affairs

c)

Support for the League of Nations

d)

Expansion of U.S. territories

105.

What was the purpose of the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

To end World War I

b)

To prevent a naval arms race

c)

To expand naval power

d)

To form a global navy

106.

Which three countries had the largest navies at the time of the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

U.S., Japan, and Germany

b)

U.S., Britain, and Japan

c)

Britain, France, and Italy

d)

U.S., Britain, and France

107.

Who led the American delegation at the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

Charles Evans Hughes

b)

William Howard Taft

c)

Warren G. Harding

d)

James Cox

108.

What was the 5:5:3 ratio agreed upon at the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

U.S.:Britain:France

b)

U.S.:Britain:Japan

c)

U.S.:France:China

d)

U.S.:Japan:Italy

109.

What did the Five-Power Treaty establish?

a)

A global navy

b)

A ban on naval ships

c)

A 5:5:3 ratio for capital vessels

d)

A new naval arms race

110.

Which treaty recognized the U.S. Open Door Policy in China?

a)

Versailles Treaty

b)

Nine-Power Treaty

c)

Four-Power Treaty

d)

Five-Power Treaty

111.

What was the purpose of the Four-Power Treaty?

a)

To limit naval arms

b)

To respect claims in the Pacific

c)

To establish naval supremacy

d)

To end World War I

112.

What was the reaction of the press to the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

Divided

b)

Overwhelmingly positive

c)

Indifferent

d)

Highly critical

113.

What did some naval experts criticize about the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

It surrendered America's chance for naval primacy

b)

It ignored Japan's interests

c)

It led to a new arms race

d)

It caused economic instability

114.

How many ships did the United States build between 1922 and 1929?

a)

11

b)

125

c)

50

d)

100

115.

How many ships did Japan build between 1922 and 1929?

a)

50

b)

11

c)

100

d)

125

116.

What was the main criticism of the Washington Naval Conference by historians?

a)

It delayed major conflict in the Pacific

b)

It caused economic instability

c)

It led to the League of Nations

d)

It increased naval spending

117.

What was Harding's approach to foreign policy compared to Wilson's?

a)

More diplomatic

b)

More aggressive

c)

More isolationist

d)

More interventionist

118.

What was the main goal of the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

To end World War I

b)

To limit naval arms

c)

To form a global navy

d)

To expand U.S. naval power

119.

What was the result of the Washington Naval Conference in terms of treaties?

a)

Two treaties were signed

b)

Three treaties were signed

c)

Four treaties were signed

d)

One treaty was signed

120.

What was the public's perception of Harding's leadership after the Washington Naval Conference?

a)

Statesmanlike

b)

Indifferent

c)

Unpopular

d)

Divisive