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Airframe sys 100

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Control surface flutter is minimized by:

a)

reducing the moment of the critical engine

b)

aerodynamic balance of the control cables

c)

changing the wings before they reach their critical life

d)

mass balance of the control surface

2.

A damage tolerant structure:

a)

has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area

b)

is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft

c)

is replaced when it reaches its predicted life

d)

need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

3.

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

a)

light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

b)

magnesium alloy sheets with aluminum rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high strength

c)

aluminum alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

d)

aluminum sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength

4.

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

a)

the maximum permissible take-off mass of the aircraft

b)

the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no usable fuel

c)

the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload

d)

the maximum permissible landing mass

5.

A shuttle valve:

a)

is used to replace NRVs

b)

allows two supply sources to operate one unit

c)

allows one source to operate two units

d)

acts as a non-return valve

6.

A restrictor valve:

a)

is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure

b)

controls the rate of movement of a service

c)

controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system

d)

controls the distance a jack moves

7.

A relief valve:

a)

relieves below system pressure

b)

maintains pressure to a priority circuit

c)

relieves at its designed pressure

d)

prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature

8.

With air in the hydraulic system, you would:

a)

ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b)

bleed the air out of the system

c)

allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself

d)

expect it to operate faster

9.

Pascal's law states that:

a)

pressure is inversely proportional to load

b)

liquid is compressible

c)

oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators

d)

applied force acts equally in all directions

10.

A high pressure hydraulic pump:

a)

needs a positive fluid supply

b)

does not need a positive fluid supply

c)

outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force

d)

does not need a cooling fluid flow

11.

The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a)

relieve excess pressure

b)

store fluid under pressure

c)

store compressed gas for tyre inflation

d)

remove air from the system

12.

A separator in an accumulator:

a)

isolates the gas from the fluid

b)

reduces the size of the accumulator required

c)

removes the dissolved gases from the fluid

d)

maintains the fluid level in the reservoir

13.

In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:

a)

greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack

b)

greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator

c)

high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel

d)

the same at all points

14.

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

a)

enables ground operation of services when the engines are off

b)

is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services

c)

is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure

d)

is used to increase pressure in the system

15.

A hydraulic lock occurs:

a)

when the thermal RV operates

b)

when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank

c)

when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move

d)

when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir

16.

A non-return valve:

a)

can only be fitted if provided with a by-pass selector

b)

closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure

c)

opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure

d)

closes if inlet pressure ceases

17.

The purpose of a reservoir is to:

a)

compensate for temperature changes

b)

compensate for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement

c)

compensate for fluid loss

d)

minimize pump cavitation

18.

When the hydraulic system pressure is released:

a)

reservoir air pressure will increase

b)

reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system

c)

reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system

d)

reservoir contents are dumped overboard

19.

A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:

a)

minimum stroke

b)

an optimized position depending on fluid viscosity

c)

maximum stroke

d)

mid stroke

20.

A main system hydraulic pump:

a)

does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup

b)

always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation

c)

does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation

d)

can be run dry without causing any damage

21.

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

a)

support the weight of the aircraft

b)

limit the speed of compression of the strut

c)

lubricate the piston within the cylinder

d)

limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut

22.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:

a)

there is limited space in the nose wheel bay

b)

the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight

c)

the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight

d)

it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off

23.

Creep (slippage):

a)

is not a problem with tubeless tyres

b)

refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes

c)

alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate the tyre

d)

can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

24.

Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a)

fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked

b)

removed prior to flight and returned to stores

c)

fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the downlock jack

d)

removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

25.

A nose wheel steering control system:

a)

prevents the nose wheel from castoring at all times

b)

allows the nose wheel to castor within preset limits about the neutral position

c)

allows the nose wheel to castor freely at all times

d)

prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nose wheels are not centralized

26.

The ply rating of a tyre:

a)

always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

b)

never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

c)

indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted

d)

is the index of the tyre strength

27.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

a)

to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

b)

to change the direction of the control cable

c)

to ensure smooth operation of the system

d)

to prevent the cable from slackening

28.

The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a)

to set the range of movement of the control surface

b)

to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced

c)

to limit control movement to one direction only

d)

to set the control surface neutral position

29.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

b)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

c)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

d)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

30.

To roll the aircraft to the right:

a)

the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down

b)

the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down

c)

the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

d)

the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

31.

Main and nose wheel bays are:

a)

pressurized

b)

unpressurized

c)

conditioned

d)

different, with the mains being unpressurized and the nose pressuriz

32.

In level pressurized flight what does the outflow valve do?

a)

Close

b)

Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open

c)

Open to increase air conditioning

d)

Adjust to provide maximum flow, and is normally almost closed

33.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a)

number of pressurization cycles

b)

number of explosive decompressions

c)

number of landings only

d)

number of cycles at maximum differential

34.

Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:

a)

air data computer output information

b)

cabin and static pressure

c)

cabin pressure, static and air speed information

d)

cabin pressure only

35.

How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a)

By expanding over turbine

b)

By expanding over turbine driving compressor

c)

Via an air cooled radiator

d)

By passing it through the fuel heater

36.

Maximum differential pressure:

a)

is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

b)

is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump

c)

is the pressure loss over a given time limit

d)

is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

37.

Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:

a)

the engine compressor or cabin compressor

b)

the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct

c)

the engine compressor or ram turbine

d)

the engine turbine or cabin compressor

38.

Negative differential is limited by:

a)

dump valve

b)

inward relief valve

c)

outflow valve

d)

safety valve

39.

Safety valves operate:

a)

at higher than maximum differential

b)

as soon as initiation takes place

c)

at a lower diff than a discharge valve

d)

at a set value, which is selected

40.

When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

41.

If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor it:

a)

increases the charge air temperature

b)

decreases the charge air temperature

c)

decreases the charge air pressure

d)

makes no change to the charge air condition

42.

A pressurization system works by:

a)

essentially constant input mass flow and variable output

b)

essentially constant output mass flow and variable input

c)

does not start until an altitude of 8000 ft has been reached

d)

supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system

43.

The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:

a)

10 000 ft

b)

17 500 ft

c)

25 000 ft

d)

30 000 ft

44.

In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a)

only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection

b)

only on passenger inhalation through the mask

c)

only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft

d)

only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot

45.

Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a)

1000 psi

b)

1200 psi

c)

1800 psi

d)

2000 psi

46.

The colour of American and European oxygen cylinders is:

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

green

d)

brown

47.

If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14 000 ft oxygen will be available to the passengers by:

a)

the stewardess who will hand out masks

b)

the passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers

c)

portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs

d)

masks automatically ejected to a half-hung position

48.

A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilized to:

a)

jettison and transfer fuel

b)

jettison and heat the fuel

c)

transfer and heat the fuel

d)

transfer and recycle the fuel

49.

The fuel cross-feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:

a)

the use of fuel from any tank to any engine

b)

refuelling when only one bowser is in use

c)

isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire

d)

transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks

50.

Fuel is heated:

a)

to stop cavitation in the High Pressure fuel pump

b)

to maintain a constant viscosity

c)

to prevent water contamination

d)

to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter

51.

A torsion box:

a)

is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads

b)

is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads

c)

is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear

d)

is a structure designed to reduce the weight

52.

Control surface flutter is minimized by:

a)

reducing the moment of the critical engine

b)

aerodynamic balance of the control cables

c)

changing the wings before they reach their critical life

d)

mass balance of the control surface

53.

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:

a)

high operating fluid temperature

b)

system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion

c)

a rise in the reservoir fill level

d)

normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used

54.

The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

a)

to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion

b)

to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored

c)

to indicate system contents

d)

to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator

55.

The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

a)

filters the fluid returning to the tank

b)

is fitted down stream of the pump

c)

can be by passed when maximum flow is required

d)

clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir

56.

The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a)

relieve excess pressure

b)

store fluid under pressure

c)

store compressed gas for tyre inflation

d)

remove air from the system

57.

With a one way check valve (NRV):

a)

flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure

b)

flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump

c)

flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure

d)

flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure

58.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:

a)

there is limited space in the nose wheel bay

b)

the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight

c)

the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight

d)

it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off

59.

Creep (slippage):

a)

is not a problem with tubeless tyres

b)

refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes

c)

alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate the tyre

d)

can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

60.

Tyre wear when taxiing can be reduced by:

a)

restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers

b)

taxiing at less than 40 kph

c)

staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway

d)

taxiing at less than 25 knots

61.

Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a)

fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked

b)

removed prior to flight and returned to stores

c)

fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the downlock jack

d)

removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

62.

A nose wheel steering control system:

a)

prevents the nose wheel from castoring at all times

b)

allows the nose wheel to castor within preset limits about the neutral position

c)

allows the nose wheel to castor freely at all times

d)

prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nose wheels are not centralized

63.

The ply rating of a tyre:

a)

always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

b)

never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass

c)

indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted

d)

is the index of the tyre strength

64.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

a)

to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

b)

to change the direction of the control cable

c)

to ensure smooth operation of the system

d)

to prevent the cable from slackening

65.

The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a)

to set the range of movement of the control surface

b)

to enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced

c)

to limit control movement to one direction only

d)

to set the control surface neutral position

66.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

b)

the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right

c)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

d)

the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

67.

To roll the aircraft to the right:

a)

the rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down

b)

the aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down

c)

the aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

d)

the aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

68.

Main and nose wheel bays are:

a)

pressurized

b)

unpressurized

c)

conditioned

d)

different, with the mains being unpressurized and the nose pressurized

69.

A/C in level flight: if cabin altitude increases, pressure diff:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

70.

In level pressurized flight what does the outflow valve do?

a)

Close

b)

Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open

c)

Open to increase air conditioning

d)

Adjust to provide maximum flow, and is normally almost closed

71.

The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This is more important:

a)

in descent

b)

in climb

c)

in periods when the dehumidifier is in use

d)

in cruise

72.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a)

number of pressurization cycles

b)

number of explosive decompressions

c)

number of landings only

d)

number of cycles at maximum differential

73.

Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

a)

special gauge

b)

aircraft VSI

c)

cabin pressure controller

d)

gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure

74.

Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:

a)

air data computer output information

b)

cabin and static pressure

c)

cabin pressure, static and air speed information

d)

cabin pressure only

75.

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?

a)

To protect the undercarriage bay

b)

To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated

c)

To prevent damage to the ducts

d)

To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line

76.

How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a)

By expanding over turbine

b)

By expanding over turbine driving compressor

c)

Via an air cooled radiator

d)

By passing it through the fuel heater

77.

A heat exchanger functions by:

a)

combining ram and charge air

b)

mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger

c)

passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts

d)

removing the static charge

78.

Maximum differential pressure:

a)

is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure

b)

is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump

c)

is the pressure loss over a given time limit

d)

is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

79.

If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

a)

the duct relief valve will take control

b)

the inward relief valve would assume control

c)

the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference

d)

the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference

80.

Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:

a)

the engine compressor or cabin compressor

b)

the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct

c)

the engine compressor or ram turbine

d)

the engine turbine or cabin compressor

81.

In the cruise at 30 000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000 ft to 6000 ft:

a)

cabin differential will increase

b)

cabin differential will not be affected

c)

cabin differential will decrease

d)

nil.

82.

Negative differential is limited by:

a)

dump valve

b)

inward relief valve

c)

outflow valve

d)

safety valve

83.

To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:

a)

a duct relief valve is fitted

b)

a venturi device is fitted

c)

a mass flow controller is fitted

d)

a thermostatic relief valve is fitted

84.

Safety valves operate:

a)

at higher than maximum differential

b)

as soon as initiation takes place

c)

at a lower diff than a discharge valve

d)

at a set value, which is selected

85.

During a normal pressurized cruise, the discharge valve position is:

a)

at a position pre-set before take-off

b)

partially open

c)

open until selected altitude is reached

d)

closed until selected altitude is reached

86.

When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

nil

87.

An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing on the ground by:

a)

the auto deflating valve on the main oleos

b)

inhibiting microswitches on the landing gear

c)

inhibiting microswitches on the throttles

d)

the pressure control master switch

88.

If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor it:

a)

increases the charge air temperature

b)

decreases the charge air temperature

c)

decreases the charge air pressure

d)

makes no change to the charge air condition

89.

The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a)

pressurization of the flight deck only

b)

the ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure

c)

the passenger cabin on an airliner

d)

the ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes

90.

A pressurization system works by:

a)

essentially constant input mass flow and variable output

b)

essentially constant output mass flow and variable input

c)

does not start until an altitude of 8000 ft has been reached

d)

supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system

91.

The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:

a)

10 000 ft

b)

17 500 ft

c)

25 000 ft

d)

30 000 ft

92.

In a pressure demand oxygen system:

a)

each member of the crew has a regulator

b)

each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply

c)

oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow

d)

oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise

93.

In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a)

only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection

b)

only on passenger inhalation through the mask

c)

only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft

d)

only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot

94.

If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:

a)

are released by the passengers

b)

automatically drop to a half-hung (ready position)

c)

are handed out by the cabin staff

d)

must be removed from the life jacket storage

95.

Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a)

1000 psi

b)

1200 psi

c)

1800 psi

d)

2000 psi

96.

Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

a)

litres/minute

b)

pounds/minute

c)

litres/second

d)

kilos/hour

97.

Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

a)

soap water

b)

grease

c)

oil

d)

graphite

98.

Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

a)

to assist in correct fuel distribution

b)

to prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres

c)

to prevent the static build-up in the tank during refuelling

d)

to channel fuel to the vent valve

99.

During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:

a)

high level float switches

b)

preset jettison quantity switches

c)

the crew remaining alert

d)

low level float switches

100.

Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurized:

a)

by air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation

b)

by air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation

c)

by ram air to prevent cavitation

d)

by ram air to stabilize the boiling point