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TM111C - Midterm Exam

Total questions: 81

Worksheet time: 2hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does Admission mean in the context of customs free zones?

a)

Bringing goods out of the Philippine territory

b)

Bringing imported goods directly or through transit into a free zone

c)

Completion of customs formalities to allow goods to enter for consumption

d)

Reduction of duties and taxes

2.

Which document is issued by airlines and international freight forwarders for airfreight and gives the holder or consignee the right to claim delivery at destination?

a)

Bill of Lading (B/L)

b)

Airway Bill (AWB)

c)

Export Declaration

d)

Goods Declaration

3.

Which term refers to the remedy by which a person aggrieved by an action, decision, order, or omission of the Bureau seeks redress before the Bureau, the Secretary of Finance, or competent court?

a)

Assessment

b)

Appeal

c)

Clearance

d)

Flexible Clause

4.

Assessment in customs primarily involves which activity?

a)

Issuing transport instructions to carriers

b)

Determining the amount of duties, taxes, and other charges due on imported and exported goods

c)

Consolidating shipments into a single lot

d)

Authorizing the operation of the Bureau of Customs

5.

Who is an Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) under this Act?

a)

Only the importer accredited by the Tariff Commission

b)

Any entity duly accredited by the Bureau based on WCO standards to promote secure and seamless movement of goods

c)

Only airlines authorized to carry international cargo

d)

Any holder of a professional customs broker license

6.

Which transport document is issued by shipping lines, carriers, and international freight forwarders for water-borne freight and gives the holder or consignee the right to claim delivery at the port of destination?

a)

Goods Declaration

b)

Airway Bill (AWB)

c)

Bill of Lading (B/L)

d)

Export Declaration

7.

Which term simply refers to the Bureau of Customs?

a)

Commission

b)

Carrier

c)

Bureau

d)

Customs Office

8.

Which body is meant when the term Commission is used in these definitions?

a)

Civil Service Commission

b)

Tariff Commission

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission

d)

National Economic and Development Authority

9.

Conditional Importation under the RKC allows which scenario?

a)

Permanent duty-free admission of goods for domestic consumption

b)

Temporary admission with conditional relief from duties and taxes for specific-purpose goods intended for reexportation within a specified period

c)

Immediate destruction of perishable goods at the border

d)

Export of goods without any documentation

10.

Customs Office refers to which of the following?

a)

Any private warehouse storing imported goods

b)

Any customs administrative unit authorized to perform functions under customs and tariff laws

c)

Only the head office of the Bureau of Customs

d)

The Tariff Commission

11.

Which statement best distinguishes a Customs Officer as defined here?

a)

A clerk who performs only manual duties in the Bureau

b)

A person whose duty involves discretion in performing the Bureau’s function; may also be an employee authorized to perform a specific function

c)

An officer of the Philippine National Police assigned to ports

d)

Any elected official overseeing trade

12.

Entry in customs practice involves which action?

a)

Bringing goods out of the Philippine territory

b)

The act, documentation, and process of bringing imported goods into the customs territory, including from free zones

c)

The valuation of goods for duty purposes

d)

Registering as an Authorized Economic Operator

13.

Exportation is defined as which of the following?

a)

The process of transferring goods between free zones

b)

The act, documentation, and process of bringing goods out of Philippine territory

c)

The reduction of import duties and taxes

d)

The completion of customs formalities for consumption

14.

An Export Declaration is primarily a statement indicating what?

a)

The valuation method used for import duties

b)

The procedure to be observed for taking out any exported goods and required particulars

c)

The rights of carriers in transit

d)

The conditions of carriage for air shipments

15.

Which authority is empowered under the Flexible Clause to recommend actions such as adjusting protective tariff rates, establishing quotas or bans, and imposing additional import duty not exceeding ten percent ad valorem?

a)

Tariff Commission

b)

National Economic and Development Authority (NEDA), with the President’s power upon recommendation

c)

Department of Finance

d)

Bureau of Customs

16.

A Foreign Exporter is identified in the law as which of the following?

a)

Any Philippine resident who exports to another country

b)

One whose name appears on documentation attesting to the export of a product to the Philippines regardless of the manufacturer’s name on the invoice

c)

Only the manufacturer of the goods exported to the Philippines

d)

Any freight forwarder handling export cargo

17.

Free Zone refers to what in this context?

a)

Any private bonded warehouse

b)

Special economic zones and freeports registered with the Philippine Economic Zone Authority under specified Republic Acts and similar laws

c)

Only zones created by local governments

d)

Areas outside Philippine jurisdiction

18.

Goods refers to which items under this section?

a)

Only tangible consumer goods

b)

Articles, wares, merchandise, and any other items subject of importation or exportation

c)

Only hazardous materials

d)

Services related to transportation

19.

Importation is defined as which act?

a)

Bringing goods from a foreign territory into Philippine territory for consumption, warehousing, or admission as defined in the Act

b)

The temporary entry of duty-free goods into free zones only

c)

The issuance of export permits

d)

The valuation of goods for tax purposes

20.

Which entity is described as a local intermediary that facilitates transport on behalf of a client without assuming the role of a carrier and can perform services like booking cargo space, preparing documents, and warehousing?

a)

International Freight Forwarder

b)

Freight Forwarder

c)

Carrier

d)

Customs Office

21.

Which term refers to the registration of a goods declaration with the Bureau?

a)

Jurisdictional Control

b)

Lodgement

c)

Reexportation

d)

Release of Goods

e)

Refund

22.

Which term refers to goods liable to perish or that depreciate greatly in value while stored or cannot be kept without great disproportionate expense?

a)

Security Goods

b)

Perishable Goods

c)

Transit Goods

d)

Conditional Imports

e)

Smuggled Goods

23.

What is a Port of Entry as defined in the material?

a)

Any private dock for domestic trade only

b)

A domestic port open to domestic and international trade, including principal ports and subports, and may include an airport of entry

c)

Only the main harbor of the capital city

d)

Any place where customs brokers file entries

e)

The port where goods are finally consumed

24.

Port of Discharge, also called Port of Unloading, refers to which location?

a)

Where the vessel first requests pilotage

b)

Where a vessel, ship, aircraft or train unloads its shipments for dispatch to consignees

c)

Where customs assessments are appealed

d)

Where export permits are issued

e)

Where security bonds are posted

25.

Reexportation means the exportation of which goods?

a)

Goods manufactured domestically

b)

Goods that have been imported

c)

Goods destined for transshipment

d)

Goods under conditional importation only

e)

Goods in free zones only

26.

Which action by the Bureau permits goods undergoing clearance to be placed at the disposal of the party concerned?

a)

Refund

b)

Release of Goods

c)

Tentative Release

d)

Security Issue

e)

Lodgement

27.

Which term covers any form of guaranty, such as a surety bond, cash bond, or irrevocable letter of credit, ensuring satisfaction of an obligation to the Bureau?

a)

Security

b)

Jurisdictional Control

c)

Transit

d)

Taxes

e)

Transshipment

28.

Technical Smuggling most closely involves which activity?

a)

Removing goods from customs control without paying duties

b)

Using fraudulent, falsified, or erroneous declarations of nature, kind, quality, quantity or weight to reduce or avoid prescribed taxes, duties and charges

c)

Bringing in prohibited goods

d)

Reexporting damaged items

e)

Failing to provide a security bond for temporary importation

29.

Transshipment is defined in the material as which process?

a)

Moving goods from one domestic city to another by truck

b)

Transferring goods under customs control from the importing means of transport to the exporting means within the area of one customs office, the office of both importation and exportation

c)

Exporting goods previously imported

d)

Shipping goods directly to a free zone without documents

e)

Dispatching goods from the port of discharge to final consignees

30.

Importation is deemed terminated when which of the following occurs?

a)

The vessel departs the last foreign port

b)

A customs officer inspects the cargo manifest

c)

The duties, taxes and other charges due have been paid or secured to be paid at the port of entry unless the goods are free from such charges or a legal permit for withdrawal has been granted; or when goods free of such charges have legally left the jurisdiction of the Bureau

d)

The importer books a domestic trucker

e)

The goods are advertised for auction

31.

When are duty and tax due on imported goods?

a)

Only after domestic sale

b)

Upon importation, including goods previously exported from the Philippines, except as otherwise provided

c)

Only when released from customs custody

d)

Only when an audit is completed

e)

Only for goods over a set value threshold

32.

What is the stated legal interest on unpaid duties, taxes and other charges computed from the date of final assessment until payment becomes due and demandable?

a)

10% per annum

b)

12% per annum

c)

15% per annum

d)

20% per annum

e)

25% per annum

33.

Which statement best distinguishes Smuggling from Technical Smuggling as defined?

a)

Smuggling involves erroneous declarations; Technical Smuggling involves prohibited goods only

b)

Smuggling is the fraudulent act of importing or assisting in dealing with fraudulently imported goods; Technical Smuggling uses fraudulent or erroneous declarations to reduce or avoid taxes and charges

c)

Both are identical in definition

d)

Technical Smuggling is limited to exports; Smuggling is limited to imports

e)

Smuggling pertains only to goods in free zones

34.

Which scenario describes a Tentative Release?

a)

Goods are released permanently after full payment

b)

Goods are held indefinitely pending court order

c)

Assessment is disputed and pending review, and the importer puts up a cash bond equivalent to the duties and taxes due to obtain release before final resolution

d)

Goods are reexported without any bond

e)

Goods are transferred from ship to ship within the same port

35.

Which taxes are included under the term Taxes as used in the material?

a)

Only customs duties

b)

All taxes, fees and charges imposed under this Act and the National Internal Revenue Code of 1997, as amended, and collected by the Bureau

c)

Only value-added tax on imports

d)

Only excise taxes on petroleum

e)

Only local government fees

36.

When are imported goods subject to the applicable tariff heading that is effective for import duties?

a)

At the date of importation or withdrawal from the warehouse for consumption

b)

At the time the shipment is booked with a carrier

c)

On the date the bill of lading is issued

d)

Only upon resale in the domestic market

37.

For goods withdrawn from free zones for introduction to the customs territory, when is the duty rate applicable?

a)

On the date of original admission to the free zone only

b)

On the date of withdrawal from the free zone

c)

On the date the invoice was issued

d)

On the date of final sale to consumers

38.

In a customs public auction, which duty rate applies to the goods?

a)

The rate at original importation

b)

The rate on the date of the auction

c)

The highest rate in the past six months

d)

A special reduced auction rate

39.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a possible declarant under the law?

a)

The importer holding the bill of lading

b)

The exporter owning the goods to be shipped out

c)

A customs broker under authority of the importer

d)

An auditor from the Department of Finance

40.

If the consignee is a juridical person, who may sign the goods declaration as declarant on its behalf?

a)

Only the company CEO

b)

A responsible officer authorized by the company

c)

Any employee with knowledge of logistics

d)

A representative from the shipping line

41.

During the two-year transition period from the effectivity of the Act, which subparagraph about declarants is not implemented?

a)

Importer as declarant

b)

Exporter as declarant

c)

Customs broker under authority as declarant

d)

Person empowered as agent or attorney-in-fact as declarant

42.

Who is responsible for the accuracy of the goods declaration and for payment of duties, taxes, and other charges due on imported goods?

a)

The Bureau

b)

The shipping line

c)

The declarant

d)

The warehouse operator

43.

What is the role of a licensed customs broker regarding the goods declaration?

a)

Solely responsible for paying duties and taxes

b)

Responsible for accuracy but not for payment of duties and taxes

c)

Not involved in signing the declaration

d)

Acts only as a witness

44.

Under what condition will the Bureau impose penalties for errors in goods declarations?

a)

For any error, regardless of intent

b)

Only when errors are inadvertent and without negligence

c)

To discourage repetition, provided penalties are not excessive

d)

Never, penalties are prohibited

45.

Which of the following actions shall the Bureau recognize or perform when prescribed requirements for electronic processes are met?

a)

Reject electronic documents as unreliable

b)

Transmit approvals only in paper form

c)

Accept payments and issue receipts through systems using electronic data messages

d)

Limit electronic communication to internal memos

46.

What standard must the security of data and communication align with under the Bureau’s ICT application?

a)

Only local standards set by the Bureau

b)

Applicable local and internationally accepted standards on information security

c)

The standards of the private vendor chosen

d)

No formal standards are required

47.

How should transactions directly handled by a party be treated compared to those through a designated third party?

a)

More stringently

b)

Less favorably

c)

Equally, not less favorably or more stringently

d)

They must be denied

48.

What does the Bureau commit to publish under Information of General Application?

a)

Only internal memos

b)

All laws, decisions, rulings, circulars, memoranda, and orders in accordance with law

c)

Only decisions that favor importers

d)

Nothing, to protect confidentiality

49.

What type of information may an interested party request under Information of a Specific Nature?

a)

Any confidential internal data

b)

Information relating to a specific matter not confidential or for internal use only

c)

Only historical tariff rates

d)

Only decisions already published

50.

Within what period must the Bureau issue a ruling and decision after submission of necessary documents and information?

a)

15 days

b)

30 days

c)

45 days

d)

60 days

51.

If the Bureau issues an adverse decision, what additional step must it take?

a)

Provide reasons and advise the party of the right of appeal

b)

Immediately impose penalties

c)

Refer the matter to a court

d)

Cancel the importation

52.

Within how many days from receipt of the questioned decision or order may an adversely affected party file an appeal?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

15 days

d)

30 days

53.

What may the Bureau allow regarding submission of supporting evidence for an appeal?

a)

No additional time

b)

A reasonable time

c)

Only 24 hours

d)

Only if fees are doubled

54.

Which statement best defines Free Importation and Exportation under Section 116?

a)

All goods may be freely imported and exported unless otherwise provided by law or regulation.

b)

Only perishable goods may be imported without permits.

c)

Goods can be imported freely only during a state of calamity.

d)

Goods may be exported freely only if taxes are prepaid.

55.

Under Section 117, what is required before importing or exporting goods that are subject to regulation?

a)

Payment of customs duties only

b)

Securing necessary goods declarations, clearances, licenses, and other requirements before importation or exportation

c)

A sworn statement of good faith from the importer

d)

A bond posted after release from customs

56.

Which of the following is listed as Prohibited Importation and Exportation under Section 118?

a)

Medicines approved by the Food and Drug Administration

b)

Written or printed goods advocating treason or sedition against the government of the Philippines

c)

Lottery tickets authorized by law

d)

Gold bars properly stamped with accurate fineness

57.

Section 119 describes Restricted Importation and Exportation. Which example falls under restricted goods unless authorized by law or regulation?

a)

Toys for children

b)

Dynamite, gunpowder, ammunitions and other explosives

c)

Books on Philippine history

d)

Agricultural seeds

58.

Under Section 119, which statement about narcotics and synthetic drugs is correct?

a)

They are freely importable if for personal use.

b)

They are restricted unless imported by the government of the Philippines or persons authorized by the Dangerous Drugs Board for medicinal purposes.

c)

They are permitted only if declared at the airport.

d)

They are prohibited only during elections.

59.

Which is one of the simplified customs procedures for relief consignments listed in Section 120?

a)

Mandatory full examination of all packages

b)

Lodging of a simplified or provisional goods declaration subject to later completion within a specified period

c)

Release only after normal business hours

d)

No document checking before arrival

60.

What is the Commission mandated to study with respect to tariff policies and programs?

a)

Their effect on government revenues only

b)

Their impact on national competitiveness and consumer welfare

c)

Their influence on foreign exchange rates exclusively

d)

Their role in election cycles

61.

Which task involves managing the Philippine tariff schedules and tariff nomenclatures?

a)

Issuing advance rulings

b)

Administering the tariff schedules

c)

Conducting public hearings

d)

Reviewing trade agreements

62.

Which function includes providing the President and Congress with independent analysis and technical support on tariff and nontariff measures?

a)

Public consultations

b)

Adjudication of trade remedies

c)

Policy support and guidance

d)

Promotion of foreign trade

63.

When analyzing the classification of goods, to which agencies must information be furnished according to the text?

a)

NEDA, DTI, DA, DOF, DENR, and BSP

b)

NBI, DOJ, DFA, and BSP

c)

DOH, DepEd, DILG, and NEDA

d)

BIR, BOC, DSWD, and DND

64.

For disputes over tariff classification, to whom may the Commission deputize or delegate its function, subject to conditions on plantilla positions and a time limit?

a)

Any private law firm

b)

An appropriate government agency

c)

Any international organization

d)

A foreign customs authority

65.

What power does the Commission have during investigations regarding documents and testimony?

a)

Only request voluntary submissions

b)

Summon witnesses, take testimony, administer oaths, and issue subpoena duces tecum for production of documents

c)

Seize documents without process

d)

Impose criminal penalties

66.

Under the Flexible Clause, upon NEDA’s recommendation, which of the following is NOT among the President’s empowered actions?

a)

Increase, reduce, or remove existing import duty rates within limits

b)

Establish import quotas or ban imports of any commodity

c)

Impose an additional duty not exceeding ten percent ad valorem on all imports

d)

Unilaterally amend the Constitution to change tariff powers

67.

What is the maximum increased rate of import duty allowed under the Flexible Clause?

a)

50% ad valorem

b)

75% ad valorem

c)

100% ad valorem

d)

150% ad valorem

68.

Before recommending changes to the President (except for additional duty not exceeding 10% ad valorem), what must the Commission conduct?

a)

A national referendum

b)

An investigation and public hearings with reasonable opportunity to be heard

c)

A joint session of Congress

d)

A Supreme Court consultation

69.

When modifying the form of duty under the Flexible Clause, what basis must be used for the corresponding ad valorem or specific equivalents?

a)

Average global prices for the past decade

b)

Imports from the principal competing foreign country for the most recent representative period

c)

Domestic wholesale prices last year

d)

Projected prices for the next fiscal year

70.

In modifying import duties under trade agreements, what limitation must be observed according to Section 1609(a)?

a)

Only the advice of the BSP

b)

The requirements of Section 1608(a) on the Flexible Clause

c)

A fixed 5% cap on duty changes

d)

None; the President has absolute discretion

71.

Under Section 1609(b), to which goods do the modified duties and import restrictions apply?

a)

All goods from all countries

b)

Only goods produced domestically

c)

Goods that are the growth, produce, or manufacture of the specific country with which the Philippines has entered a trade agreement

d)

Only goods imported by state enterprises

72.

Which statement best describes Congress’s role regarding the delegated power under the Flexible Clause?

a)

Congress must approve every presidential order

b)

Congress may withdraw or terminate the delegated power through a joint resolution

c)

Congress has no authority over delegated tariff powers

d)

Congress directly sets all import quotas

73.

Which statement best reflects the rule on packing materials and containers under the GRI?

a)

They are always classified separately from the goods they contain

b)

They are classified with the goods if of a kind normally used for packing such goods, unless clearly suitable for repetitive use

c)

They are classified with the goods only when made of paper

d)

They are subject to a flat 10% ad valorem rate regardless of classification

74.

Which existing legal provision continues to apply and supplement the Act for tariff sections, chapters, headings, and subheadings and the rates of import duty?

a)

Section 514 of Presidential Decree No. 1464

b)

Section 104 of Presidential Decree No. 1464 (Tariff and Customs Code of 1978, as amended)

c)

Section 1608 of this Act

d)

An executive order issued by the Department of Trade and Industry

75.

What additional duty is imposed on products of any foreign country that discriminates against Philippine export products?

a)

An additional 10% duty on selected goods

b)

A surcharge determined by NEDA

c)

An additional 100% across-the-board duty

d)

A temporary quota with no duty change

76.

Which provision continues to apply and supplement the Act with respect to export products subject to duty and their rates?

a)

Section 104 of Presidential Decree No. 1464

b)

Section 1609 of this Act

c)

Section 514 of Presidential Decree No. 1464 (Tariff and Customs Code of 1978, as amended)

d)

A new schedule issued solely by the President

77.

What is the official name of the committee established to monitor implementation under Title XVII?

a)

Congressional Budget Review Committee

b)

Congressional Customs and Tariff Oversight Committee

c)

Joint Executive-Legislative Trade Council

d)

NEDA Oversight Panel

78.

Who composes the Congressional Customs and Tariff Oversight Committee as constituted by the Act?

a)

Only the Secretaries of Finance and Trade

b)

The President, the Senate President, and the Speaker

c)

The Chairpersons of the Committees on Ways and Means of the Senate and House plus four additional members from each House designated by their respective leaders

d)

Nine members appointed solely by the Senate

79.

Which official is mandated to promulgate the necessary implementing rules and regulations for the effective implementation of the Act, and upon whose recommendation?

a)

The Commissioner, upon the recommendation of the Secretary of Finance

b)

The Secretary of Finance, upon the recommendation of the Commissioner

c)

The President, upon the recommendation of the Secretary of Justice

d)

The Speaker of the House, upon the recommendation of the Commissioner

80.

What is the effect of the Transitory Provisions on suits or offenses arising before the effectivity of the Act?

a)

They are dismissed automatically upon effectivity of the Act

b)

They must be refiled under the new Act within a new prescriptive period

c)

They proceed and are prosecuted in the same time and manner as if the Act had not been enacted

d)

They are converted into administrative cases only

81.

Which statement best reflects the Repealing Clause?

a)

Only regulations are repealed; presidential decrees remain effective

b)

Presidential Decree No. 1464 and Presidential Decree No. 1853 are expressly repealed, and other inconsistent laws, decrees, orders, rules, and regulations are repealed, amended, or modified accordingly

c)

All prior customs-related statutes are preserved intact

d)

Only provisions relating to letter of credit deposits are amended