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HST Unit 4 Review

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which listed skill is most directly related to monitoring cardiovascular and respiratory status at the bedside?

a)

Vital signs

b)

Apply binders

c)

Enemas

d)

Grooming

2.

Which task helps ensure patient dignity and comfort related to appearance?

a)

Grooming (bathing, hair care, nail care, shaving)

b)

Post-mortem care

c)

Enemas

d)

Apply binders

3.

A bed-bound patient needs measures to improve circulation. Which scheduled action aligns with grooming care guidance?

a)

Back rub every 8 hours

b)

Back rub once daily at bedtime

c)

Leg massage only when edema is present

d)

Back rub every 24 hours only after bathing

4.

According to the urine color guide, which color range indicates normal hydration status?

a)

Dark yellow

b)

Clear to pale yellow

c)

Light to dark brown

d)

Pink to red

5.

Which action best describes proper recording of patient intake and output?

a)

Document all oral fluids and urine output at the end of the week

b)

Record all fluids taken in and all outputs such as urine on a routine schedule each shift

c)

Only record IV fluids and ignore oral intake

d)

Estimate output visually without measuring

6.

Which statement best describes a 24-hour total on an I&O worksheet?

a)

It is the sum of all 8-hour totals over three shifts

b)

It is the amount recorded during the last shift only

c)

It equals the average of hourly measurements

d)

It includes only oral intake

7.

Which entries are typically counted as intake on an I&O worksheet?

a)

Urine, emesis, wound drainage

b)

Oral fluids, IV fluids, tube feedings

c)

Stool, sweat, and insensible losses

d)

Dressings and bandages applied

8.

If the 8-hour intake totals are 900 mL, 600 mL, and 800 mL across three shifts, what is the 24-hour intake total?

a)

1,500 mL

b)

2,300 mL

c)

2,100 mL

d)

2,000 mL

9.

Which timing practice supports accurate 8-hour totals?

a)

Round entries to the nearest 50 mL

b)

Record entries as they occur with time stamps

c)

Only total at the end of the day

d)

Convert mL to ounces for consistency

10.

During a shift, the patient has 300 mL urine, 150 mL emesis, and 50 mL drain output. What output is recorded?

a)

300 mL

b)

450 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

550 mL

11.

When providing routine ostomy bag care, which action is most appropriate to protect skin integrity around the stoma?

a)

Remove the pouch only once per month to avoid skin irritation

b)

Use an adhesive barrier or skin seal to fit snugly around the stoma and change the pouch as recommended

c)

Scrub the stoma vigorously with alcohol to disinfect

d)

Avoid measuring output because volume is not clinically relevant

12.

Red streaks leading from a wound most directly suggest which condition?

a)

Lymphatic spread of infection

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Normal healing

d)

Dehydration

13.

What is the potential outcome mentioned if tetanus bacteria enter open wounds?

a)

Mild rash only

b)

Temporary numbness

c)

Illness and death

d)

No significant effect

14.

Which action is implied as preventive care related to tetanus exposure?

a)

Avoid cleaning wounds

b)

Get a booster

c)

Use only ice therapy

d)

Cover with any cloth

15.

Which clinical sign is most associated with systemic involvement rather than just local wound changes?

a)

Redness

b)

Heat

c)

Fever

d)

Pus

16.

Which term refers to visible discharge often associated with infection?

a)

Edema

b)

Pus

c)

Erythema

d)

Analgesia

17.

Which item is presented as a preventative measure related to a specific pathogen?

a)

Apply heat packs

b)

Get a booster for tetanus

c)

Increase exercise

d)

Leave wounds uncovered

18.

During a sit-to-stand wheelchair transfer, which action should occur before assisting the patient to stand?

a)

Remove the wheelchair footrests and lower the head of bed

b)

Lock wheels on the bed, lower the side rail, and raise the head of bed (HOB)

c)

Place your hands under the patient’s arms and lift

d)

Have the patient stand first, then apply the gait belt

19.

Which item is typically included in a pre-operative checklist to ensure patient safety before surgery?

a)

Verification of patient identity and procedure consent

b)

Administration of post-operative pain medications only

c)

Removal of all IV lines before transport

d)

Initiation of wound VAC therapy

20.

What is the primary purpose of applying surgical hose (compression stockings) pre-operatively?

a)

Prevent wound dehiscence

b)

Reduce risk of venous thromboembolism

c)

Control surgical site infection

d)

Provide thermal insulation during surgery

21.

A patient returns from surgery with a Wound VAC in place. What is the best action?

a)

Clamp the tubing to conserve suction

b)

Ensure the dressing seal is intact and suction is functioning

c)

Remove the foam to inspect the wound

d)

Turn off the device while the patient sleeps

22.

Which finding would require prompt notification of the provider during post-operative monitoring?

a)

Slightly elevated pain managed with PRN analgesic

b)

Clear drainage around a wound VAC dressing

c)

Rapidly increasing bleeding at the incision site

d)

Stable vital signs compared with baseline

23.

Why might restraints be considered for certain immediate post-operative patients?

a)

To replace continuous monitoring

b)

To prevent removal of essential lines or devices when the patient is confused or agitated

c)

To reduce the risk of pressure injuries

d)

To manage chronic pain

24.

Which post-operative observation most directly evaluates circulation to an extremity with a surgical hose in place?

a)

Capillary refill and distal pulses

b)

Bowel sounds

c)

Pupil response to light

d)

Urine color

25.

Which sign most strongly suggests a wound infection that requires medical evaluation?

a)

Mild soreness on day one

b)

Clear, odorless drainage

c)

Increasing redness, warmth, swelling, and pus

d)

Itching as the scab forms

26.

To reduce the risk of tetanus after an open wound, what action is recommended?

a)

Apply ice for 24 hours

b)

Receive a tetanus booster if immunization is not up to date

c)

Avoid cleaning the wound for 48 hours

d)

Keep the wound covered with an airtight plastic wrap

27.
What is the single most effective way to break the chain of infection?
a)
handwashing
b)
sterilization
c)
cleaning surfaces
d)
nutrition
28.

Which of the following recommendations reflects proper infection control practices in health care settings?

a)

artificial nails should be no longer than 1.27 cm (0.5 in) in length

b)

Use an alcohol-based hand rub if there is visible contamination on the hands

c)

Remove soiled gloves prior to touching uncontaminated surfaces

d)

Wear the same gloves while performing different procedures on the same patient

29.

What is the number one way to prevent the spread of infection?

a)

Sanitizing all medical equipment

b)

vaccinations

c)

hand washing

d)

quarantine

30.

This diagram represents ___________________

a)

Aseptic Technique

b)

Chain of infection

c)

Stages of Infection

d)

Process of Colonization

31.
how many links are in the chain of infection?
a)
10
b)
5
c)
12
d)
6
32.

What vital sign is being taken?

a)

Body temperature

b)

Pulse rate

c)

Respiration Rate

d)

Blood pressure

33.

What is the device pictured?

a)

Manual aneroid sphygmomanometer

b)

Manual mercury manometer

c)

Electronic sphygmomanometer

d)

Stethoscope

34.

Which of the following is the normal range for pulse?

a)

60-100

b)

80-100

c)

12-20

d)

60-80

35.

lowest pressure against the blood vessels of the body. Measures between contractions

a)

diastolic pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

hypotension

d)

hypertension

36.

The first "thump" you hear when taking a blood pressure is....

a)

the systolic blood pressure

b)

the diastolic blood pressure

c)

the lowest number

37.

What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure?

a)

100-140

b)

90-110

c)

100-120

d)

60-80

38.

Systolic blood pressure is....

a)

lowest pressure during contraction

b)

lowest number

c)

highest pressure during contraction

39.

the area of the body where you take a radial pulse is

a)

the neck

b)

the wrist

c)

the groin

d)

the inside of the elbow

40.
The average oral Fahrenheit temperature is
a)
95.8 degrees
b)
101.4  degrees
c)
98.6 degrees
d)
103.6 degrees
41.

what are the first steps when taking vital signs

a)

wash hands

b)

introduce yourself

c)

identify the patient

d)

explain procedure

42.
An axillary temperature is the least accurate method of taking a temperature
a)
True
b)
False
43.
When assessing an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint. This is called:
a)
mottling
b)
pallor
c)
flushing
d)
cyanosis
44.

what should you ask your patients before taking an oral temperature?

a)

have you had anything to eat or drink in the last 15 min?

b)

have you had any dental or oral work in the last 24 hours

c)

nothing, you just take the temperature '

d)

ask their name to verify the identity of the patient

45.

What should be noted about a pulse?

a)

rate, volume, and sound

b)

rate, volume, and character

c)

rate, rhythm, and volume

d)

rate, rhythm, and character

46.
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
a)
weak 
b)
regular
c)
irregular
d)
strong
47.

Where do you take an apical pulse?

a)

with a stethoscope over the heart

b)

at the carotid artery

c)

at the popliteal

d)

apical isn't a pulse

48.
The vital sign that is easiest for a patient to consciously control is?
a)
blood pressure
b)
pulse
c)
respiratory rate
d)
temperature 
49.

Blood pressure is measured in...

a)

mmHg

b)

Beats per minute

c)

Breaths per minute

d)

Degrees

50.
You were assigned to take vital signs on an 80-year-old male nursing home resident who was recently admitted after having a stroke. Vital signs were B/P 130/90, T 99 .40 F, P 92, R 32. Which vital sign reflects a measurement within normal limits?
a)
Blood pressure
b)
Pulse
c)
Respirations
d)
Temperature
51.
A nursing assistant notes a patient’s blood pressure to be 148/96. Which is the BEST action the assistant can take?
a)
Tell the patient the blood pressure reading
b)
Report the reading to the patient’s nurse
c)
Wait 15 minutes and repeat the procedure
d)
Immediately repeat the procedure in the other arm
52.

the following are routes to take a temperature EXCEPT ...

a)

oral

b)

temporal

c)

axillary

d)

femoral

53.

If the first picture is systolic and the second picture is diastolic pressure, what is the patient's blood pressure?

a)

132/100 mmHg

b)

126/100 mmHg

c)

100/126 mmHg

d)

100/132 mmHg

54.
_______________ can be counted most accurately if a patient is not aware of the procedure
a)
Weight
b)
Height
c)
Vision
d)
Respirations
55.

Which physical assessment technique involves listening to the sounds of the body?

a)

Palpation

b)

Inspection

c)

Percussion

d)

Auscultation