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Transportation & Positioning

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

2.

When moving the patient from the operating room (OR) table, who is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury?

a)

Circulating nurse

b)

Scrub nurse

c)

Anesthesiologist

d)

Surgical technician

3.

To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table:

a)

one person stands at the head, one at the foot, while the patient moves over

b)

one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over

c)

one person stands next to the stretcher, stabilizing it against the OR table, while the patient moves over

d)

one person may stand next to the OR table and guide the patient toward him or her if stretcher wheels are locked

4.

When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a)

extra personnel are necessary

b)

the extremity should be supported from above and below the fracture site

c)

the surgeon should be the one supporting the fracture during the transfer and positioning

d)

personnel on the affected side support the fracture

5.

Which statement is false regarding the position on the OR table?

a)

Elbow should not rest against the metal table

b)

Feet should be uncrossed

c)

Pillows provide support and comfort to prevent strain

d)

Safety strap is 4 in below the knee

6.

To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed:

a)

at knee level

b)

at the mid-thigh area

c)

2 in above the knee

d)

2 in below the knee

7.

When transporting a patient with an underwater seal drainage system, the drainage system:

a)

should be placed at the patient's side and disconnected

b)

should be above the patient's body level attached to suction

c)

should be clamped off and placed below the patient's chest level

d)

can be placed by using any of the above methods

8.

Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause:

a)

pressure on the ulnar nerve

b)

interference with circulation

c)

postoperative discomfort

d)

interference with respiration

9.

A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to:

a)

place the pillows under the knees for support

b)

place the safety strap 3–4 in below the knee

c)

place the head in a headrest

d)

protect the heels from pressure on the OR table

10.

During lateral positioning:

a)

a pillow is placed between the legs

b)

a sandbag is placed between the knees

c)

a rolled towel is placed under the bottom leg

d)

a sheet is folded flat between the legs

11.

To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position:

a)

the buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge

b)

the legs must be placed symmetrically

c)

the legs must be at equal height

d)

a pillow should be placed under the sacral area

12.

The lithotomy position requires all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Patient's buttocks rests along the break between the body and leg sections of the table

b)

Stirrups are at equal height on both sides of the table

c)

Stirrups are at the appropriate height for the length of the patient's legs to maintain symmetry

d)

each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes

13.

All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT:

a)

(A) patient is prone with hips over the break of the table

b)

(B) a pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles

c)

(C) a padded knee strap is applied 2 in above knees

d)

(D) arms are tucked in at sides

14.

When using an arm board, the most important measure to take is to:

a)

support the arm at the intravenous site

b)

strap the patient's hand to the board securely

c)

avoid hyperextension of the arm

d)

avoid hypovextension of the arm

15.

Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly in order to:

a)

prevent fractures

b)

prevent circulatory overload

c)

allow the respiratory system to adjust

d)

allow the circulatory system to adjust

16.

If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always:

a)

place a pillow between the knees

b)

place a pillow under the knees

c)

confirm that ankles and legs are not crossed

d)

pad the thoracic area adequately

17.

Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the:

a)

cervical plexus

b)

radial nerve

c)

ulnar nerve

d)

brachial plexus

18.

Ulnar nerve damage could result from:

a)

poor placement of legs in stirrups

b)

hyperextension of the arm

c)

using mattress pads of varying thickness

d)

placing an arm on an unpadded table edge

19.

In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent:

a)

compromised respiration

b)

pressure areas

c)

circulatory impairment

d)

brachial nerve damage

20.

The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a)

to prevent drying of the eye

b)

to prevent the patient from seeing the procedure

c)

to prevent eye trauma

d)

to protect the eye from anesthetic agents

21.

Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?

a)

Lithotomy

b)

Kraske

c)

Knee-chest

d)

Modified prone

22.

A position often used in cranial procedures is called:

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Kraske

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

lithotomy

23.

In positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed:

a)

horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs

b)

longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

c)

longitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip

d)

below the knees

24.

The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:

a)

modified Trendelenburg

b)

reverse Trendelenburg

c)

supine

d)

dorsal recumbent

25.

A Mayfield headrest would be used for which type of surgery?

a)

Ophthalmic

b)

Gynecological

c)

Neurological

d)

Urological

26.

Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll

b)

hyperextension of the neck

c)

utilization of skin-stay sutures

d)

firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures

27.

A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine in modified lithotomy is:

a)

colonoscopy

b)

abdominoperineal resection (APR)

c)

marsupialization of pilonidal cyst

d)

ileostomy

28.

In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?

a)

Cerclage

b)

Marsupialization of Bartholin's cyst

c)

Shirodkar

d)

Cesarean section

29.

The position for most open-bladder surgery would be:

a)

lithotomy

b)

supine position

c)

reverse Trendelenburg

d)

Fowler's, modified

30.

In which position could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?

a)

Positioned on the fracture table

b)

Positioned in lateral chest

c)

Positioned in lithotomy

d)

Positioned on the urological table

31.

Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?

a)

Skeletal changes

b)

Limited range of motion of joints

c)

Tissue fragility

d)

All of the above

32.

When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?

a)

Patient's body does not touch metal on table

b)

Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient

c)

Bony prominences are padded

d)

All of the above

33.

What position would be used for an abdominoperineal resection?

a)

Supine, slight reverse Trendelenburg

b)

Low lithotomy

c)

Sims

d)

Kraske

34.

All are ways to identify a patient EXCEPT:

a)

address patient by their full name and state the surgery they are having

b)

examine the patient's identification band and compare with the name and number on the chart

c)

ask the patient to state their full name, do not call the patient by their name before asking

d)

ask the patient to tell you what procedure they are having

35.

To assist a falling patient, you should:

a)

support the patient's weight with your body

b)

ease the patient to the floor while protecting their head

c)

run and get assistance once the patient is down

d)

none of the above

36.

Intravenous (IV) lines and fluids should be:

a)

lower than the patient's body

b)

level with the patient's arm

c)

higher than the patient's body

d)

it really does not matter

37.

What is the position called when the OR bed is tilted with feet down?

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Low lithotomy

c)

Hyperflexion

d)

Reverse Trendelenburg

38.

Antiembolism devices or SCDs are placed on the patient's legs prior to surgery to:

a)

prevent thromboembolus

b)

prevent cramping

c)

provide protection from metal parts of the OR table

d)

assist in the range of motion

39.

The dorsal recumbent position is a slight modification of what position?

a)

supine

b)

prone

c)

right lateral

d)

Kraske

40.

When the patient is positioned in supine, the arm board must not be:

a)

flexed more than 90 degrees

b)

adducted more than 90 degrees

c)

abducted more than 90 degrees

d)

There are no specific criteria

41.

The position that allows greater access to the lower abdominal cavity and pelvic structures due to gravity is:

a)

reverse Trendelenburg

b)

lithotomy

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

supine

42.

The orthopedic fracture table provides:

a)

circumferential access

b)

horizontal traction

c)

exposure to the ankle

d)

both A and B

43.

What position is occasionally used for facial, cranial, or reconstructive breast surgery?

a)

Sims'

b)

Fowler's

c)

Reverse Trendelenburg

d)

Anterolateral

44.

What position would be used for a surgical procedure requiring a transurethral approach?

a)

Supine, Trendelenburg

b)

Supine, reverse Trendelenburg

c)

Lithotomy

d)

Lateral kidney

45.

Thoracic outlet syndrome can occur when there is pressure on:

a)

the thoracic artery

b)

the brachial plexus

c)

subclavian artery

d)

both B and C

46.

Ulnar neuropathy results from:

a)

improper padding

b)

continuous pressure from the edge of the OR table

c)

when the elbow is tightly flexed

d)

all of the above

47.

The following is a risk when positioning the patient on the OR table:

a)

hyperextension of limbs

b)

pressure on bony prominences

c)

improper padding

d)

all of the above

48.

When transferring an unconscious or immobile patient from the stretcher to the OR table, ideally how many people are required?

a)

Two or three

b)

Four to six

c)

One or two

d)

None of the above

49.

When removing a patient from lithotomy position:

a)

lower the legs separately

b)

lower the legs quickly

c)

lower the legs together

d)

lower stirrups, then remove legs

50.

All of the following help to maintain normothermia during surgery EXCEPT:

a)

warm the OR until the prep is performed and dries

b)

blankets from the warmer are used

c)

SCD is applied

d)

fluid warmers are used to warm IV solution

51.

Heat loss caused by convection occurs when:

a)

patient loses heat through the surrounding environment—from warm environment to a cold OR

b)

the liquid (due to perspiration) on their skin evaporates and causes heat loss

c)

patient loses heat by direct contact with an object or another body (cold)

d)

patient loses heat through air currents

52.

Symptoms of hypothermia include all EXCEPT:

a)

tachycardia

b)

increased shivering

c)

compromised cardiovascular and nervous systems

d)

increased blood pressure

53.

The device used by the anesthesiologist to measure the amount of oxygen in the hemoglobin component of the blood is:

a)

pulse oximeter

b)

oxygen saturation device

c)

sphygmomanometer

d)

both A and B

54.

Cheyne-Stokes breathing is defined as:

a)

shortness of breath and breathing difficulty

b)

breaths are deeper and faster followed by a decrease in breathing. The pattern can sometimes stop for a short time.

c)

rapid breathing as in patients with a high fever

d)

fast deep labored breathing

55.

Korotkoff's sounds are:

a)

observed during Cheyne-Stokes breathing

b)

the first tapping sounds heard when taking a blood pressure

c)

observed when using the bispectral index monitor

d)

the sounds noted when using a Doppler

56.

An arterial line can be inserted into the:

a)

radial artery

b)

brachial artery

c)

femoral artery

d)

all of the above

57.

A bispectral index monitor is used to:

a)

monitor the depth of anesthesia in the surgical patient

b)

monitor blood pressure

c)

measure the amount of oxygen in blood

d)

monitor the body temperature

58.

The neuro/ortho headrest attachments include all EXCEPT:

a)

Mayfield headrest

b)

Gardner-Wells tongs

c)

horseshoe headrest

d)

Andrews headrest

59.

OR tables commonly used in spinal surgery include:

a)

Andrews

b)

Wilson

c)

Jackson

d)

All of the above

60.

Which statement is incorrect when the patient is in Fowler’s position?

a)

The upper body is at a 90-degree angle.

b)

Blood flow from the upper body is reduced and facilitates respirations.

c)

A padded shoulder board is used to prevent the patient from sliding off the table.

d)

It is used for surgery on the breast, head, neck, or shoulder.

61.

Positioning aids used for lithotomy position include:

a)

candy cane stirrups

b)

Yellofins stirrups

c)

Allen stirrups

d)

all of the above

62.

All of the following statements are true regarding the Sims’ position EXCEPT:

a)

used for spine procedures

b)

left leg is straight, and right leg is bent

c)

this is a modification of the lateral position

d)

used for endoscopic procedures

63.

All apply to a lateral position EXCEPT:

a)

padding, axillary rolls, and chest rolls are used to improve respirations

b)

a Mayo stand should not be used to support the upper arm

c)

lower leg is bent and upper leg is straight with a pillow in between

d)

blood pressure should be measured from the lower arm

64.

The desirable position for better visualization in the lower abdomen or pelvis is:

a)

Fowler’s

b)

reverse Trendelenburg

c)

Trendelenburg

d)

Kraske

65.

In which of the following positions is a patient placed for a right nephrectomy?

a)

left lateral

b)

right lateral

c)

left lateral kidney

d)

right lateral kidney

66.

Which of the following positions is used for a total hip arthroplasty?

a)

Fowler’s

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Kraske

d)

Lateral

67.

In what position is the patient placed for an anterior total hip arthroplasty?

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Lateral

d)

Fowler

68.

If a patient is having a procedure performed on the Allen table, when would they be intubated and what position would be used?

a)

After the patient has been positioned prone

b)

When the patient is on the stretcher in supine position

c)

When the patient is positioned on the OR bed in supine

d)

The decision on how the patient is to be intubated for this procedure is determined by the anesthesiologist

69.

What position is the patient put in following extubation after a tonsillectomy?

a)

Supine

b)

Fowler’s

c)

Sims’

d)

Lateral

70.

All pertain to a shearing injury EXCEPT:

a)

intense friction placed on the patient's skin

b)

it is more common in a debilitated patient or the elderly who have compromised skin

c)

it is caused when the patient is transported from the stretcher to OR bed or OR bed to stretcher

d)

it is caused by hyperflexion of the muscle and facia when moving the patient from one surface to another

71.

What position most commonly results in an eye injury in patients?

a)

Lateral

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Dorsal recumbent