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Emergency Preparedness Assessment

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In an emergency, which of the following patients should be seen first?

a)

First degree burns

b)

Shock

c)

Fractures

d)

Severe sprain

2.

First aid for a puncture wound with a fixed penetrating object includes all the following except

a)

Keeping the person calm

b)

Activating EMS

c)

Removing the object if it is still embedded in the body

d)

Applying a sterile dressing around the puncture site

3.

A medical facility should do the following in order to be prepared for office emergencies.

a)

Review the office policies and be aware of where emergency supplies are located

b)

Refer office emergencies to more experienced staff

c)

Call 911 immediately

d)

Construct a list of emergency phone numbers to access in the event of an office emergency

4.

What is the preferred agent to use when it is necessary to induce vomiting in a poisoning case?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Alcohol

c)

Ipecac

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

5.

Determining how critical or serious a patient's problem is and how to best proceed is known as

a)

Screening

b)

Diagnostics

c)

Routing

d)

Triage

6.

During a large fire, an appropriate action to take is

a)

Attempt to put out the fire

b)

Open all the windows

c)

Use the elevator

d)

Crawl to an exit

7.

If a patient has a sudden decrease in blood pressure after an acute hemorrhage. What is the primary cause for this?

a)

A decrease in blood volume

b)

A decrease in blood vessel elasticity

c)

A decrease in peripheral resistance

d)

A decrease in the breathing rate

8.

Triage refers to all of the following except

a)

Diagnosing the patient’s condition

b)

Determining if the patient has an emergency

c)

Determining how serious the illness is

d)

Prioritizing tasks

9.

An AED delivers

a)

An electrocardiogram

b)

An electric shock

c)

A measurement of oxygen saturation

d)

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

10.

Which of the following is the appropriate first response to a patient who is having a seizure?

a)

Restrain patient

b)

Place something in mouth

c)

Splash water on patient’s face

d)

Remove nearby objects

11.

For which of the following office emergencies should a doctor’s office call 911 immediately?

a)

A patient experiencing squeezing or crushing pain in the chest and shortness of breath

b)

A patient with a severe skin rash on the abdomen

c)

A patient with abdominal pain and diarrhea

d)

A patient with headache

12.

Which is one of the first questions to ask a patient who has experienced a head injury?

a)

Have you taken any medications?

b)

Have you eaten today?

c)

Did you lose consciousness?

d)

Do you have any chest pain?

13.

If you are attempting to put out a fire using an extinguisher, where should you aim the jet?

a)

Over the top of the flames

b)

At the base of the flames

c)

It does not matter where you aim the jet

d)

Around the sides of the flames

14.

Emergency treatment for a second-degree burn would include

a)

Scrubbing the site with an antibiotic cleanser

b)

Covering with a clean, wet, cool cloth to the area

c)

Popping any visible blisters

d)

Applying a tight bandage to the site

15.

The acronym PASS for using a fire extinguisher means

a)

Point, assess, squeeze, squint

b)

Pin, aim, squirt, squeeze

c)

Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep

d)

Pull, assert, squirt, stop

16.

Anaphylaxis refers to

a)

A severe type of shock

b)

Fainting

c)

A blockage of a blood vessel in the brain

d)

A nosebleed

17.

Which is not a common symptom of shock?

a)

Rapid pulse

b)

Clammy skin

c)

Expressionless face

d)

Excessive diaphoresis

18.

A patient becomes acutely confused, has very slurred speech and cannot her left arm from her side. What is she most likely experiencing?

a)

A myocardial infarction

b)

Parkinson’s disease

c)

A cerebrovascular accident

d)

Alcoholism

19.

Which of the following should a healthcare provider do first when attempting to treat an adult with a foreign object airway obstruction?

a)

Open the patient’s mouth and look for the object

b)

Ask the patient “Can I assist?”

c)

Lower the patient to a flat surface and begin chest compressions

d)

Give three quick abdominal thrusts in an attempt to dislodge the object

20.

Applying an elastic or ACE wrap to a sprained ankle is an example of

a)

Treating a wound

b)

Applying a dressing

c)

Bandaging

d)

Splinting

21.

Which of the following is a sign of a head injury?

a)

Drowsiness

b)

Confusion

c)

Headache

d)

All of the above

22.

After a patient has a grand-mal seizure, one would expect the patient to be

a)

Hyperactive and excited

b)

Confused and drowsy

c)

Hypotensive and short of breath

d)

In need of an epinephrine injection

23.

You should suspect that a patient might be having a myocardial infarction if he or she is complaining of

a)

Pain in the shoulder or jaw

b)

A headache

c)

Pain in the lower back

d)

Double vision

24.

Which of the following medical emergencies should receive the first priority?

a)

Discomfort in the chest area

b)

Bleeding from a wound on the lower leg

c)

Grand mal seizure

d)

An occluded airway

25.

Which animals are most likely to be carriers of rabies?

a)

Snakes and iguanas

b)

Birds and ducks

c)

Racoons and dogs

d)

Dolphins and fish

26.

Which of the following describes a comminuted fracture?

a)

The bone is not completely broken

b)

The bone is broken into three or more segments

c)

The skin is intact at the site of fracture

d)

Occurs in the vertebrae as a complication of osteoarthritis

27.

Which of the following is a jarring injury to the brain?

a)

Laceration

b)

Seizure

c)

Concussion

d)

Contusion

28.

Insufficient blood volume in the circulatory system can lead to

a)

Anaphylactic shock

b)

Toxic shock

c)

A myocardial infarction

d)

Hypovolemic shock

29.

Which of the following describes the displacement of a bone end from a joint?

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Dislocation

c)

Avulsion

d)

Sprain

30.

Which of the following is not a symptom of hypothermia?

a)

Lethargy

b)

Confusion

c)

Uncontrollable shivering

d)

Dry, hot skin

31.

Fainting, a partial or complete loss of consciousness is also known as

a)

Epistaxis

b)

Syncope

c)

Ataxia

d)

Aphasia

32.

Pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back between the shoulder blades can be caused by

a)

An appendicitis

b)

Inflammation of the spleen

c)

Ulcerative colitis

d)

A gall bladder attack

33.

Insulin shock

a)

Is basically very severe hypoglycemia

b)

Results from excessive sugar in the blood

c)

Can be treated with intravenous insulin

d)

All of the above

34.

All of the following pertain to nosebleeds except

a)

They are also known as epistaxis

b)

They should be treated by pinching the nostrils and tilting the head backwards

c)

They are common in children

d)

They can be caused by a variety of reasons, such as blowing too hard, dryness, or a blow to the nose

35.

A rigid, external dressing usually made of plaster or fiberglass, that is molded to the contours of the body part is known as

a)

A splint

b)

A bandage

c)

An immobilizer

d)

A cast

36.

How should tiny specks of foreign bodies be removed from the eye?

a)

Gently, using tweezers

b)

They should not be removed

c)

Flush the eye with hydrogen peroxide

d)

Moisten a sterile gauze pad to remove them

37.

Which of the following describes a strain?

a)

The displacement of a bone end from a joint

b)

An incomplete break in a bone

c)

A muscle injury that results from overexertion

d)

The severing of a ligament

38.

This fracture occurs most often in children because of their soft and pliable bones?

a)

Compression

b)

Greenstick

c)

Comminuted

d)

Avulsion

39.

Which of the following describe signs of infection in a wound?

a)

Nausea and cramps

b)

Dizziness and confusion

c)

Redness, pain, and swelling

d)

Headache and double vision

40.

Which is an appropriate action to stop bleeding?

a)

Apply direct pressure over the injury

b)

Administer pain medications

c)

Remove blood soaked dressings and clean site with hydrogen peroxide regularly

d)

Avoid applying pressure to the wound

41.

What is considered the most critical time after injury or symptom onset in a medical emergency? Fill in the blank: The first ______ after injury or

symptom onset is considered the most critical

a)
day
b)
hour
c)
minute
d)
week
42.

According to the CPR Guidelines, what is the recommended compression depth for an infant?

a)
2 inches (5 cm)
b)
1 inch (2.5 cm)
c)
3 inches (7.5 cm)
d)
1.5 inches (4 cm)
43.

Which of the following is the first step in using an AED (Automated External Defibrillator)?

a)
Check the patient's pulse.
b)
Attach the AED pads to the patient.
c)
Call emergency services before using the AED.
d)
Turn on the AED.
44.

After holding the EpiPen in place for 3 seconds, you should:

a)
Shake the EpiPen before removing it.
b)
Keep the EpiPen in place for 10 seconds.
c)

Remove the EpiPen and massage the site for 10 seconds.

d)
Store the EpiPen in the refrigerator after use.
45.

According to the CPR Guidelines, what is the ratio of compressions to breaths for an infant with two rescuers?

a)
15:2
b)
5:1
c)
30:2
d)
10:1
46.

According to the BLS for Healthcare Providers Critical Concepts, what is the recommended compression depth for adults?

a)
At least 1 inch (2.5 cm)
b)

At least 2 inches (5 cm).

c)
At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
d)
At least 4 inches (10 cm)
47.

What is the use of Nitroglycerin?

a)
Nitroglycerin is used to increase blood pressure.
b)
Nitroglycerin is a pain reliever for headaches.
c)
Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina and heart failure by dilating blood vessels.
d)
Nitroglycerin is used to treat infections.
48.

What is the recommended treatment for a seizure

a)
Place the person in a cold bath
b)
Give them food or drink immediately
c)

Restrict their movement until they wake up, position on side

d)

Protect from injury, time duration, position on side after active

phase

49.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the RICE treatment for sprains and strains?

a)
Compression with a bandage
b)
Resting the injured area
c)
Elevation of the limb
d)
Heat application
50.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of cardiac arrest?

a)
Severe chest pain
b)
Loss of consciousness
c)
Normal breathing
d)

No pulse