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Exam 3 (MedSurg): Upper GI Part 2

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) is characterized by the erosion of GI mucosa from ______ and pepsin.

a)

HCl acid

b)

bile salts

c)

pancreatic enzymes

d)

mucus

2.

SATA: Which areas of the GI tract are susceptible to Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

lower esophagus

b)

stomach

c)

duodenum

d)

jejunum

e)

upper esophagus

3.

Acute Peptic Ulcer Disease is classified by:

a)

Superficial erosion and minimal inflammation

b)

Erosion of muscular wall with fibrous tissue formation

c)

High HCl secretion

d)

Increased obstruction

4.

Chronic Peptic Ulcer Disease is characterized by ______ of the muscular wall with formation of fibrous tissue, present continuously for many months or intermittently throughout lifetime.

a)

erosion

b)

hypertrophy

c)

calcification

d)

atrophy

5.

Gastric ulcers are more prevalent in ______ older than 50 years.

a)

females

b)

males

6.

Which of the following are risk factors for gastric ulcers?

a)

H. pylori, NSAIDs, bile reflux

b)

High fiber diet, exercise

c)

Low salt intake, vitamin C

d)

Smoking, alcohol only

7.

Duodenal ulcers are most prevalent in which age group?

a)

1-10 years

b)

15-25 years

c)

35-45 years

d)

60-70 years

8.

The etiology of duodenal ulcers is most commonly ______.

a)

H. pylori

b)

NSAID use

c)

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

d)

Crohn's disease

9.

High-risk conditions associated with duodenal ulcers include which of the following?

a)

NSAID use and Helicobacter pylori infection

b)

Diabetes mellitus and hypertension

c)

Asthma and allergic rhinitis

d)

Hyperthyroidism and anemia

10.

Which bacteria is commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Staphylococcus aureus

11.

CagA-positive strains of Helicobacter pylori are found in what percentage of gastric and duodenal ulcers?

a)

80% gastric, 90% duodenal

b)

50% gastric, 60% duodenal

c)

30% gastric, 40% duodenal

d)

10% gastric, 20% duodenal

12.

What are the modes of transmission for Helicobacter pylori?

a)

Oral-oral or fecal-oral transmission

b)

Airborne droplets from coughing and sneezing

c)

Direct blood-to-blood contact only

d)

Transmission through mosquito bites

e)

Spread exclusively through contaminated needles

13.

Helicobacter pylori bacteria produce which enzyme that increases gastric section and tissue damage?

a)

Urease

b)

Amylase

c)

Lipase

d)

Lactase

14.

Which medication class is especially associated with medication-induced injury in PUD, particularly when combined with corticosteroids or anticoagulants?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Statins

15.

Which of the following are lifestyle factors that can contribute to PUD?

a)

Alcohol use

b)

Smoking

c)

Coffee

d)

All of the above

16.

Psychologic distress and depression can delay ulcer healing.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the pathophysiology of PUD?

a)

A) Acids

b)

B) Bile salts

c)

C) Insulin

d)

D) NSAIDs

18.

What happens after the breakdown of the gastric mucosal barrier in PUD pathophysiology?

a)

Acid back diffusion into mucosa

b)

Increased mucus production

c)

Decreased gastric acid secretion

d)

Enhanced bicarbonate secretion

19.

Destruction of mucosal cells in PUD leads to increased release of which substances?

a)

Acid and pepsin (also caused by histamine)

b)

Insulin and glucagon (also caused by histamine)

c)

Bile salts and bilirubin (also caused by histamine)

d)

Renin and angiotensin (also caused by histamine)

20.

Further mucosal erosion in PUD can cause destruction of blood vessels and what complication?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Perforation of the diaphragm

c)

Development of gallstones

d)

Formation of kidney cysts

21.

Increased vasodilation and capillary permeability in PUD is caused by which substance?

a)

Histamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetylcholine

22.

Ulceration in PUD is primarily caused by which substances?

a)

Stomach acid

b)

Bile salts

c)

Mucus

d)

Pancreatic enzymes

e)

Pepsin

23.

Loss of plasma proteins into the gastric lumen in PUD leads to what condition?

a)

Mucosal edema

b)

Pitting edema

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Hypokalemia

24.

Which of the following is a symptom of epigastric discomfort in Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

Occurs 1-2 hours after meal

b)

Burning or gaseous pain

c)

Food may worsen pain

d)

All of the above

25.

Perforation is the FIRST symptom in SOME patients with Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD).

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Fill in the blank: Burning or cramplike pain in midepigastric or back, 2-5 hours after meal is a symptom of ________ ulcer.

a)

duodenal

b)

jejunal

c)

peptic

d)

esophageal

27.

Which of the following symptoms are common to both types of Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

Bloating

b)

Nausea

c)

Vomiting

d)

Early feeling of fullness

e)

All of the above

28.

Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD) may be silent in older adults and patients taking NSAIDs.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the most accurate diagnostic method for Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

Endoscopy

b)

Abdominal X-ray

c)

Stool antigen test

d)

Serum amylase measurement

30.

Which of the following is the gold standard for diagnosing H. pylori?

a)

Endoscopy of lower esophageal sphincter

b)

Occult stool test

c)

Biopsy of antral mucosa with testing for urease

d)

Biopsy of the small intestine with testing for amylase

31.

SATA: Select non-invasive tests for diagnosing H. pylori in Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD).

a)

serology testing

b)

endoscopic biopsy

c)

stool sample

d)

breath testing

e)

exploratory bowel surgery

32.

Drug therapy is a KEY part of treatment for Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD).

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Fill in the blank: To reduce gastric acid secretion in PUD, ______ are used.

a)

PPIs

b)

Antacids

c)

H2 blockers

d)

Antibiotics

34.

Which of the following is used to eliminate H. pylori in PUD treatment?

a)

Antibiotics and PPIs

b)

Antacids and PPIs

c)

Antibiotics and H2 blockers

d)

Sucralfate and H2 blockers

35.

Choose the BEST answer: Patient education for PUD should include teaching about drugs and reporting recurrence of pain or ______ in vomitus or stool.

a)

blood

b)

mucus

c)

undigested food

d)

decrease

36.

How many days of PCN with PPI are recommended for antibiotic therapy to eradicate H. pylori?

a)

14 days

b)

7 days

c)

10 days

d)

21 days

37.

If a patient is allergic to PCN, which antibiotic is used for H. pylori eradication?

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Vancomycin

38.

Proton pump inhibitors are more effective than H2 blockers and are used in conjunction with antibiotics to treat which infection?

a)

H. pylori

b)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Candida albicans

39.

Which cytoprotective drug therapy protects the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum in PUD treatment?

a)

Sucralfate

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Ranitidine

d)

Misoprostol

40.

Which of the following should be avoided in nutrition therapy for PUD?

a)

Foods that cause distress or irritation

b)

Caffeine

c)

Alcohol

d)

All of the above

41.

Fill in the blank: Surgical therapies for PUD are ______ unless the patient is unresponsive to medical management or cancer concerns exist.

a)

uncommon

b)

routine

c)

always indicated

d)

the first line of treatment

42.

What are the three major complications of PUD?

a)

Bleeding, perforation, and gastric ulcer obstruction

b)

Diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration

c)

Ascites, jaundice, and encephalopathy

d)

Hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia

43.

What is the most common GI emergency situation requiring surgical intervention?

a)

Perforation

b)

Duodenal bleeding

c)

Gastric outlet obstruction

d)

Bacterial peritonitis

44.

What is the most lethal emergency situation with surgical intervention?

a)

GI/duodenal bleeding

b)

Perforation

c)

Gastric outlet obstruction

d)

Edema

45.

Fill in the blank: GI contents spill into the _______ cavity during a perforation.

a)

peritoneal

b)

pleural

c)

cranial

d)

thoracic

46.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of perforation?

a)

Sudden, severe upper abdominal pain radiating to back and shoulders

b)

Soft, nontender bowel with hyperactive bowel sounds

c)

Abdomen rigid and boardlike, bowel sounds absent, N/V

d)

Intensity proportional to amount and duration of spillage

47.

If untreated, bacterial peritonitis occurs in how many hours after perforation?

a)

1-2 hours

b)

3-5 hours

c)

6-12 hours

d)

24 hours

48.

What is the immediate focus in treating perforation?

a)

Stop spillage and restore blood volume

b)

Provide pain relief

c)

Administer antacids

d)

Induce vomiting

49.

Fill in the blank: The treatment for gastric outlet obstruction is to decompress with _______.

a)

Nasogastric suction

b)

IV fluids

c)

Oral antibiotics

d)

Laxatives

50.

Which of the following is NOT a goal of care for PUD?

a)

A) Adherence to therapeutic program

b)

B) Pain relief, free of complications

c)

C) Complete healing of peptic ulcer

d)

D) Increase in ulcerogenic drug use

51.

Choose the BEST answer: Acute care for PUD includes NPO, NGT, IV fluids, VS, and monitoring for ______ and I/Os.

a)

shock

b)

infection

c)

pain

d)

bleeding

52.

What is the recommended intake for a patient with PUD-induced bowel perforation?

a)

NO ORAL INTAKE OR DRUGS, AND NO NG INTAKE OR DRUGS

b)

Oral intake is encouraged with all meals

c)

NG drugs should be given every 4 hours

d)

Oral fluids only, no solid food

53.

For patients post gastric outlet obstruction, if their gastric residual volume is less than ____ml after being clamped for _____ hours, begin oral intake and progress to solids.

a)

200, 8-12

b)

100, 4-6

c)

500, 1-2

d)

300, 4-8

54.

Which of the following is a geriatric consideration for PUD?

a)

Decreased ability to withstand hypovolemia

b)

Increased ability to withstand hypovolemia

c)

No concurrent health problems

d)

Decreased morbidity and mortality

55.

Fill in the blank: Frequent use of _______ (i.e. for arthritis) is a geriatric consideration for PUD.

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Antacids

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antidepressants

56.

The first symptom of PUD in geriatric patients may be GI bleed or decreased Hct.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

What conditions can gastric surgery treat?

a)

Stomach cancer, polyps, perforation, chronic gastritis, PUD

b)

Diabetes, hypertension, asthma, arthritis

c)

Appendicitis, tonsillitis, bronchitis, pneumonia

d)

None of the above

58.

Partial gastrectomy refers to:

a)

Total stomach removal

b)

Partial stomach removal

c)

Removal of the esophagus

d)

Removal of the small intestine

59.

Gastroduodenostomy, also known as Billroth 1, involves:

a)

50-75% of the stomach removed, remainder sewn to duodenum

b)

50% of the stomach removed, remainder sewn to jejunum

c)

Total stomach removal

d)

Enlargement of pyloric sphincter

60.

Gastrojejunostomy, also known as Billroth 2, involves:

a)

50-75% of the stomach removed, remainder sewn to duodenum

b)

50% of the stomach removed, remainder sewn to jejunum

c)

Total stomach removal

d)

Enlargement of pyloric sphincter

61.

What is the procedure called when the entire stomach is removed and the esophagus is anastomosed to the jejunum?

a)

Gastrectomy

b)

Colectomy

c)

Pancreatectomy

d)

Cholecystectomy

62.

Vagotomy is performed to:

a)

Elongate the vagus nerve to increase gastric acid secretion

b)

Sever the vagus nerve to increase gastric acid secretion

c)

Sever the vagus nerve to decrease gastric acid secretion

d)

Elongate the vagus nerve to decrease gastric acid secretion

63.

Pyloroplasty involves the ________ of the pyloric sphincter.

a)

enlargement

b)

removal

c)

narrowing

d)

paralysis

64.

Which of the following is a postoperative complication of gastric surgery?

a)

Dumping syndrome

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

65.

Dumping syndrome occurs when gastric chyme enters the small intestine as a large ________ bolus.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

acidic

66.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dumping syndrome?

a)

Weakness

b)

Sweating

c)

Palpitations

d)

Hypertension

67.

What is a variant of dumping syndrome that occurs after eating and is characterized by uncontrolled high carbohydrate bolus entering the small intestine?

a)

Postprandial hypoglycemia

b)

Gastric ulcer

c)

Peptic stricture

d)

Achalasia

68.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of postprandial hypoglycemia?

a)

Sweating

b)

Weakness

c)

Hypertension

d)

Palpitations

69.

Bile reflux gastritis can occur after which of the following?

a)

Removal or reconstruction of the pylorus

b)

Removal or reconstruction of the gallbladder

c)

Removal or reconstruction of a hiatal hernia

d)

Removal or reconstruction lower esophageal sphincter

70.

What medication can be administered before or with meals to bind bile salts in bile reflux gastritis?

a)

Cholestyramine

b)

Omeprazole

c)

Metoclopramide

d)

Sucralfate

71.

SATA: Patient teaching about procedure and postop expectations of GI surgery includes:

a)

pain management

b)

cough and deep breath/incentive spirometer therapy

c)

avoiding all physical activity postoperatively

d)

comfort measures

e)

increased straining when defecating

72.

IV fluids should be transitioned to oral solids in the postoperative care of gastric surgery patients.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which of the following is NOT a respiratory complication to monitor for after gastric surgery?

a)

A) Dyspnea

b)

B) Chest pain

c)

C) Cyanosis

d)

D) Hyperglycemia

74.

SATA: Name some complications to monitor for in obese patients after gastric surgery.

a)

atelectasis

b)

pneumonia

c)

deep vein thrombosis

d)

pulmonary embolism

e)

pneumothorax

75.

What are the symptoms of an anastomosis leak after gastric surgery?

a)

Tachycardia, dyspnea, fever, abdominal pain, anxiety, restlessness

b)

Bradycardia, hypotension, dry skin, constipation, blurred vision

c)

Hypertension, excessive salivation, muscle cramps, rash, sneezing

d)

Weight gain, polyuria, hair loss, joint stiffness, sore throat

76.

What is required to prevent sepsis and death in the case of an anastomosis leak?

a)

IMMEDIATE treatment

b)

Delayed observation

c)

No intervention needed

d)

Gradual reduction of fluids

77.

What should be monitored for to detect bleeding after gastric surgery?

a)

VS, NGT aspirate

b)

Urine output, skin turgor

c)

Blood glucose, respiratory rate

d)

Pupil size, reflexes

78.

SATA: What is the purpose of NGT for decompression (suction) after gastric surgery?

a)

Reduces pressure to suture line

b)

Promotes rapid absorption of nutrients

c)

Increases gastric acid secretion

d)

Facilitates early oral feeding

e)

Decreases edema and inflammation

79.

How long is bloody drainage expected after gastric surgery, and what amount should be reported as excess?

a)

2-3 hours, OVER 75 ml/hr

b)

24 hours, OVER 200 ml/hr

c)

1 week, OVER 50 ml/hr

d)

12 hours, OVER 100 ml/hr

80.

What should be done to avoid rupture of sutures and leakage into the peritoneal cavity after gastric surgery?

a)

Irrigate with NS

b)

Apply heat packs to the abdomen

c)

Encourage early ambulation

d)

Increase oral fluid intake immediately

81.

Drainage should darken and change to what color in 36-48 hours after gastric surgery?

a)

Yellow-green

b)

Bright red

c)

Milky white

d)

Clear

82.

Which vitamins and minerals are important for wound healing after gastric surgery?

a)

Potassium, vitamins C, D, K, and B-complex

b)

Calcium, vitamin A, and zinc

c)

Iron, vitamin E, and magnesium

d)

Sodium, vitamin B12, and folic acid

83.

Patients with pernicious anemia who undergo gastric surgery must take cobalamin, multivitamins with folate, calcium, vitamin D, and iron for _________.

a)

3-6 months

b)

1-2 years

c)

5-10 years

d)

5-10 months

e)

for the rest of their life

84.

Fill in the blank: In the first few weeks after surgery, meals should be soft, bland, low fiber, high complex carbohydrates, and high ________.

a)

protein

b)

sugar

c)

fat

d)

sodium

85.

Which of the following should be avoided WITH meals after stomach size reduction?

a)

Fluids

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Fiber

86.

Fill in the blank: To avoid hypoglycemia after stomach surgery, limit ________ with meals, and include moderate protein and fat.

a)

sugar

b)

fiber

c)

grains

d)

salt

87.

Which of the following is NOT recommended in the first few weeks after stomach size reduction?

a)

Small, frequent meals

b)

High protein

c)

Fried foods

d)

Chewing thoroughly

88.

Fill in the blank: Gastritis is the inflammation of ________.

a)

gastric mucosa

b)

renal cortex

c)

alveolar sacs

d)

hepatic lobules

89.

In gastritis, the breakdown of the gastric mucosal barrier allows ____ and ____ to diffuse back into the mucosa.

a)

proton pump inhibitors, histamine receptor blockers

b)

HCl acid, pepsin

c)

fiber, carbohydrates

d)

folate, iron

90.

Binge drinking of alcohol can lead to chronic gastritis.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

What can sometimes be the ONLY symptom of gastritis?

a)

epigastric tenderness

b)

anorexia

c)

N/V

d)

bleeding with alcohol use

92.

Gastritis can cause pernicious anemia due to loss of _______.

a)

HCl acid

b)

Pepsin

c)

Intrinsic factor

d)

Ketones

93.

SATA: Select all of the different types of upper GI bleeds.

a)

hematemesis: bloody, bright red vomitus

b)

coffee-ground emesis: indicates digested blood

c)

melena: black, tarry stools

d)

occult: trace amounts of blood in gastric secretions, vomitus, and/or stool

e)

reflux: undigested stomach contents and stomach acid

94.

What is the MOST COMMON cause of UGI bleeds?

a)

chronic esophagitis

b)

GERD

c)

esophageal varices

d)

peptic ulcer disease

95.

What is the primary diagnostic tool for discovering the source of a GI bleed?

a)

angiography

b)

CT scan

c)

endoscopy

d)

ultrasound

e)

MRI scan

96.

A massive GI bleed is classified as greater than ______ ml blood loss or _____% intravascular blood volume loss.

a)

100, 5

b)

500, 10

c)

1000, 50

d)

1500, 25

97.

A patient with a GI bleed that stops suddenly on it's own no longer requires treatment.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Endoscopic therapy is considered first line management for GI bleeds. How soon after the onset of the bleed does this therapy need to be performed to most accurately determine the next steps of treatment?

a)

within 1 week

b)

within 36 hours

c)

within 48 hours

d)

within 24 hours

99.

Antacids should ONLY be given for GI bleeds ______ the acute phase.

a)

BEFORE

b)

AFTER

c)

DURING

100.

SATA: Select the following treatments for UGI bleeds.

a)

clips or bands to compress the vessel

b)

thermal ablation to cauterize the vessel

c)

injection of epinephrine into the vessel

d)

injection of alcohol into the vessel

e)

surgical removal of the vessel

101.

It is imperative that the nurse assess the patient's ___________ before providing blood transfusions.

a)

occupation

b)

living situation

c)

religion

d)

socioeconomic status

102.

What type of venous access is required on a patient with a severe UGI bleed?

a)

a peripheral IV of any gauge

b)

one large bore (16g or bigger) peripheral IV

c)

two large bore (16g or bigger) peripheral IVs

d)

only central venous access lines can be used for severe UGI bleeds

103.

What kind of diet should a patient with an active UGI bleed be placed on?

a)

regular

b)

clear liquids

c)

full liquids

d)

strict NPO

e)

NPO, but sips and ice chips are allowed

104.

A patient with a severe UGI bleed presents with tachycardia, weak pulses, hypotension, and prolonged capillary refill. What is this patient experiencing?

a)

hypovolemic shock

b)

myocardial infarction

c)

HELLP syndrome

d)

sepsis

105.

SATA: Select some possible causes of gastritis.

a)

H. pylori

b)

autoimmune loss of parietal cells

c)

burns

d)

chronic NSAID use

e)

radiation