wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Revision Paper 2 (1)

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The speed–time graph for a racing car is divided into four sections, P, Q, R and S. The car starts the race but soon crashes into a wall of tyres. Which sections of the graph show that there is an acceleration that is changing?

a)

A. P, Q, R and S

b)

B. Q, R and S only

c)

C. Q and R only

d)

D. R and S only

2.

The diagram shows the four forces acting on an aircraft in flight. Which arrow shows the direction of the resultant of the four forces?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

3.

The diagrams show two metal blocks, X and Y, suspended from identical force meters. X and Y have identical dimensions. Which statement about X and Y is correct?

a)

They have different volumes and different weights.

b)

They have different volumes and equal weights.

c)

They have equal volumes and equal weights.

d)

They have equal volumes and different weights.

4.

A girl has a gold necklace. Which apparatus does she need to find the density of the gold?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

A spring has a length of 25 cm when a load of 2.0 N is suspended from it. The spring has a length of 35 cm when a 7.0 N load is used. What is the spring constant of the spring?

a)

0.20 N/cm

b)

0.50 N/cm

c)

2.0 N/cm

d)

5.0 N/cm

6.

The diagrams E–H show a block of wood on a frictionless surface. In each diagram, the block has two forces acting on its sides. Which diagrams show the block in equilibrium?

a)

A. E, F, G and H

b)

B. E, G and H only

c)

C. E and F only

d)

D. G and H only

7.

Which statement is not correct?

a)

the momentum of a system is conserved in all interactions

b)

impulse = change of momentum

c)

force acting = change of momentum × time

d)

momentum = mass × velocity

8.

A force acting on a moving ball causes its motion to change. This force stays constant. What makes the force produce a greater change in the motion of the ball?

a)

decreasing the total mass of the ball

b)

increasing the temperature of the ball

c)

using a ball with a hollow centre but the same mass

d)

using a different material for the ball so that it has a lower density but the same mass

9.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

10.

A hot gas and a cool liquid are at the same pressure. Which row describes the separation and the motion of the particles of a hot gas compared to those of a cool liquid?

a)

A. greater than a cool liquid - faster than a cool liquid

b)

B. greater than a cool liquid - slower than a cool liquid

c)

C. less than a cool liquid - faster than a cool liquid

d)

D. less than a cool liquid - slower than a cool liquid

11.

A fixed mass of gas has a volume of 1.2 m^3 and is at a pressure of 200 kPa. The gas expands at constant temperature to a volume of 1.8 m^3. What is the new pressure of the gas?

a)

120 kPa

b)

130 kPa

c)

300 kPa

d)

600 kPa

12.

The specific heat capacity of solid P is greater than that of solid Q. What does this statement mean?

a)

Less energy is needed to raise the temperature by 1°C of unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

b)

Less energy is needed to melt unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

c)

More energy is needed to raise the temperature by 1°C of unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

d)

More energy is needed to melt unit mass of solid P than unit mass of solid Q.

13.

When water evaporates, what escapes from the surface of the water?

a)

individual atoms

b)

individual molecules

c)

individual protons

d)

tiny drops of water

14.

A sealed container of gas is heated. The pressure of the gas increases. Which statement explains this increase in pressure?

a)

The forces of the gas particles striking the walls of the container increase.

b)

The forces of attraction between the gas particles and the walls of the container increase.

c)

The gas particles collide with each other more frequently.

d)

The gas particles lose more energy when they strike the walls of the container.

15.

A student has a copper rod and a wooden rod. Both rods have the same dimensions. The student puts one end of each rod into a beaker of crushed ice. After a few minutes, the student picks up the rods by the ends not in the ice. Which statement is correct?

a)

The copper rod feels colder than the wooden rod because copper is a better conductor than wood.

b)

The copper rod feels warmer than the wooden rod because copper is a better conductor than wood.

c)

The wooden rod feels colder than the copper rod because wood is a better conductor than copper.

d)

The wooden rod feels warmer than the copper rod because wood is a better conductor than copper.

16.

The diagram shows a black object X at constant temperature. The arrows represent the absorption and emission of thermal radiation at the surface. Object Y is at the same constant temperature as X and is identical except that it has a white surface. Which row correctly compares object X with object Y?

a)

A. rate of absorption for X: higher, rate of emission for X: higher

b)

B. rate of absorption for X: lower, rate of emission for X: higher

c)

C. rate of absorption for X: higher, rate of emission for X: lower

d)

D. rate of absorption for X: lower, rate of emission for X: lower

17.

The diagram shows a cork with a weight attached so that the cork floats upright in water. Transverse waves travel across the water from X to Y. In which direction do the waves make the cork move?

a)

A → ← right and left

b)

B ↑↓ up and down

c)

C → only to the right

d)

D ← only to the left

18.

A thin converging lens is used as a magnifying glass. How does the image compare with the object?

a)

A real and inverted

b)

B real and upright

c)

C virtual and inverted

d)

D virtual and upright

19.

The diagram shows two plane mirrors at 90° to each other. A ray of light is incident on one of the mirrors. The ray reflects off both mirrors before reaching a screen. At which labelled point does the ray reach the screen?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

The speed of light in a material is 50% of the speed of light in air. What is the refractive index of the material?

a)

0.5

b)

2.0

c)

6.0 x 108

d)

1.5 x 108

21.

A beam of white light is split into a spectrum of seven colours. Which name is given to this process?

a)

diffraction

b)

dispersion

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

22.

Satellites are sometimes used to receive and re-transmit television signals. Which row shows the type of satellite and the electromagnetic waves used?

a)

A. low orbit, infrared

b)

B. low orbit, microwaves

c)

C. geostationary, infrared

d)

D. geostationary, microwaves

23.

A sound wave travels through the air and strikes a solid block of steel. Some of the sound is reflected from the steel, and some is transmitted through the steel. How does the speed and the wavelength of the sound in steel compare to the speed and the wavelength of the sound in air?

a)

A. speed in steel: less than in air, wavelength in steel: less than in air

b)

B. speed in steel: less than in air, wavelength in steel: greater than in air

c)

C. speed in steel: greater than in air, wavelength in steel: less than in air

d)

D. speed in steel: greater than in air, wavelength in steel: greater than in air

24.
a)

A. magnetic pole at J: N, magnetic pole at K: N, where the magnetic field is the strongest: X

b)

B. magnetic pole at J: N, magnetic pole at K: N, where the magnetic field is the strongest: Y

c)

C. magnetic pole at J: S, magnetic pole at K: S, where the magnetic field is the strongest: X

d)

D. magnetic pole at J: S, magnetic pole at K: S, where the magnetic field is the strongest: Y

25.
a)

A. region in which an electric charge experiences a force; direction of the force on a positive charge

b)

B. region in which an electric charge experiences a force; direction of the force on a negative charge

c)

C. region in which an electric charge produces a current; direction of the force on a positive charge

d)

D. region in which an electric charge produces a current; direction of the force on a negative charge

26.

Copper wire is available in fixed lengths but in various diameters d. Each wire has a different resistance R. Which relationship between R and d is correct?

a)

R is directly proportional to d.

b)

R is directly proportional to d2.

c)

R is inversely proportional to d.

d)

R is inversely proportional to d2.

27.

The diagram shows three 20Ω resistors, R1, R2 and R3, and a switch S connected to a d.c. power supply. Switch S is open. The potential difference (p.d.) across R3 is 9.0V. What is the p.d. across R3 when switch S is closed?

a)

3.0V

b)

6.0V

c)

12V

d)

27V

28.

The circuits shown all include a d.c. power supply, one diode and two light-emitting diodes (LEDs). In which circuit will both LEDs be turned on?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

29.

A wire connected to a resistor R is moved in a magnetic field. A current is induced in the direction shown. In which direction is the wire moved?

a)

From D to A

b)

From A to D

c)

From B to C

d)

From C to B

30.

Which component is not found in an a.c. generator?

a)

A coil of wire

b)

B split-ring commutator

c)

C magnetic poles

d)

D slip rings

31.

There is a current in a straight metal wire in the direction shown. Which row describes the direction and the pattern of the magnetic field due to the wire when looking from vertically above the wire?

a)

A. anticlockwise, circular

b)

B. left to right, parallel lines

c)

C. clockwise, circular

d)

D. right to left, parallel lines

32.

A simple transformer contains an iron core. What is the function of the iron core in the transformer?

a)

to conduct current from the primary coil to the secondary coil

b)

to enable the secondary coil to act as an electromagnet

c)

to ensure there is a high voltage between the primary coil and the secondary coil

d)

to link the magnetic field in the primary coil to the secondary coil

33.

In an alpha particle scattering experiment, a beam of alpha particles is fired at a very thin piece of gold foil. In which direction do most of the alpha particles travel after hitting the foil?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

An atom of boron contains 5 protons and 5 electrons. The nucleon number of the atom is 11. How many neutrons are there in the atom?

a)

A 5

b)

B 6

c)

C 11

d)

D 16

35.

A detector placed near a radioactive isotope gives a measured count rate of 800 counts/minute. The half-life of the isotope is three hours. The background count rate is 32 counts/minute. What is the count rate on the detector after six hours?

a)

192 counts/minute

b)

200 counts/minute

c)

224 counts/minute

d)

232 counts/minute

36.

Sodium-24 is a radioactive isotope that emits beta radiation. Which nuclear equation shows how sodium-24 decays?

a)

A ²⁴₁₁Na → ²⁴₁₂Mg + -₁⁰β

b)

B ²⁴₁₁Na → ²⁴₁₀Ne + -₁⁰β

c)

C ²⁴₁₁Na → ⁹₄F + ²₄β

d)

D ²⁴₁₁Na → ¹³₂₀Al + ²₄β

37.

Which safety precautions must be taken when using a source of gamma radiation?

1 Reduce the distance between the source and the person.

2 Reduce the time of exposure to the radiation.

3 Use a suitable shielding material between the source and the person.

a)

A 1, 2 and 3

b)

B 1 and 2 only

c)

C 1 and 3 only

d)

D 2 and 3 only

38.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

Which statement about the Universe is correct?

a)

The Universe consists of 100000 galaxies.

b)

Redshift is a decrease in the observed wavelength of electromagnetic radiation emitted from receding galaxies.

c)

Light emitted from distant galaxies appears redshifted.

d)

Redshift of the light from distant galaxies gives evidence that the Universe is contracting.

40.

Which statement about the cosmic microwave background radiation (CMBR) is correct?

a)

CMBR now has a frequency higher than that of infrared radiation.

b)

CMBR has always had exactly the same frequency.

c)

CMBR had a shorter wavelength in the past.

d)

CMBR was produced a long time after the Universe was formed.