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Firefighter I: Exam II

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A freestanding wall the extends above the roofline is a _____ wall.

a)

Parapet

b)

Pony

c)

Curtain

d)

Sleeper

2.

According to recent UL and NIST fire research, which is a likely outcome of improperly performed ventilation at a ventilation-controlled fire?

a)

Reduce visibility

b)

Vent-point ignition

c)

Rapid fire growth

d)

Stratification of smoke

3.

Application of water streams into a structure from the outside will have which effect?

a)

Pushing the fire into uninvolved parts of the structure

b)

Redirecting the flow path

c)

Reduced temperatures in may parts of the structure

d)

Lowering of the smoke layer

4.

What does a neutral plane at a vent opening indicate?

a)

Fuel-limited stage fire

b)

Equal pressure inside and outside the structure

c)

Pre-flashover conditions

d)

Stack effect

5.

What does fast-moving smoke indicate?

a)

Very hot fire

b)

Incomplete combustion

c)

High synthetic fuel content

d)

Poorly ventilated ventilation- controlled fire

6.

What is the term for an open space within a wall where wires and pipes run?

a)

Bay

b)

Chase

c)

Channel

d)

Soffit

7.

A dry hydrant provides access to a:

a)

Static water source

b)

cistern or well

c)

Municipal water system

d)

Portable water tank

8.

An object in motion possesses which kind of energy as a result of that motion?

a)

Inertial

b)

Entropic

c)

Potential

d)

Kinetic

9.

Friction loss is ____ proportional to the length of a hose

a)

Directly

b)

Variably

c)

Inversely

d)

Indirectly

10.

In areas of the western US where aircraft are used to fight wild lands fires, which term is used to automotive water supply apparatus?

a)

Water truck

b)

Tanker

c)

Tender

d)

Tank truck

11.

When water is motionless, which king of energy does it have?

a)

Residual

b)

Absolute

c)

Potential

d)

Kinetic

12.

Which type of pressure is created by the difference in height between a water source and the point of discharge?

a)

Elevation

b)

Static

c)

Flow

d)

Gravity

13.

During annual testing, supply hose is tested at:

a)

200 psi (1379 kPa)

b)

300 psi (2068 kPa)

c)

400 psi (2757 kPa)

d)

500 psi (3447 kPa)

14.

In general, what volume does a 2 1/2 (65-mm) handline flow?

a)

175 gem (662 lpm)

b)

200 gem (757 lpm)

c)

250 gem (946 lpm)

d)

300 gem (1135 lpm)

15.

Which coupling goes on the inside of a straight hose roll?

a)

Female

b)

Male

c)

Either

d)

Both couplings are attached

16.

What is an advantage of a smooth-bore nozzle?

a)

Greater heat absorption per gallon discharged

b)

Operation at a higher nozzle pressure

c)

Greater disruption of thermal layering

d)

Longer stream reach

17.

Which is an advantage of an automatic- adjusting fog nozzle

a)

The nozzle reaction remains constant despite variations in pump pressure

b)

The rate of flow adjusts to maintain the rated nozzle pressure

c)

The flow from the nozzle remains constant despite variation in pressure

d)

The flow rate remains constant regardless of the discharge pattern

18.

Which threadless coupling is commonly used on large diameter hose?

a)

Ramos

b)

Snap-tite

c)

Storz

d)

Naval

19.

A hose line is advanced to a building to attack a fire in a(n) _______ attack

a)

Blitz

b)

Transitional

c)

Offensive

d)

Defensive

20.

A short fold in a supply hose load that prevents a coupling from flipping around when the hose is being laid out is a:

a)

Bowtie

b)

Dutchman

c)

Reverse

d)

Tuck

21.

When there is extra hose at the entry of a building, how should that hose be arranged?

a)

Large, loose coils

b)

A serpentine pattern

c)

A straight line

d)

Similar to an accordion fold

22.

Which hose line is stored on an engine connected to a discharge and equipped with a nozzle for immediate deployment?

a)

Skid load

b)

Ready load

c)

Bundle

d)

Preconnect

23.

Which is one of the three types of attack line hose evolutions?

a)

Rapid Attack

b)

Transitional

c)

Master stream

d)

Containment

24.

Which statement about operating an attack line from a ground ladder is correct?

a)

This is a risky operation that should be avoided whenever possible

b)

The ladder should be tied off to the building

c)

Two parallel ladder are required

d)

The hose must be secured to the ladder

25.

An elevated master stream device mounted at the tip of an aerial ladder is a:

a)

Ladder pipe

b)

Turret

c)

Snorkel

d)

Rung gun

26.

Defensive firefighting operations are conducted from which location?

a)

Interior

b)

Roof

c)

Exterior

d)

Threatened exposure

27.

How should firefighters approach a vehicle fire?

a)

90-degree angle from the side

b)

45-degree angle from the side

c)

Directly from the front

d)

Directly from the rear

28.

In modern residential construction, fresh air enters the attic space through which vent?

a)

Ridge/Peak

b)

Soffit

c)

Gable

d)

Roof

29.

Operations are conducted from inside the fire building in which type of attack?

a)

Rescue

b)

Offensive

c)

Defensive

d)

Tactical

30.

Under which circumstances it it considered safe for a one fire fighter to safely handle a large handling?

a)

When using a 50 psi (350 kPA) nozzle

b)

When using a landline for exposure protection

c)

There are no circumstances under which is considered a safe practice

d)

When the handling is stationary and well anchored

31.

A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation?

a)

As each resource check in to the command post

b)

Upon entry of a company into the hazardous area

c)

Upon occurrence of an unplanned event

d)

Upon activation of a low-air alarm

32.

Complete the sentence: "We will not risk our lives:

a)

for a persons or property that cannot be saved."

b)

because to do so we become part of the problem."

c)

for others who are already at risk."

d)

because we will use our heads instead."

33.

If a firefighter becomes disoriented, how can the hose line be used to assist in egress?

a)

Move in the direction of the shank without lugs

b)

Place one hand on the swivel and on the shank; move in the direction of the swivel

c)

Place both hand on the coupling; travel in the direction of the hand holding the male coupling

d)

The male coupling is on the end of the hose nearest the apparatus

34.

What is the most basic method of regaining orientation in a zero-visibility environment?

a)

Find and follow a hose line

b)

Listen for the sound of the apparatus motor

c)

Probe the walls for a window or door

d)

Activate the PASS

35.

Which action is correct for a fire in a building that is known to be abandoned and unoccupied?

a)

Operate as you would for any building with similar fire conditions

b)

Take a hose line inside, perform a primary survey, and extinguish the fire if conditions permit

c)

Stay outside and fight the fire from the exterior

d)

Enter the building, perform a primary search, and then get out

36.

Which statement about hazard recognition is correct?

a)

Hazards tend to be the same regardless of the nature of the incident.

b)

The most obvious hazards tend to pose the least danger.

c)

Hazards decrease as the duration of the incident increases.

d)

Not all hazardous conditions are evident through observation.

37.

A fire cannot be considered fully extinguished until _______ is complete.

a)

loss control

b)

overhaul

c)

secondary search

d)

The suppression operation

38.

A long section of protective material used to protect flooring or carpet is a:

a)

Floor roll

b)

Salvage mat

c)

Carpet cover

d)

Floor runner

39.

What is a common location for a post indicator valve?

a)

On an exterior wall

b)

Next to the water meter

c)

On the main system riser

d)

In a utility or mechanical room

40.

What is the most reliable method for determining whether there is hidden fire?

a)

Direct inspection

b)

Thermal imaging

c)

Odor/Sight of smoke

d)

Atmospheric monitoring

41.

Where do salvage operations usually begin?

a)

On the floor below the fire floor

b)

In high-value areas

c)

In the least damaged area

d)

As close to the seat of the fire as possible

42.

Which is a sign that a structure is susceptible to collapse?

a)

Discolored drywall at floor level

b)

Doors stuck in shifted frames

c)

Delaminated plywood

d)

Inverted fire patterns

43.

A PPE ensemble weighs at least:

a)

22 lb (ll kg)

b)

40 lb (18 kg)

c)

60 lb (27 kg)

d)

75 lb (34 kg)

44.

A fire fighter can lose up to _____ in an hour of strenuous exertion.

a)

0.5 quart (0.5 liter)

b)

1 quart (1 liter)

c)

1.5 quarts (1.5 liters)

d)

2 quarts (2 liters)

45.

As fatigue increases, the risk of injury:

a)

Descreases

b)

Stays the same

c)

Increases

d)

Becomes unavoidable

46.

How are rehabilitation concerns affected by cold weather?

a)

Rehab should include access to dry clothing

b)

PPE reduces the likelihood of hypothermia

c)

Drinking hot liquids should be prohibited

d)

Recommended fluid intake is reduced

47.

Nutrition during extended-duration incidents should emphasize:

a)

carbohydrate loading.

b)

fluid and electrolyte replacement.

c)

complete, balanced meals.

d)

high-protein, high-fat foods.

48.

When should a full rehabilitation center be established?

a)

It varies with conditions and the nature of the incident

b)

At all incidents requiring the use of PPE

c)

For any incident occurring in extreme weather

d)

At all incidents

49.

A fire fighter should reconsider accepting an assignment if it involves _____ or more of the eighteen watch out situations.

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Five

50.

Aerial fuels are at least _____ above the ground.

a)

4 ft (1.2 m)

b)

6 ft (2 m)

c)

8 ft (2.5 m)

d)

10 ft (3 m)

51.

The unburned part of a wildland fire area is the:

a)

Island

b)

Clear

c)

Perimeter

d)

Green

52.

Typical backpack fire extinguishers contain __________ of water.

a)

2 gal (7.5 L)

b)

3 gal (11 L)

c)

4 gal (15 L)

d)

5 gal (19 L)

53.

What does the "E" in LCES stand for?

a)

Establish lookouts

b)

Expect surprises

c)

Establish accountability

d)

Escape routes

54.

What is the term for the natural and human-made features of land?

a)

Cartography

b)

Geography

c)

Topography

d)

Geology

55.

As an incident progresses, what is an additional factor to be evaluated in the ongoing size-up?

a)

Establishment of an overall goal for the incident

b)

Actions that can be safely accomplished

c)

Additional resources needed

d)

The effectiveness of the initial plan

56.

In which decade did efforts begin to establish a standardized incident command system?

a)

1940s

b)

1950s

c)

1970s

d)

1990s

57.

The goal of the __________ concept is to encourage communication and input from all crew members to assess the situation and to develop the safest and most effective method to complete the assignment.

a)

functional supervision

b)

horizontal command

c)

group decision-making

d)

crew resource management

58.

What does the "S" stand for in "RECEO-VS"?

a)

Span of control

b)

Salvage

c)

Size-up

d)

Search

59.

What is the ICS term for companies or crews working on the same task or function?

a)

Division

b)

Group

c)

Unit

d)

Branch

60.

Which is a commonly used mnemonic for reporting a mayday?

a)

TROUBL

b)

UNIT-A

c)

AREA

d)

LUNAR

61.

A burning liquid that is pouring over the edge of a container is known as a ________ fire.

a)

flowing

b)

continuous

c)

three-dimensional

d)

cascading

62.

A straight stream is briefly discharged through a window from the building exterior. This is typical of which type of attack?

a)

Combination

b)

Transitional

c)

Defensive

d)

Blitz

63.

At a structure fire, a continuous water supply is unavailable. Which type of operation is appropriate?

a)

Direct

b)

Transitional

c)

Defensive

d)

Offensive

64.

In the SLICE-RS acronym, which is an action of opportunity?

a)

Rescue

b)

Cool the space from the safest location

c)

Size-up

d)

Locate the fire

65.

What is the term for the movement of heat and smoke from an area of higher pressure to lower pressure?

a)

Convective track

b)

Structure pressure gradient

c)

Exhaust flow

d)

Flow path

66.

Which action should be taken if rapidly deteriorating smoke, fire, or heat conditions become evident during interior operations?

a)

Cool the overhead with a straight/solid stream

b)

Expedite vertical ventilation operations

c)

Switch to transitional attack

d)

Withdraw from the structure

67.

A windshield is made of __________ glass.

a)

laminated

b)

dichroic

c)

tempered

d)

composite

68.

For extrication purposes, which is one of the three main components of a vehicle?

a)

Electrical system

b)

Body

c)

Drivetrain

d)

Passenger compartment

69.

Vehicle air bags may remain energized for as long as _____ minutes after the vehicle battery has been disconnected.

a)

0

b)

5

c)

10

d)

It varies with the manufacturer

70.

What divides the engine compartment of a car from the passenger compartment?

a)

"A" wall

b)

Dashboard

c)

Bulkhead

d)

Partition

71.

What is the designation for the posts located between the front and rear doors on a four-door vehicle?

a)

The 2-posts

b)

The B-post

c)

The mid-post

d)

The short posts

72.

When operating at an MVA, when is it permissible not to wear a high-visibility vest?

a)

When working inside the passenger compartment

b)

While fighting fire

c)

While operating extrication tools

d)

It is never permissible not to wear the vest at an MVA.

73.

A Class _____ harness is a full-body harness for use by rescuers.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

74.

How does exposure to natural gas affect the body?

a)

There is no effect; natural gas is inert and nontoxic

b)

Natural gas causes swelling of the airways

c)

Natural gas interferes with cellular metabolism

d)

Natural gas acts as an asphyxiant

75.

In which step of the technical rescue incident process are victims freed from entrapment?

a)

Extrication

b)

Recovery

c)

Release

d)

Disentanglement

76.

What is used to stabilize the sides of an excavation?

a)

Bracing

b)

Sheeting

c)

Shoring

d)

Cribbing

77.

When should emergency medical care be started for trapped victims in a technical rescue incident?

a)

As soon as they are safely accessible

b)

After they are packaged

c)

Upon exiting the hazard zone

d)

Upon arrival at the medical group

78.

Which is a correct statement about tool staging at a TRI?

a)

The tool staging area should be co-located with the vehicle staging area.

b)

Needed tools may be identified during the size-up process.

c)

The staged tool inventory should be identical to that used during a fire.

d)

Each group or division should have its own tool staging area.

79.

A fire department pumper can supplement a sprinkler system water supply through the:

a)

Class I standpipe

b)

APV

c)

OS&Y

d)

FDC

80.

All of the following are standard sprinkler head mounting positions except one. Choose the exception.

a)

Branch

b)

Pendent

c)

Upright

d)

Sidewall

81.

In most cases, how many sprinkler heads will open before a fire is controlled?

a)

1-2

b)

2-4

c)

3-5

d)

5-8

82.

The combination of working smoke alarms and a residential sprinkler system reduces the chance of a death from a home fire by _____ percent.

a)

56

b)

66

c)

75

d)

82

83.

Which class of standpipe is intended for fire department use only?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

84.

Which device activates the building fire alarm when water is flowing in a sprinkler system?

a)

Check valve

b)

Water flow alarm device

c)

Activator switch

d)

Alarm valve

85.

A comprehensive, all-hazard unifying approach that includes programs, actions, and services used by a community, which prevent or mitigate the loss of life, property, and resources associated with life safety, fire, and other disasters within a community is:

a)

Community risk reduction

b)

Comprehensive risk management

c)

All-hazard response planning

d)

Community emergency response

86.

Horizontal evacuation is used primarily in which type of occupancy?

a)

Assembly

b)

High rise

c)

Healthcare

d)

Multifamily residential

87.

If solid fuels are regularly burned, it is recommended that the chimney or flue pipe be professionally inspected every _____ months.

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

88.

Many new smoke alarms contain an extended-life _____-year battery.

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

89.

Many new smoke alarms contain an extended-life _____-year battery.

a)

Voluntary safety inspection

b)

Home fire safety survey

c)

Home inspection program

d)

Residential hazard survey

90.

__________ includes a range of activities intended to prevent the outbreak of fires or to limit fire consequences.

a)

Loss control

b)

Fire prevention

c)

Code enforcement

d)

Public education