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WorksheetsHESI Procedures and Final Exam Review
Total questions: 95
Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins
The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction of how many degrees?
10°
15°
20°
25°
Projections that are generally included in an acute abdomen survey include which of the following?
AP supine abdomen
Dorsal decubitus abdomen
Erect or lateral decubitus abdomen
PA chest
Ventral decubitus abdomen
Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle?
In the upper two-third of the orbits.
Below the maxillary sinuses.
In the lower one third of the orbits.
Filling the orbits.
Which of the following projections of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition by the ulna?
Lateral projection (lateromedial)
AP medial oblique (internal rotation)
AP lateral oblique (external rotation)
Acute flexion projection
The intervertebral foramina are best demonstrated in which projections of the spine?
Lateral sacrum/coccyx
Lateral lumbar spine
Lateral thoracic spine
Lateral cervical spine
In an AP external rotation projection of the shoulder, the __________ should be seen in profile laterally.
humeral head
greater tubercle
lesser tubercle
glenoid fossa
The appropriate centering point for an AP projection of the lumbosacral region is
midpoint between the xiphoid tip and sternal notch
2 inches superior to the public symphysis
at the level of the iliac crest
1 inch superior to the iliac crest and 2 inches medial to the ASIS
Which of the following is the usual way of obtaining a lateral projection of the proximal humerus in cases of trauma?
Transthoracic or Lawrence method
Grashey method
Lateromedial recumbent
Stetcher method
Which of the following is true regarding the Towne method?
The dorsum sellae is projected within the foramen magnum.
The zygomatic arches are free of superimposition.
The anatomy of interest is the frontal bone and maxilla.
The petrous ridges are projected in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.
A patient cannot flex their head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial view. What should the technologist do?
perform the Caldwell method
use the AML and increase the CR angle by 10 degrees
use the IOML and increase the CR angle by 7 degrees
perform a SMV projection in place of the AP axial
All the following statements regarding hand hygiene and skin care are correct except:
hands should be cleansed before and after each patient examination.
any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing.
faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels.
hands should be smooth and free from chapping.
When examining the contrast-filled bladder, how many degrees caudad is the X-ray tube angled in order to project the symphysis pubis inferior to the urinary bladder?
10 to 15
20 to 25
30 to 35
40 to 45
The central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:
to the level of T4.
3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.
at the vertebra prominens.
at the xiphoid process.
At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen?
Iliac crest
2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest
ASIS
Umbilicus
What type of CR angle is required for the AP lordotic projection for the lung apices?
None. CR is perpendicular to IR.
10- to 15-degree caudad.
15- to 20-degree cephalad.
25- to 35-degree caudad.
How many projections are required for the AP-acute flexion study of the elbow?
One
Two
Three
Four
Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram?
Patient discomfort at puncture site
Contrast media may leak from puncture site
Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region
Excessive radiation exposure to anterior chest structures
How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)?
20 degrees
45 degrees
50 to 60 degrees
70 degrees
How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions for the sacroiliac joints?
45 degrees
10 to 15 degrees
60 to 70 degrees
25 to 30 degrees
A patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis. Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition?
Single-contrast barium enema
Double-contrast barium enema
Evacuative proctogram
Small bowel series
An AP projection of the foot should have a central ray angle of
15 degrees posterior
15 degrees anterior
5 degrees anterior
10 degrees posterior
A young child comes to radiology with an elbow injury. The basic elbow projections demonstrate a possible nondisplaced fracture of the coronoid process. Beyond the medial oblique projection, what additional projection(s) can be performed to demonstrate the coronoid process in profile?
Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle toward shoulder
Radial head lateral projections
Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle away from shoulder
Acute flexion projection
A patient comes to radiology for an evaluation of the longitudinal arch of the foot. Which of the following projections would provide the best information about the arch?
Routine foot series
Plantodorsal (axial) projection
AP and lateral weight-bearing projections of foot
Sesamoid bone series projection
A radiograph of a plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus reveals foreshortening. The technologist used 60 kVp, 6 mAs, 40-inch (100-cm) SID, and a 25-degree cephalad CR angle from the long axis of the foot. Which of the following modifications will produce a more diagnostic image of the calcaneus?
Plantarflex the foot.
Increase CR angulation.
Decrease CR angulation.
Increase kVp to 70.
Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney?
Presence of right colic flexure
Presence of the liver
Presence of the stomach
Presence of right suprarenal gland
Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck?
Medial oblique knee
External oblique knee
Medial oblique ankle
Mortise ankle
How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise projection?
No rotation is necessary
45- to 60-degree lateral
15- to 20-degree medial
25- to 30-degree medial
Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a properly exposed abdomen projection on an average-size patient?
Latissimus dorsi
Erector spinae
Psoas major
Quadratus lumborum
Which radiographic landmark is most reliable to evaluate the posteroanterior (PA) projection of the abdomen for rotation?
Xiphoid process
Symphysis pubis
Ala of ilium
ASIS
The centering point “2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis” identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part?
Hip
Pelvis
Knee
Elbow
Which of the following are the synarthrodial sutures of the skull?
Coronal
Occipital
Sagittal
Squamosal
Lambdoidal
What term is used to describe turning of the body or arm so that the palm faces backward, with the thumb toward the midline of the body?
Abduction
Circumduction
Pronation
Eversion
Supination
The most effective means of reducing voluntary motion is
expediting the exam.
good communication.
using the shortest possible exposure time.
using immobilization devices/restraints.
If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is:
5 degrees caudad
5 degrees cephalad
perpendicular
0 degrees caudad
The AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity?
20°
30°
45°
60°
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?
Scapular Y
AP scapula
Medial oblique elbow
Lateral oblique elbow
The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of
pulmonary markings
heart shadow
posterior ribs
costal cartilages
Which element does MRI use the magnetic properties of?
Oxygen
Carbon
Hydrogen
Pottasium
In MRI, which electromagnetic wave is used to cause resonation in hydrogen atoms?
Ultra-Violet waves
Radiowaves
Microwaves
Gamma rays
What CT generation is commonly used today?
3rd Generation CT
2nd Generation CT
Electron Beam CT
1st Generation CT
Which technology was essential for the development of third and fourth generation scanners?
Slip-rings
Detector arrays
RF coils
Dose modulators
A pulse sequence using a long TR and long TE will result in:
T2 weighting
T1 weighting
PD weighting
DP weighting
According to the Hounsfield Unit scale, air will have a CT number of:
0
-1000
+1000
-250
Which scanner generation utilized a fixed array of detectors?
4th gen
3rd gen
2nd gen
1st gen
Static magnetic field strengths in MRI are measured in:
Tesla
Watts
Ohms
Grouss
Arthrography is routinely performed prior to __ or __ imaging.
CT, MRI
CT, US
MRI, US
CT, IR
Which of the following is NOT a joint routinely imaged using arthrography?
Sacroiliac joint
Hip joint
Knee joint
Shoulder joint
Arthrography can be performed using double-contrast methods with:
iodinated contrast and air
iodinated contrast and oil
gadolinium contrast and saline
gadolinium contrast and silver sulfide
What tissue weighting is this image?
T1
T2
PD
Gradient echo
What is the line at which the magnetic field is considered to be strong enough to interfere with electronic devices and cause torque on ferrous objects?
5 gauss line
50 gauss line
5 tesla line
50 tesla line
Which modality is ideal for diagnosing disease in the central nervous system?
MRI
Arthrography
CT
US
Computed tomography scanners utilized for cardiac imaging must have excellent:
temporal resolution, allowing them to obtain images rapidly and prevent motion artifacts
spatial resolution, allowing them to obtain images rapidly and prevent motion artifacts
temporal resolution, allowing them to obtain images slowly and prevent distortion
spatial resolution, allowing them to obtain images continuously and prevent distortion
Which of the following electronic component is used in ultrasound
Quartz crystal
Amplifier
Transducer
Transformer
Ultrasound frequency is expressed in
newtons (N)
angstroms (A)
rads
hertz (Hz)
Ultrasound waves are created by
Photo electric effect
Compton effect
Piezoelectric effect
None of these
Doppler imaging
is a type radiation treatment
is a general term used to visualize velocities of moving tissues.
is a low frequency ultrasound
None od these
Which of the following nuclear medicine instruments forms images resulting from the annihilation of pairs of matter and antimatter particles? Mark one answer:
Positron emission tomography (PET) scanner
Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scanner
Multigated acquisition (MUGA) scanner
Scintigraphy scanner
The term used to describe the decay of an isotope to one half of the original value is:
Radioactive decay
Half-Life
Half value layer
Time, Distance,Shielding
The goal of radiation oncology is to:
destroy all tissue in the portion of the body where the cancer is located.
deliver a cancericidal dose to the tumor but limit the dose to normal tissue.
limit dose to the cancer and normal tissue to avoid toxicity.
deliver a large dose all at once to the cancer.
_____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.
Fractionation
Differentiation
Currative therapy
Palative care
One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use:
fractionation.
differentiation.
palliation.
conformal radiation.
Radiation has more effect on cancer cells because _____ than normal cells.
they are more highly differentiated
a greater percentage of these cells are undergoing mitosis
cancer cells undergo more direct interactions
it interacts more readily with healthy cells
The accurate calculation and measurement of radiation dose for treatment of a therapy patient is referred to as:
brachytherapy.
simulation.
dosimetry.
linear energy transfer.
In ultrasound, sound waves transmits freely through ________ and is very poorly transmitted through ________.
fluid, air
air, bone
air, fluid
fat, fluid
In gamma cameras ________ crystals are better for imaging radiopharmaceuticals with higher energies, but result in decreased resolution.
thicker
thinner
synthetic
transparent
The pivot point between the x-ray tube and IR in a tomographic system is termed
amplitude
fulcrum
tube trajectory
objective plane
Objects within the objective plane will appear
blurred
sharp and in relative focus
as radiolucent densities
as streaks
Which of the following conditions is likely to result in pneumoperitoneum?
Inflammation or necrosis
Obstruction of the cystic duct
Excessive alcohol consumption
Perforation of the GI tract
What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis?
Infection of the biliary system.
Cirrhosis of the liver.
Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct.
Peptic ulcer disease.
What is intussusception?
A twisting of the bowel on itself.
A type of inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, with an associated psychogenic element.
Acquired herniation of the mucosa and submucosa of the intestinal wall.
The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another.
Difficulty swallowing is termed
deglutition
mastication
dysphagia
aphasia
The term etiology describes:
the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease.
relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment.
arising from an unknown cause.
the unique combination of signs and symptoms that characterize a disease process.
The study of neoplasms or tumors is called
pathology
radiology
oncology
etiology
Which type of cell is associated with bone resorption and bone removal?
osteoclast
osteocyte
osteoblast
osteolytic
A fracture that occurs due to weakening of the bone as the result of a disease process is a ______ fracture.
Greenstick.
Stress.
Fatigue.
Pathologic.
Constriction of the aorta at the distal arch is termed
coarctation of the aorta
tetralogy of Fallot
aortic prolapse
aortic valve insufficiency
Which foramina are demonstrated with a left posterior oblique (LPO) position of the cervical spine?
The left intervertebral foramina (downside)
The right intervertebral foramina (upside)
The right intervertebral foramina (downside)
The left intervertebral foramina (upside)
A lateral cervical spine projection shows the ramus of the mandible superimposed over the anatomy of interest. Which action should the technologist take when positioning for the repeat image to ensure that the same error does not occur?
Increase the extension of the skull
Angle the CR 10-15 degrees caudad
Increase the flexion of the skull
Have the patient hold 5-10 pounds in each hand
When evaluating an oblique lumbar spine radiograph you notice that the joints are not well visualized, and the pedicle is posterior on the vertebral body. Which positioning error is present?
The CR angle is too shallow
Patient is over-rotated
Patient is not in a true lateral
Patient is under-rotated
Number 1 represents the:
Superior articular process
Pars Interarticularis
Spinous process
Transverse Process
The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at a ___ angle in relation to the MSP.
90 degree
45 degree
70-75 degree
30-35 degree
In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is _____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion.
1-2 inches
3-5 inches
6-8 inches
10-12 inches
A breathing technique may be used to blur the lung markings on which of the following projections?
RAO Sternum
Lateral Sternum
PA Oblique Ribs
AP Oblique Ribs
Which would best demonstrate an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?
AP and RAO
PA and LPO
AP and LPO
PA and RPO
A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is free of superimposition with the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem?
No change necessary.
Increase rotation.
Decrease rotation.
Perform an LPO instead.
A PA image of the SC joints demonstrates that the left SC joint is farther from the sternum than the right. What specific positioning error is present?
slight right rotation
tilt of the upper thorax
slight left rotation
excessive angulation of the CR
An image of an LAO projection of the ribs demonstrates the right axillary ribs are foreshortened and the left are elongated. Which of the following is the most likely reason?
CR angulation was incorrect
the technologist should have performed a PA projection not an RAO
an RAO was performed rather than the LAO
the patient requires more rotation to the left
A patient’s T-score given in a bone density report:
compares the patient’s BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender.
compares the patient’s BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.
compares the patient’s BMD with that of an age- and sex-matched normal population.
is the same for all measurement sites.
Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:
quality assessment.
system reliability.
accuracy.
precision.
What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?
Jaundice
Pancreatitis
Chronic cholecystitis
Residual calculi
Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections?
Supine
Prone
Standing
Decubitus
Which projections of the breast are routinely performed during screening mammography?
Lateral
Craniocaudal
Mediolateral oblique
The method used to image the breasts of women who have had implants is the:
Towne
Eklund
Stecher
Lawrence
MRI is commonly used in mammography for imaging:
male patients.
patients older than 75.
after lumpectomy surgery.
the augmented breast.
What is the recommended frequency of mammography for a women who is 50 years of age?
Every 6 months
Once a year
Every 1 to 2 years
Every 3 years
