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HESI Procedures and Final Exam Review

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction of how many degrees? 

a)

10°   

b)

15°  

c)

20° 

d)

25° 

2.

Projections that are generally included in an acute abdomen survey include which of the following?

a)

AP supine abdomen

b)

Dorsal decubitus abdomen

c)

Erect or lateral decubitus abdomen

d)

PA chest 

e)

Ventral decubitus abdomen

3.

Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle?

a)

In the upper two-third of the orbits. 

b)

Below the maxillary sinuses. 

c)

In the lower one third of the orbits. 

d)

Filling the orbits. 

4.

Which of the following projections of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition by the ulna?

a)

Lateral projection (lateromedial) 

b)

AP medial oblique (internal rotation) 

c)

AP lateral oblique (external rotation) 

d)

Acute flexion projection 

5.

The intervertebral foramina are best demonstrated in which projections of the spine?

a)

Lateral sacrum/coccyx 

b)

Lateral lumbar spine 

c)

Lateral thoracic spine 

d)

Lateral cervical spine 

6.

In an AP external rotation projection of the shoulder, the __________ should be seen in profile laterally.

a)

humeral head 

b)

greater tubercle

c)

lesser tubercle

d)

glenoid fossa

7.

The appropriate centering point for an AP projection of the lumbosacral region is

a)

midpoint between the xiphoid tip and sternal notch

b)

2 inches superior to the public symphysis

c)

at the level of the iliac crest

d)

1 inch superior to the iliac crest and 2 inches medial to the ASIS

8.

Which of the following is the usual way of obtaining a lateral projection of the proximal humerus in cases of trauma? 

a)

Transthoracic or Lawrence method 

b)

Grashey method 

c)

Lateromedial recumbent 

d)

Stetcher method 

9.

Which of the following is true regarding the Towne method?

a)

The dorsum sellae is projected within the foramen magnum.

b)

The zygomatic arches are free of superimposition.

c)

The anatomy of interest is the frontal bone and maxilla.

d)

The petrous ridges are projected in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.

10.

A patient cannot flex their head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial view.  What should the technologist do?

a)

perform the Caldwell method

b)

use the AML and increase the CR angle by 10 degrees

c)

use the IOML and increase the CR angle by 7 degrees

d)

perform a SMV projection in place of the AP axial

11.

All the following statements regarding hand hygiene and skin care are correct except:

a)

hands should be cleansed before and after each patient examination. 

b)

any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing. 

c)

faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels. 

d)

hands should be smooth and free from chapping. 

12.

When examining the contrast-filled bladder, how many degrees caudad is the X-ray tube angled in order to project the symphysis pubis inferior to the urinary bladder?   

a)

10 to 15

b)

20 to 25

c)

30 to 35

d)

40 to 45

13.

The central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:

a)

to the level of T4.

b)

3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.

c)

at the vertebra prominens.

d)

at the xiphoid process.

14.

At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen?

a)

Iliac crest

b)

2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

c)

ASIS

d)

Umbilicus

15.

What type of CR angle is required for the AP lordotic projection for the lung apices?

a)

None. CR is perpendicular to IR.

b)

10- to 15-degree caudad.

c)

15- to 20-degree cephalad.

d)

25- to 35-degree caudad.

16.

How many projections are required for the AP-acute flexion study of the elbow?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

17.

Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram?

a)

Patient discomfort at puncture site

b)

Contrast media may leak from puncture site

c)

Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region

d)

Excessive radiation exposure to anterior chest structures

18.

How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)?

a)

20 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

50 to 60 degrees

d)

70 degrees

19.

How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions for the sacroiliac joints?

a)

45 degrees

b)

10 to 15 degrees

c)

60 to 70 degrees

d)

25 to 30 degrees

20.

A patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis. Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition?

a)

Single-contrast barium enema

b)

Double-contrast barium enema

c)

Evacuative proctogram

d)

Small bowel series

21.

An AP projection of the foot should have a central ray angle of

a)

15 degrees posterior

b)

15 degrees anterior

c)

5 degrees anterior

d)

10 degrees posterior

22.

A young child comes to radiology with an elbow injury. The basic elbow projections demonstrate a possible nondisplaced fracture of the coronoid process. Beyond the medial oblique projection, what additional projection(s) can be performed to demonstrate the coronoid process in profile?

a)

Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle toward shoulder

b)

Radial head lateral projections

c)

Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle away from shoulder

d)

Acute flexion projection

23.

A patient comes to radiology for an evaluation of the longitudinal arch of the foot. Which of the following projections would provide the best information about the arch?

a)

Routine foot series

b)

Plantodorsal (axial) projection

c)

AP and lateral weight-bearing projections of foot

d)

Sesamoid bone series projection

24.

A radiograph of a plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus reveals foreshortening. The technologist used 60 kVp, 6 mAs, 40-inch (100-cm) SID, and a 25-degree cephalad CR angle from the long axis of the foot. Which of the following modifications will produce a more diagnostic image of the calcaneus?

a)

Plantarflex the foot.

b)

Increase CR angulation.

c)

Decrease CR angulation.

d)

Increase kVp to 70.

25.

Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney?

a)

Presence of right colic flexure

b)

Presence of the liver

c)

Presence of the stomach

d)

Presence of right suprarenal gland

26.

Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck?

a)

Medial oblique knee

b)

External oblique knee

c)

Medial oblique ankle

d)

Mortise ankle

27.

How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise projection?

a)

No rotation is necessary

b)

45- to 60-degree lateral

c)

15- to 20-degree medial

d)

25- to 30-degree medial

28.

Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a properly exposed abdomen projection on an average-size patient?

a)

Latissimus dorsi

b)

Erector spinae

c)

Psoas major

d)

Quadratus lumborum

29.

Which radiographic landmark is most reliable to evaluate the posteroanterior (PA) projection of the abdomen for rotation?

a)

Xiphoid process

b)

Symphysis pubis

c)

Ala of ilium

d)

ASIS

30.

The centering point “2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis” identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part?

a)

Hip

b)

Pelvis

c)

Knee

d)

Elbow

31.

Which of the following are the synarthrodial sutures of the skull?

a)

Coronal 

b)

Occipital 

c)

Sagittal 

d)

Squamosal 

e)

Lambdoidal 

32.

What term is used to describe turning of the body or arm so that the palm faces backward, with the thumb toward the midline of the body? 

a)

Abduction

b)

Circumduction

c)

Pronation

d)

Eversion

e)

Supination

33.

The most effective means of reducing voluntary motion is

a)

expediting the exam. 

b)

good communication.

c)

using the shortest possible exposure time. 

d)

using immobilization devices/restraints. 

34.

If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is:

a)

5 degrees caudad 

b)

5 degrees cephalad 

c)

perpendicular 

d)

0 degrees caudad 

35.

The AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity? 

a)

20°

b)

30°

c)

45°

d)

60°

36.

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

a)

Scapular Y 

b)

AP scapula 

c)

Medial oblique elbow 

d)

Lateral oblique elbow 

37.

The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of

a)

pulmonary markings 

b)

heart shadow 

c)

posterior ribs 

d)

costal cartilages 

38.

Which element does MRI use the magnetic properties of?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Pottasium

39.

In MRI, which electromagnetic wave is used to cause resonation in hydrogen atoms?

a)

Ultra-Violet waves

b)

Radiowaves

c)

Microwaves

d)

Gamma rays

40.

What CT generation is commonly used today?

a)

3rd Generation CT

b)

2nd Generation CT

c)

Electron Beam CT

d)

1st Generation CT

41.

Which technology was essential for the development of third and fourth generation scanners?

a)

Slip-rings

b)

Detector arrays

c)

RF coils

d)

Dose modulators

42.

A pulse sequence using a long TR and long TE will result in:

a)

T2 weighting

b)

T1 weighting

c)

PD weighting

d)

DP weighting

43.

According to the Hounsfield Unit scale, air will have a CT number of:

a)

0

b)

-1000

c)

+1000

d)

-250

44.

Which scanner generation utilized a fixed array of detectors?

a)

4th gen

b)

3rd gen

c)

2nd gen

d)

1st gen

45.

Static magnetic field strengths in MRI are measured in:

a)

Tesla

b)

Watts

c)

Ohms

d)

Grouss

46.

Arthrography is routinely performed prior to __ or __ imaging.

a)

CT, MRI

b)

CT, US

c)

MRI, US

d)

CT, IR

47.

Which of the following is NOT a joint routinely imaged using arthrography?

a)

Sacroiliac joint

b)

Hip joint

c)

Knee joint

d)

Shoulder joint

48.

Arthrography can be performed using double-contrast methods with:

a)

iodinated contrast and air

b)

iodinated contrast and oil

c)

gadolinium contrast and saline

d)

gadolinium contrast and silver sulfide

49.

What tissue weighting is this image?

a)

T1

b)

T2

c)

PD

d)

Gradient echo

50.

What is the line at which the magnetic field is considered to be strong enough to interfere with electronic devices and cause torque on ferrous objects?

a)

5 gauss line

b)

50 gauss line

c)

5 tesla line

d)

50 tesla line

51.

Which modality is ideal for diagnosing disease in the central nervous system?

a)

MRI

b)

Arthrography

c)

CT

d)

US

52.

Computed tomography scanners utilized for cardiac imaging must have excellent:

a)

temporal resolution, allowing them to obtain images rapidly and prevent motion artifacts

b)

spatial resolution, allowing them to obtain images rapidly and prevent motion artifacts

c)

temporal resolution, allowing them to obtain images slowly and prevent distortion

d)

spatial resolution, allowing them to obtain images continuously and prevent distortion

53.

Which of the following electronic component is used in ultrasound

a)

Quartz crystal

b)

Amplifier

c)

Transducer

d)

Transformer

54.

Ultrasound frequency is expressed in

a)

newtons (N)

b)

angstroms (A)

c)

rads

d)

hertz (Hz)

55.

Ultrasound waves are created by

a)

Photo electric effect

b)

Compton effect

c)

Piezoelectric effect

d)

None of these

56.

Doppler imaging

a)

is a type radiation treatment

b)

is a general term used to visualize velocities of moving tissues.

c)

is a low frequency ultrasound

d)

None od these

57.

Which of the following nuclear medicine instruments forms images resulting from the annihilation of pairs of matter and antimatter particles? Mark one answer:

a)

Positron emission tomography (PET) scanner

b)

Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) scanner

c)

Multigated acquisition (MUGA) scanner

d)

Scintigraphy scanner

58.

The term used to describe the decay of an isotope to one half of the original value is:

a)

Radioactive decay

b)

Half-Life

c)

Half value layer

d)

Time, Distance,Shielding

59.

The goal of radiation oncology is to:

a)

destroy all tissue in the portion of the body where the cancer is located.

b)

deliver a cancericidal dose to the tumor but limit the dose to normal tissue.

c)

limit dose to the cancer and normal tissue to avoid toxicity.

d)

deliver a large dose all at once to the cancer.

60.

_____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.

a)

Fractionation

b)

Differentiation

c)

Currative therapy

d)

Palative care

61.

One way to treat cancer but minimize the toxic effects of radiation is to use:

a)

fractionation.

b)

differentiation.

c)

palliation.

d)

conformal radiation.

62.

Radiation has more effect on cancer cells because _____ than normal cells.

a)

they are more highly differentiated

b)

a greater percentage of these cells are undergoing mitosis

c)

cancer cells undergo more direct interactions

d)

it interacts more readily with healthy cells

63.

The accurate calculation and measurement of radiation dose for treatment of a therapy patient is referred to as:

a)

brachytherapy.

b)

simulation.

c)

dosimetry.

d)

linear energy transfer.

64.

In ultrasound, sound waves transmits freely through ________  and is very poorly transmitted through ________. 

a)

fluid, air

b)

air, bone

c)

air, fluid

d)

fat, fluid

65.

In gamma cameras ________ crystals are better for imaging radiopharmaceuticals with higher energies, but result in decreased resolution. 

a)

thicker

b)

thinner

c)

synthetic

d)

transparent

66.

The pivot point between the x-ray tube and IR in a tomographic system is termed

a)

amplitude

b)

fulcrum

c)

tube trajectory

d)

objective plane

67.

Objects within the objective plane will appear

a)

blurred

b)

sharp and in relative focus

c)

as radiolucent densities

d)

as streaks

68.

Which of the following conditions is likely to result in pneumoperitoneum?

a)

Inflammation or necrosis

b)

Obstruction of the cystic duct

c)

Excessive alcohol consumption

d)

Perforation of the GI tract

69.

What is the primary cause of acute cholecystitis?

a)

Infection of the biliary system.

b)

Cirrhosis of the liver.

c)

Impacted gallstone in the cystic duct.

d)

Peptic ulcer disease.

70.

What is intussusception?

a)

A twisting of the bowel on itself.

b)

A type of inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, with an associated psychogenic element.

c)

Acquired herniation of the mucosa and submucosa of the intestinal wall.

d)

The telescoping of one part of the intestinal tract into another.

71.

Difficulty swallowing is termed

a)

deglutition

b)

mastication

c)

dysphagia

d)

aphasia

72.

The term etiology describes:

a)

the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease.

b)

relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment.

c)

arising from an unknown cause.

d)

the unique combination of signs and symptoms that characterize a disease process.

73.

The study of neoplasms or tumors is called

a)

pathology

b)

radiology

c)

oncology

d)

etiology

74.

Which type of cell is associated with bone resorption and bone removal?

a)

osteoclast

b)

osteocyte

c)

osteoblast

d)

osteolytic

75.

A fracture that occurs due to weakening of the bone as the result of a disease process is a ______ fracture.

a)

Greenstick.

b)

Stress.

c)

Fatigue.

d)

Pathologic.

76.

Constriction of the aorta at the distal arch is termed

a)

coarctation of the aorta

b)

tetralogy of Fallot

c)

aortic prolapse

d)

aortic valve insufficiency

77.

Which foramina are demonstrated with a left posterior oblique (LPO) position of the cervical spine?

a)

The left intervertebral foramina (downside)

b)

The right intervertebral foramina (upside)

c)

The right intervertebral foramina (downside)

d)

The left intervertebral foramina (upside)

78.

A lateral cervical spine projection shows the ramus of the mandible superimposed over the anatomy of interest. Which action should the technologist take when positioning for the repeat image to ensure that the same error does not occur?

a)

Increase the extension of the skull

b)

Angle the CR 10-15 degrees caudad

c)

Increase the flexion of the skull

d)

Have the patient hold 5-10 pounds in each hand

79.

When evaluating an oblique lumbar spine radiograph you notice that the joints are not well visualized, and the pedicle is posterior on the vertebral body. Which positioning error is present?

a)

The CR angle is too shallow

b)

Patient is over-rotated

c)

Patient is not in a true lateral

d)

Patient is under-rotated

80.

Number 1 represents the:

a)

Superior articular process

b)

Pars Interarticularis

c)

Spinous process

d)

Transverse Process

81.

The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at a ___ angle in relation to the MSP.

a)

90 degree

b)

45 degree

c)

70-75 degree

d)

30-35 degree

82.

In the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is _____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion.

a)

1-2 inches

b)

3-5 inches

c)

6-8 inches

d)

10-12 inches

83.

A breathing technique may be used to blur the lung markings on which of the following projections?

a)

RAO Sternum

b)

Lateral Sternum

c)

PA Oblique Ribs

d)

AP Oblique Ribs

84.

Which would best demonstrate an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?

a)

AP and RAO

b)

PA and LPO

c)

AP and LPO

d)

PA and RPO

85.

A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is free of superimposition with the spine.  What must be done to eliminate this problem?

a)

No change necessary.

b)

Increase rotation.

c)

Decrease rotation.

d)

Perform an LPO instead.

86.

A PA image of the SC joints demonstrates that the left SC joint is farther from the sternum than the right.  What specific positioning error is present?

a)

slight right rotation

b)

tilt of the upper thorax

c)

slight left rotation

d)

excessive angulation of the CR

87.

An image of an LAO projection of the ribs demonstrates the right axillary ribs are foreshortened and the left are elongated.  Which of the following is the most likely reason?

a)

CR angulation was incorrect

b)

the technologist should have performed a PA projection not an RAO

c)

an RAO was performed rather than the LAO

d)

the patient requires more rotation to the left

88.

A patient’s T-score given in a bone density report:

a)

compares the patient’s BMD with that of a young, healthy person of the same gender.

b)

compares the patient’s BMD with that of an age-matched normal population.

c)

compares the patient’s BMD with that of an age- and sex-matched normal population.

d)

is the same for all measurement sites.

89.

Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:

a)

quality assessment.

b)

system reliability.

c)

accuracy.

d)

precision.

90.

What is the most common clinical indication for a postoperative (T-tube) cholangiogram?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Chronic cholecystitis

d)

Residual calculi

91.

Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections?

a)

Supine

b)

Prone

c)

Standing

d)

Decubitus

92.

Which projections of the breast are routinely performed during screening mammography?

a)

Lateral

b)

Craniocaudal

c)

Mediolateral oblique

93.

The method used to image the breasts of women who have had implants is the:

a)

Towne

b)

Eklund

c)

Stecher

d)

Lawrence

94.

MRI is commonly used in mammography for imaging:

a)

male patients.

b)

patients older than 75.

c)

after lumpectomy surgery.

d)

the augmented breast.

95.

What is the recommended frequency of mammography for a women who is 50 years of age?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Once a year

c)

Every 1 to 2 years

d)

Every 3 years