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Quiz microbiology 28 oct 2025

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best represents the main function of the immune system?

a)

Hormonal regulation

b)

Elimination of non-self and abnormal cells

c)

Enzyme activation

d)

Oxygen transport

e)

Neural transmission

2.

Which feature differentiates innate from adaptive immunity?

a)

Memory formation

b)

Antigen specificity

c)

Immediate non-specific response

d)

Dependence on antibodies

e)

Requires prior exposure

3.

Which cells are the first responders in acute bacterial infection?

a)

Lymphocytes

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Basophils

e)

NK cells

4.

Which leukocyte secretes interleukin-1 to induce fever?

a)

NK cell

b)

Monocyte/macrophage

c)

Basophil

d)

Eosinophil

e)

B cell

5.

Which immune cell type is resident in the epidermis and functions as an antigen-presenting cell?

a)

Kupffer cell

b)

Langerhans cell

c)

Microglia

d)

Osteoclast

e)

Alveolar macrophage

6.

Which innate mechanism directly lyses microbes?

a)

Cytokines

b)

Complement system

c)

Antibodies

d)

Histamine

e)

Interleukin-2

7.

A defect in perforin formation would impair which cell’s function?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Neutrophils

c)

NK cells

d)

Macrophages

e)

Mast cells

8.

Which substance found in tears and saliva destroys bacterial cell walls?

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Histamine

c)

Complement C5

d)

Interferon

e)

Cytokine

9.

Which mechanical factor protects the respiratory tract?

a)

Ciliary movement

b)

Gastric acid

c)

Low pH of sweat

d)

Complement

e)

Urea excretion

10.

Which immune cell links innate and adaptive immunity by antigen presentation?

a)

Dendritic cell

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

NK cell

e)

Basophil

11.

Which statement is true of adaptive immunity?

a)

Immediate onset

b)

No memory

c)

Antigen-specific with memory

d)

Non-specific

e)

Independent of antigen

12.

Which pair is correctly matched?

a)

Neutrophil – allergic reaction

b)

Eosinophil – parasitic defense

c)

Basophil – antibody production

d)

Monocyte – antigen secretion

e)

NK cell – phagocytosis

13.

Which describes the function of macrophages in immunity?

a)

Histamine release

b)

Antigen presentation and phagocytosis

c)

Complement activation

d)

Antibody secretion

e)

Interferon production

14.

The substance causing fever during infection is:

a)

Interleukin-1

b)

Histamine

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Complement C3b

e)

Prostaglandin D

15.

Which best defines a hapten?

a)

Complete antigen

b)

Small molecule that becomes antigenic with a carrier

c)

Cytokine

d)

Complement fragment

e)

Autoantigen

16.

Which immune process is opsonization associated with?

a)

Phagocytosis enhancement

b)

Fever generation

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Cell-mediated lysis

e)

Antibody class switching

17.

Which best defines an antigenic determinant (epitope)?

a)

Entire antigen

b)

Antibody binding site

c)

Specific region of antigen recognized by antibody

d)

Cytokine receptor

e)

Immunoglobulin isotype

18.

Which of the following antimicrobial proteins is produced by virus-infected cells?

a)

Interferon

b)

Complement

c)

Lysozyme

d)

Cytokine IL-1

e)

Defensin

19.

What is the sequence of events in phagocytosis?

a)

Chemotaxis → Adherence → Ingestion → Digestion → Exocytosis

b)

Adherence → Digestion → Ingestion

c)

Ingestion → Chemotaxis → Digestion

d)

Exocytosis → Ingestion → Killing

e)

Adherence → Killing → Exocytosis

20.

Which of the following immune cells releases histamine and heparin?

a)

Basophil

b)

Monocyte

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

NK cell

21.

Which statement is true about neutrophils?

a)

Long-lived cells

b)

Short-lived phagocytes in acute inflammation

c)

Antigen-presenting cells

d)

Cytotoxic lymphocytes

e)

Produce antibodies

22.

Which immune system feature explains faster, stronger response after booster vaccination?

a)

Memory cells in adaptive immunity

b)

Complement activation

c)

Cytokine storm

d)

NK cell priming

e)

Physical barrier strengthening

23.

Which component forms pores similar to those produced by NK cells?

a)

Complement membrane attack complex

b)

Interleukin-2

c)

Histamine

d)

Lysozyme

e)

Cytokine IL-10

24.

Which of the following best describes immunologic surveillance?

a)

Recognition of tumor or virus-infected cells

b)

Complement activation

c)

Regulation of cytokines

d)

Antibody production

e)

Lymph flow control

25.

Which of the following barriers is biological?

a)

Skin keratin

b)

Gastric acid

c)

Normal microflora

d)

Saliva

e)

Mucus trapping

26.

Absence of thymus results in deficiency of:

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

NK cells

d)

Macrophages

e)

Neutrophils

27.

Which innate mechanism is not antigen-specific?

a)

Complement activation

b)

Antibody binding

c)

T-cell response

d)

B-cell memory

e)

Cytotoxic T cell activity

28.

The complement cascade primarily acts to:

a)

Lyse target cells

b)

Inhibit antibody production

c)

Lower body temperature

d)

Destroy self-tissues

e)

Neutralize toxins only

29.

Which process involves movement of leukocytes toward chemical stimuli?

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Diapedesis

c)

Opsonization

d)

Exocytosis

e)

Cytolysis

30.

Which of the following describes NK-cell cytotoxicity?

a)

Phagocytic uptake

b)

Perforin-mediated cell lysis

c)

Antibody secretion

d)

Cytokine IL-1 release

e)

Antigen presentation

31.

Which of the following cytokines acts as an endogenous pyrogen?

a)

IL-1

b)

IL-2

c)

IL-4

d)

TNF-β

e)

IL-10

32.

Which immune cells produce antibodies?

a)

Plasma cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

NK cells

d)

Monocytes

e)

Basophils

33.

Which of the following differentiates adaptive immunity?

a)

Antigen memory

b)

Immediate onset

c)

Non-specific attack

d)

No memory

e)

Barrier defense

34.

Which of the following prevents bacterial adherence to epithelial surfaces?

a)

Mucus and cilia

b)

Cytokines

c)

Antibodies

d)

Complement

e)

Fever

35.

Which of the following is not a granulocyte?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Basophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Monocyte

e)

Mast cell

36.

Which immune cell type secretes IL-1 and enhances T-cell activation?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Basophil

c)

NK cell

d)

Eosinophil

e)

Plasma cell

37.

Which immune molecule primarily enhances phagocytosis?

a)

Complement C3b

b)

Histamine

c)

IL-4

d)

Antibody IgE

e)

Lysozyme

38.

Which of the following best explains why adaptive immunity takes longer to develop?

a)

Requires antigen recognition and clonal expansion

b)

Depends on mechanical barriers

c)

Needs fever induction

d)

Needs complement activation first

e)

Occurs only after tissue injury

39.

The “first line of defense” includes all except:

a)

Intact skin

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Complement system

d)

Normal flora

e)

Saliva washing

40.

Which cell releases histamine and resembles mast cells?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Macrophage

e)

NK cell

41.

Which of the following statements about eosinophils is true?

a)

Active against bacteria

b)

Contain toxic granules for parasite defense

c)

Release interleukin-1

d)

Present antigens

e)

Destroy tumor cells directly

42.

Which of the following innate components also enhances inflammation?

a)

Complement cascade

b)

Cytotoxic T cell

c)

Antibody IgG

d)

Memory cell

e)

Plasma cell

43.

Which immune system acts immediately upon infection?

a)

Innate

b)

Adaptive

c)

Humoral

d)

Cellular adaptive

e)

Memory

44.

Which cell type in the liver functions as a macrophage?

a)

Kupffer cell

b)

Langerhans cell

c)

Microglia

d)

Osteoclast

e)

Dendritic cell

45.

Which of the following best defines an antigen?

a)

Any foreign substance that elicits an immune response

b)

Normal self-protein

c)

Cytokine

d)

Hormone

e)

Antibody

46.

Which cell type mainly performs phagocytosis in tissues?

a)

Macrophage

b)

Basophil

c)

NK cell

d)

Plasma cell

e)

Eosinophil

47.

Which of the following describes innate immunity correctly?

a)

Antigen-specific

b)

No memory and immediate

c)

Requires activation by vaccine

d)

Delayed onset

e)

Lymphocyte-dependent only

48.

Which of the following is a chemical factor of innate defense?

a)

Gastric acid pH

b)

Ciliary movement

c)

Intact skin

d)

Normal flora

e)

Saliva flow

49.

Which immune component provides protection against reinfection?

a)

Memory cells

b)

Complement

c)

Histamine

d)

Lysozyme

e)

NK cells

50.

Which immune response prevents infection spread by killing infected host cells?

a)

Cell-mediated immunity

b)

Humoral immunity

c)

Complement

d)

Phagocytosis

e)

Fever

51.

Inflammation is defined as:

a)

General fever response

b)

Local tissue reaction to injury

c)

Systemic hormonal change

d)

Immune tolerance mechanism

e)

Vascular collapse

52.

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?

a)

Redness

b)

Heat

c)

Pallor

d)

Swelling

e)

Pain

53.

“Functio laesa” added by Virchow refers to:

a)

Loss of function

b)

Heat

c)

Pain

d)

Redness

e)

Swelling

54.

Which of the following exogenous agents can initiate inflammation?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Uric acid

c)

Enzyme activation

d)

Hemorrhage

e)

Autoantibody

55.

Which endogenous cause may produce inflammation?

a)

Thrombosis

b)

Cold exposure

c)

Bacterial toxins

d)

Radiation

e)

Thermal burn

56.

Which of the following differentiates acute from chronic inflammation?

a)

Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages

b)

Absence of fluid exudate

c)

Short duration and neutrophil predominance

d)

Fibrosis development

e)

Granuloma formation

57.

Which of the following occurs earliest during inflammation?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Leukocyte infiltration

c)

Stasis

d)

Fever

e)

Granulation tissue formation

58.

The transient vasoconstriction at onset of inflammation serves to:

a)

Prevent blood loss

b)

Increase oxygen delivery

c)

Activate macrophages

d)

Promote exudation

e)

Increase heat production

59.

Increased vascular permeability in inflammation leads to:

a)

Protein-rich exudate formation

b)

Reduced blood viscosity

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Vasoconstriction

e)

Reduced swelling

60.

The hallmark of inflammation is:

a)

Vascular permeability increase

b)

Neuronal activation

c)

Enzyme inhibition

d)

Vasoconstriction

e)

Fibrosis

61.

Which cell predominates in early acute inflammation?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Macrophage

d)

Plasma cell

e)

Fibroblast

62.

During margination, leukocytes move:

a)

Toward vessel walls

b)

Into lymph nodes

c)

Into capillary lumen

d)

Away from injury

e)

Toward veins

63.

Rolling of leukocytes along endothelium is mediated by:

a)

Selectins

b)

Integrins

c)

Cadherins

d)

Immunoglobulins

e)

Cytokines

64.

Firm adhesion of leukocytes to endothelium involves:

a)

Integrins and CAMs

b)

Selectins only

c)

Collagen fibers

d)

Fibrinogen

e)

Histamine

65.

Diapedesis refers to:

a)

Passage of leukocytes through vessel wall

b)

Platelet aggregation

c)

Phagocytic ingestion

d)

Capillary constriction

e)

Bacterial movement

66.

Chemotaxis refers to:

a)

Directed migration of leukocytes toward chemical attractants

b)

Random movement of red blood cells

c)

Passive flow of plasma into tissues

d)

Movement of platelets to endothelium

e)

Reverse movement of lymphocytes

67.

Which of the following best describes rolling during inflammation?

a)

Transient attachment of leukocytes to endothelium via selectins

b)

Firm binding of leukocytes to endothelium

c)

Passage of leukocytes through basement membrane

d)

Ingestion of microbes by leukocytes

e)

Activation of complement cascade

68.

The primary adhesion molecules involved in firm leukocyte adhesion are:

a)

Integrins and ICAMs

b)

Selectins only

c)

Cadherins and desmosomes

d)

Histamine and prostaglandins

e)

Cytokines and chemokines

69.

During acute inflammation, the predominant leukocyte after 24–48 hours is:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Macrophage

d)

Plasma cell

e)

Eosinophil

70.

Which of the following vascular events leads directly to redness and heat in inflamed tissue?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Platelet aggregation

d)

Increased permeability

e)

Fibrin deposition

71.

The pain of inflammation is primarily due to:

a)

Bradykinin and prostaglandins acting on nerve endings

b)

Histamine-mediated vasodilation

c)

Complement C3b deposition

d)

Neutrophil chemotaxis

e)

Cytokine IL-1

72.

The main purpose of increased vascular permeability is to:

a)

Allow plasma proteins and leukocytes to reach tissues

b)

Maintain blood pressure

c)

Prevent heat loss

d)

Promote platelet plug formation

e)

Dilute bacterial toxins in circulation

73.

Which of the following best describes stasis during inflammation?

a)

Slowing of blood flow due to plasma leakage and cell concentration

b)

Complete cessation of blood flow

c)

Early vasoconstriction

d)

Decrease in vascular permeability

e)

Activation of complement proteins

74.

In acute inflammation, which event immediately follows vasodilation?

a)

Increased vascular permeability

b)

Leukocyte adhesion

c)

Stasis

d)

Chemotaxis

e)

Fever

75.

Which inflammatory mediator is most responsible for vasodilation?

a)

Histamine

b)

Bradykinin

c)

Serotonin

d)

Complement C5a

e)

Interleukin-2

76.

Which of the following mediators is primarily chemotactic for neutrophils?

a)

Complement C5a

b)

Histamine

c)

Serotonin

d)

Prostaglandin E2

e)

Bradykinin

77.

The predominant cells in chronic inflammation are:

a)

Lymphocytes and macrophages

b)

Neutrophils and eosinophils

c)

Mast cells and basophils

d)

Platelets and erythrocytes

e)

Plasma cells and fibroblasts only

78.

Which of the following best differentiates chronic inflammation?

a)

Tissue destruction and repair occur simultaneously

b)

Dominated by neutrophils

c)

Always results in abscess formation

d)

Has a sudden onset

e)

Involves only vascular events

79.

Which of the following cell types is key in granulomatous inflammation?

a)

Epithelioid macrophage

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Basophil

d)

NK cell

e)

Plasma cell

80.

Which of the following mediators increases vascular permeability most effectively?

a)

Histamine

b)

IL-2

c)

Interferon

d)

Complement C3a

e)

Bradykinin

81.

The redness of inflammation (rubor) results mainly from:

a)

Vasodilation and increased blood flow

b)

Plasma leakage

c)

Fibrin deposition

d)

Chemotaxis

e)

Neutrophil degranulation

82.

The swelling of inflammation (tumor) is primarily due to:

a)

Exudation of plasma into tissues

b)

Vasoconstriction

c)

Increased lymphatic drainage

d)

Cell proliferation

e)

Decreased hydrostatic pressure

83.

The local rise in temperature during inflammation is due to:

a)

Increased blood flow from vasodilation

b)

Pyrogenic cytokines

c)

Complement activation

d)

Prostaglandin inhibition

e)

Leukocyte margination

84.

Which of the following events occurs before diapedesis?

a)

Rolling and firm adhesion of leukocytes

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Cytokine release

d)

Collagen deposition

e)

Opsonization

85.

The purpose of margination during inflammation is to:

a)

Bring leukocytes close to endothelium for adhesion

b)

Stop blood flow

86.

Which of the following occurs during transmigration of leukocytes?

a)

Passage through interendothelial junctions

b)

Adherence to basement membrane only

c)

Destruction of endothelial cells

d)

Passive diffusion of plasma

e)

Enzyme inhibition

87.

Which chemical mediator is derived from arachidonic acid via the cyclooxygenase pathway?

a)

Prostaglandins

b)

Complement proteins

c)

Cytokines

d)

Lysozyme

e)

Histamine

88.

A burn patient develops acute inflammation. The predominant cell type in the early lesion would be:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Macrophage

d)

Fibroblast

e)

Eosinophil

89.

Which of the following best explains loss of function (“functio laesa”)?

a)

Pain and swelling impair normal movement

b)

Loss of blood supply

c)

Fibrosis alone

d)

Vasoconstriction

e)

Cellular necrosis only

90.

In chronic inflammation, macrophages are activated primarily by:

a)

Interferon-γ from T cells

b)

Histamine

c)

Complement C3a

d)

IL-1

e)

Bradykinin

91.

Which of the following is not an outcome of acute inflammation?

a)

Resolution

b)

Suppuration

c)

Fibrosis

d)

Regeneration

e)

Metastasis

92.

Which of the following is true regarding exudate formation?

a)

It is rich in protein and cells

b)

It is a transudate with low protein

c)

It results from reduced permeability

d)

It contains only RBCs

e)

It never occurs in acute inflammation

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